Volume 2. Food Service Flashcards
1
Q
- Who is the eyes and ears of management and acts as the liaison to customers?
A
- The food service shift leaders/senior cooks.
2
Q
- When should you return unused subsistence to the store room?
A
- At the end of each meal period.
3
Q
- To prevent communications problems, how often should you hold staff meetings with all shifts?
A
- At least weekly.
4
Q
- What is the stated goal of scheduling?
A
- To maximize the number of workers at peak workload periods.
5
Q
- From what sources can you gather training material/topic to train your staff?
A
- The Dining Facility Manager’s Quarterly Planner and Services STAs.
6
Q
- A member who receives the meal portion of per diem can use the dining facility as what type of
customer?
- A member who receives the meal portion of per diem can use the dining facility as what type of
A
- Cash paying.
7
Q
- Who authorizes civilians to eat meals in the dining facility?
A
- Installation commander.
8
Q
- Name the two DOD meal rates.
A
- (1) Discount.
(2) Standard.
9
Q
- What is the surcharge used to purchase?
A
- Operating supplies and expendable items.
10
Q
- What percentage of the surcharge is deposited into the Base O&M appropriation if the dining
facility does not have a full food service contract?
- What percentage of the surcharge is deposited into the Base O&M appropriation if the dining
A
- 50 percent.
11
Q
- List the operational advantages of a cyclic menu.
A
- (1) Providing flexibility.
(2) Forecasting requirements for logistics.
(3) Production planning.
(4) Serving efficiency.
(5) Training, scheduling, and consistency.
(6) Configuring menus within monetary targets by meal period.
12
Q
- What type of milk is primarily used in the dining facility?
A
- 1 percent.
13
Q
- 3 Which fruit is mandatory for all breakfast meals?
A
- Bananas, mlons, grapes, and berries.
14
Q
- What type of egg is mandatory for all omelets and scrambled eggs?
A
- Pasteurized reduced cholesterol.
15
Q
- How many grilled short order items are mandatory for the lunch and dinner meals?
A
- 4 hot grilled items.
16
Q
- Which meal is set up as the first meal of the day?
A
- Midnight meal if the dining facility offers it.
17
Q
- Who must approve all additional food items not in the Core Catalog?
A
- HQ AFSVVA/SVOFO.
18
Q
- What tool is used to design, plan, and control food production?
A
- The production log.
19
Q
- What is used as a management tool to plan and service flight meals?
A
- The CFS Menu Preface.
20
Q
- Which flight meal is authorized for aircrews wearing oxygen masks?
A
- Bite-size.
21
Q
- What type of cheese is used in a low-residue flight meal?
A
- Cottage cheese.
22
Q
- Which flight meal is commonly used as the second meal on a long flight?
A
- MREs.
23
Q
- Complimentary snacks and beverages served on flights must not exceed what amount?
A
- $2.00.
24
Q
- How often are self inspections conducted within the dining operation?
A
- Weekly.
25
205. 2. Which forms may be used to conduct internal self inspections within the dinning operation?
2. AF Form 977 and AF Form 1038.
26
205. 3. At least how long do you keep self-inspection records?
3. One year.
27
206. 1. Where is the primary location for catering on base?
1. Clubs.
28
206. 2. What can you do with unused food items from a catered event?
2. Serve them for subsequent lunch and dinner meals.
29
206. 3. Name three additional sources of revenue generated at a catered event.
3. Any three of the following:
(1) Photographers.
(2) Entertainers.
(3) Bakeries.
(4) Florists.
(5) Rental firms with specialty items.
30
207. 1. Who has the authority to allow off-base civilians to eat in the base dining facilities during an
emergency?
1. The installation commander.
31
207. 2. What is the maximum amount of MRE rations you can purchased during an emergency situation?
2. A two-day supply for each ESM patron.
32
207. 3. Who must you contact before ordering MREs for emergency situations?
3. HQ AFSVA/SVOFO.
33
208. 1. Define sanitizing.
1. The process of reducing the number of microorganisms on a clean surface to safe levels.
34
208. 2. Who determines if a member is cleared to return to work in the food operation?
2. Medical authorities.
35
208. 3. When are floors swept and mopped?
3. After each meal period.
36
208. 4. What equipment needs to be cleaned quarterly to reduce the risk of fires?
4. Ventilation hoods.
37
208. 5. When are beverage dispensers cleaned?
5. Daily.
38
209. 1. Define communicable disease.
1. An illness caused by microorganisms which can be transmitted from an infected person to another or from
animal contact; they can also be transmitted by consuming raw or undercooked meats/leftovers, unwashed
vegetables/produce, and contaminated subsistence.
39
209. 2. How are communicable diseases passed from person-to-person?
2. By direct or indirect contact with infected persons or their excretions.
40
209. 3. List five common communicable diseases.
3. Any five of the following:
(1) AIDS.
(2) Botulism.
(3) Chickenpox.
(4) Campylobacter.
(5) Diphtheria.
(6) E. coli (variations).
(7) Hepatitis A, B, and C.
(8) Listeriosis.
(9) Flu.
(10) Measles.
(11) Mumps.
(12) Norwalk Virus.
(13) Salmonellosis.
(14) STDs.
(15) Shigellosis.
(16) Smallpox.
(17) Staphylococcus.
(18) Tuberculosis.
41
210. 1. Define the USAF Food Danger Zone.
1. Between 41and 140ºF.
42
210. 2. To what internal temperature and for at least how long must leftovers be reheated?
2. 165ºF; 15 seconds.
43
210. 3. What is the maximum time frame in which leftovers must be used?
3. 7 days.
44
210. 4. List the safe internal temperatures for meats commonly used in our dining facilities.
4. (1) Rare roast beef, 130ºF.
(2) Cooked beef products, fish, or lamb, 145ºF.
(3) Cooked pork and any food containing pork, 155ºF.
(4) Cooked poultry and stuffed meats and stuffing, 165ºF.
45
210. 5. List the thawing methods used in food service operations.
5. (1) Under refrigeration, 41ºF or below.
(2) Cold running water, product not to exceed 41ºF for longer than four hours.
(3) Room temperature as part of the preparation process, not to exceed four hours.
(4) Microwave as part of the cooking process.
46
211. 1. Who plays an important role in making sure food safety procedures are followed throughout the
operation?
1. All food service personnel.
47
211. 2. As part of the HAACP plan, training should be listed for whom?
2. Employees and supervisors.
48
212. 1. Define batch preparation.
1. A predetermined quantity or number of servings of food that is to be prepared at selected time intervals in
progressive cookery for a given meal period to ensure fresh, high quality cooked food to customers.
49
212. 2. Define garnish.
2. To decorate with small pieces of colorful food.
50
212. 3. Define progressive cookery.
3. The continuous preparation of food in successive steps during the entire serving period (i.e., continuous
preparation of vegetables, cook-to-order hamburgers, steaks, fried eggs, pancakes). This procedure ensures
fresh, high quality cooked food to customers on a continuous basis.
51
213. 1. What is the purpose of sautéing food?
1. To minimize water loss and vitamin destruction, yet maximize browning and flavor development.
52
213. 2. What does searing prevent?
2. The loss of water and flavor in the cooking process.
53
213. 3. What is the main difference between broiling and grilling?
3. Gravity.
54
213. 4. What is the temperature range for deep fat drying?
4. 325 – 400F.
55
213. 5. Baking is what type of cooking method?
5. Dry heat.
56
214. 1. List the internal temperature of meats that indicate the degree of doneness.
1. (1) Rare: 130F.
(2) Medium Rare: 140F.
(3) Medium: 160F.
(4) Well Done: 170F.
57
214. 2. When the checking the temperature of each item of food is not practical, what can you do to make
sure the food being prepared is the proper temperature.
2. When the checking the temperature of each item of food is not practical, what can you do to make
2. Routinely verify the specific process and cooking equipment are capable of attaining a final internal
product temperature at all locations in or on the cooking equipment.
58
215. 1. What purpose does garnishing serve?
1. To decorate food.
59
215. 2. List at least four practical guidelines for effectively garnishing food.
2. Any four of the following:
(1) Use restraint in garnishing. Keep a picture of the whole meal in mind when selecting a garnish. Then,
use it sparingly.
(2) Don’t use garnish on every item. Too much garnish is worse than no garnish at all.
(3) Plan garnishes ahead of time and show subordinates how to serve the garnished foods.
(4) Don’t sacrifice time required to prepare quality foods just to prepare garnishes.
(5) Take advantage of contrast in the natural colors of food items.
(6) Don’t rely on the use of artificial food coloring as a method of garnishing.
60
215. 3. As a safety precaution, never fill pans on the serving line that contain liquid more than how full?
3. ¾.
61
215. 4. What should be considered when selecting the best serving tool for the food item being served?
4. Appearance, texture, composition, size and shape of each item.
62
215. 5. How should the un-served portion of a carved meat item appear if carved correctly?
5. Neat and without jagged edges.
63
216. 1. Define progressive cooking.
1. Cooking small batches of food to be available as needed.
64
216. 2. Using progressive cooking improves the use of what?
2. Time, food, and personnel.
65
216. 3. What is the most important management device when preparing large quantities of food?
3. Waste control.
66
216. 4. What factors contribute to plate waste?
4. Poor portion control, unpopular dishes, and improper servings.
67
216. 5. When storing food items, what method is used for stock rotation?
5. First in, first out.
68
1. (201) Who is solely responsible for drawing and returning subsistence after each meal period?
b. Senior cook.
69
2. (201) When does the shift leader review the waste log to make sure all waste is authorized?
b. Before it is processed.
70
3. (202) Normally, who are primary users of the dining hall?
d. Enlisted members.
71
4. (202) Who is the approval authority for civilians and officers to use the dining facility?
d. Installation commander.
72
5. (202) When are Department of Defense (DOD) meal rates published?
d. Annually.
73
6. (202) Which items are not purchased with a proportional charge for meals?
a. Food.
74
7. (203) What is the primary milk used in dining facilities?
d. 1%.
75
8. (203) What is the minimum number of fresh fruit that must be available during the lunch and dinner
meals?
b. 6.
76
9. (203) Who or what agency is the approval authority for adding new items to the AF Core Catalog.
b. HQ AFSVA.
77
10. (204) Which management tool is used as guidance for flight meal preparation and service?
a. Air Force Corporate Food Service Recipe System Menu Preface.
78
11. (204) Bite size meals are consumed by aircrews wearing what?
c. Oxygen masks.
79
12. (204) A high-protein, low residue meal would not be given to aircrew because of the
d. flight lasting only four hours.
80
13. (204) Transportation working capital industrial fund (TWCF) funds are used to provide what to
passengers?
b. Complimentary snacks and beverages.
81
14. (205) How often does the United States Air Force (USAF) amended food code require selfinspections
of dining facilities to be done?
b. Weekly.
82
15. (206) Where is the primary location/source for on-base catering?
d. AF Clubs.
83
16. (207) Who is the approval authority to allow civilians access to the dining facility during emergency situation?
c. Installation commander.
84
17. (208) Who is the clearance authority for food service personnel to return to food operation after
an illness?
a. Medical doctor.
85
18. (208) When sanitizing serving line equipment, when must personnel clean cutting boards?
c. After each use of the item.
86
19. (208) When sanitizing dining room equipment, personnel must clean beverage dispensers
d. daily.
87
20. (209) Individuals can contract a communicable disease by
d. consuming undercooked meats.
88
21. (210) What is the minimal safe internal cooking temperature for cooked poultry and stuffed meats
and stuffing?
a. 165ºF.
89
22. (211) The hazard analysis and critical control point (HACCP) plan must include a training plan
for whom?
a. Employee and supervisors.
90
23. (212) The continuous preparation of food in successive steps during the entire serving period is
called
a. progressive cookery.
91
24. (212) The term for a predetermined quantity or number of servings of food that is to be prepared
at selected time intervals is
b. batch preparation.
92
25. (213) Sauté literally means what?
a. Jump.
93
26. (213) Searing food prevent the loss of what?
a. Water.
94
27. (213) What is the main difference between broiling and grilling?
c. Gravity.
95
28. (213) What is the major drawback in using commercial steamers?
d. Difficulty in inspecting the food during cooking resulting in overcooking.
96
29. (214) Where in the meat should you insert a thermometer for optimal temperature reading?
b. Center of the meat, without contacting the bone.
97
30. (214) What is the maximum temperature for rare beef?
d. 130°F.
98
31. (214) What is the maximum temperature for well done beef?
a. 170°F.
99
32. (215) What is the main purpose of garnishing food?
c. Decorate.
100
33. (215) To use any garnish item, it must be
c. edible.
101
34. (215) Which type of meat should be carved in the kitchen prior to serving?
d. Poultry.
102
35. (216) Which action is not a principle of progressive cooking?
d. Cook all entrée items before the start of the meal.
103
36. (216) What factor is not a cause of plate waste?
d. Proper cooking temps.
