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SF > Volume 2 CDCs > Flashcards

Volume 2 CDCs Flashcards

1
Q

When can USAF personnel use objectively reasonable force

A

While conducting authorized missions or official duties to obtain compliance from an individual or individuals to meet lawful objectives or mission requirements

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2
Q

What are the four UTP areas

A

Position of advantage, response/action, threat assessment/decision making, evaluation/follow through

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3
Q

In what ways must the use of force be objectively reasonable

A

In intensity, duration, and magnitude upon totality of circumstances to counter threat

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4
Q

What does the security forces reliability standard require of all security forces members

A

To be routinely monitored for reliability to perform security and law-enforcement duties

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5
Q

What standard must the use of force meet

A

Objective reasonableness standard

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6
Q

What are the three main elements of action and assessment in application of force

A

Tools, tactics, and timing

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7
Q

What are the special considerations for the use of fire arms and deadly force

A

When feasible, order halt before discharging weapon. Use due regard for the safety of innocent bystanders when using deadly force. No warning shots

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8
Q

What are command authority describing the circumstances and limitations needed so we can start or continue at military operations as known as

A

Rules of engagement

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9
Q

What are two distinct categories of our ROEs

A

Self-defense or mission accomplishment

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10
Q

What is hostile intent

A

The imminent threat of force against US forces including threat of force to prelude or impede the missing and/or duties of US forces

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11
Q

How is verbal communication done

A

With both the conscious and unconscious mind

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12
Q

What are the paralinguistic communications aspects

A

Tone, pitch, pace, and Modulation

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13
Q

What is a challenge always based on

A

The assumption the person or persons are hostile

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14
Q

What is the third command when challenging individuals in vehicle

A

Command the driver to extend their hands outside the door and unlatch it using the outside door handle. Next, have the driver remove seatbelt and push the door open with left foot. Slowly step outside away from Sound of voice. Driver side door kept open

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15
Q

After securing of occupants in the vehicle challenge, what is the next step

A

Approach vehicle if possible with MWD. Challenge any remaining suspects to surrender

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16
Q

When handcuffing an individual, why must you carefully analyze each situation to ensure you use the appropriate level of force

A

Courts consider Handcuffing a form of use of force

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17
Q

What is the last step prior to any movement of the individual from the apprehension area

A

Double lock the handcuffs for your and the suspects safety

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18
Q

What is intermediate use of force

A

The level of force necessary to compel a subject compliance and neither likely nor intend to cause death

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19
Q

What does the defensive technique of framing allow security forces members to do, and how was it accomplished

A

It allows security forces to use defensive technique to position themselves from less to a more dominant stance. Create space by placing for arm or shin against body part

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20
Q

As a security forces member, when would you use the X step defensive technique, and what does it allow you to do

A

In close quarters in crowded areas to get space to travel direction/to create space.
X step - get subject of SF centerline
X step to post frame - subject resists x step

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21
Q

When do you use the stand up to base technique, and how do you perform it

A

When knocked To the ground, put support side foot heel to buttocks, Weapon side leg on the ground slightly bent. Weapon side hand on the ground, support side hand used as a shield. Weapon side hand and support side foot are used to raise hips of ground and kick with weapons side foot through suspects knee. Weapon side leg under body and recover

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22
Q

How and why is the break contact from Mount technique done

A

Gain control of subjects arm against chest. Extend both arms and pin to chest. Drag weapon side foot over subjects knee and frame subjects hip with Shin. Control arms, 360 scan, and disengage to use other force

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23
Q

When and how is the arm trap and roll done

A

When in non-dominant position and subject is striking you. Bridge hips and cause suspect to post hands on ground. Head outside of posted hand and capture and collapse elbow. Bring centerline. Post your foot outside subjects leg and other centerline. Push off and bridge your hips while rolling subject over. Roll in direction of trapped leg and arm and Establish good guard posture

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24
Q

What is the purpose of submissions when it comes to security forces

A

Not as a use of force, but rather as a defense of technique and to train to identify its application in a life-threatening scenario

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25
Q

When and how is the Kimura from the guard accomplished

A

One subject is attempting to take weapon. Establish wrist control with weapons side hand. Support side arm up and over subjects arm and grab your weapon side wrist with thumbless grip. Turn torso and direction of wrist control of suspect. Weapon side leg over subjects lower back and hug trapped arm. Subjects hand up in 90° angle and Palm to the ground.

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26
Q

To ensure the safety of the patrol officer and for legal precautions, what is the first step you perform before placing a subject inside a vehicle for transport

A

Perform a search of the transporting vehicle prior

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27
Q

What information will you provide BDOC before transporting the suspect

A

Starting mileage, start time of transport, destination arrival time, and ending mileage

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28
Q

What factors must you consider before releasing an offender

A

Jurisdiction, if the offender is military or civilian, or if offender is juvenile

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29
Q

How is the first component of a proper stance obtain

A

Wide base: by standing with feet shoulder width apart

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30
Q

What is the second step in the employment of OC pepper spray

A

Hold unit close to upper chest and target suspects facial area. Discharge range of 6 to 8 feet

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31
Q

What is the fourth step in the employment of OC spray

A

Position upwind, avoid contaminated areas. Should notice disorientation, closing of eyes, loss of motor control, intense burning, difficulty breathing within 2 to 3 seconds

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32
Q

How long should you monitor the subject from the time the subject initial exposure to OC pepper spray

A

A minimum of one hour

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33
Q

What is the sixth step of function check on the X 26

A

Look for visible spark between the electrodes and listen for rapid spark rate

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34
Q

When using a grid map, what are the steps and finding a refined grid

A

Divide square into tenths, identified by numbers designated 1–9

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35
Q

Where are the four steps IRB will take when responding to an accident

A
  1. Emergency measures provide federal present and humanitarian support
  2. Save lives, secure site, safeguard classified material, contamination, and contain hazard
  3. Remain in charge until DCG arrives or DOD agency for nukes
  4. Maintain presence and support DCG
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36
Q

What do major accidents involve (nukes)

A

Involving DOD material or resulting from DOD activities

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37
Q

What are the phases of response to handle accident , disaster, and incident scenes

A

Notification, response, response force actions, withdrawal, and recovery

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38
Q

What is he AF philosophy on the lead agency concept

A

To comply with lead agency concept by yielding to civilian authorities like FBI when possible

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39
Q

Who determines the cordon size of an accident scene, and what is the cordon size based upon

A

Installation commander

Area affected and any requirement for additional resources within the cordon area

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40
Q

Where will the ECP initially be located

A

Upwind or crosswind

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41
Q

What are your options if a restricted area cannot be marked using elevated markers

A

Mark boundary with painted line 4-6in with bright color. Red-orange, fluorescent, reflective color

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42
Q

Who will staff an ECP if it needs to be established for convenience

A

The requesting agency with direct communication with BDOC

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43
Q

Why are vehicle searches conducted on specific vehicles

A

Due to information or investigation establishing probable cause

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44
Q

What determines the manner you search a vehicle

A

The size of the object

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45
Q

When can you conduct a protective frisk

A

During lawful stop when you reasonably believe a person is armed and presently dangerous to you or others

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46
Q

Where and how would you conduct a concentric circle search

A

Used in rooms, buildings, and small outdoor areas. Proceed in ever widening or ever narrowing circles clockwise fashion

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47
Q

Where and how would you conduct a strip and grid search

A

Used in large outdoor areas. Divide area into strips 4 ft wide and search one end and move back and forth. Upon completion additional strip search right to left

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48
Q

What is the best evidence rule

A

With written documents: the original is preferred over a copy

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49
Q

Why do we have to save all field notes or rough drafts

A

Jencks Act is a federal law dealing with evidence

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50
Q

What is the primary reason for hearsay rule

A

Is the right of both prosecution and defense to cross examine opposing witnesses under oath at trial

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51
Q

How and where do you mark evidence

A

Initials, date, and time of discovery. Place markings on a place least likely to affect appearance or monetary value

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52
Q

Who starts the chain of custody for evidence

A

The person who first receives or seizes the property

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53
Q

What article in UCMJ covers controlled substances

A

Article 112a

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54
Q

What is the role of SF member during a referral

A

To maintain order, secure the scene as necessary and stand by u til relieved or advised or further responsibility for the case

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55
Q

When is apprehension the best course of action

A

When there is a formal complaint: probable cause exists violating the UCMJ or local law. Or when the family member refuses to cooperate with you, first shirt, commander, or advocate officials

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56
Q

While working as a BDOC controller, what is the fourth step you must accomplish during all possible family violence situations

A

Check AF form 1314, Fire arms registration, or local fire arms database and inform the patrols of residence possible ownership of fire arms and type

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57
Q

What should you do before interviewing suspects

A

Read them their rights/protect their rights

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58
Q

What is the responsibility of an SF member at a sexual assault/rape

A

To preserve all evidence of the assault

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59
Q

What is a simple assault

A

And attempt or offer with unlawful force or violence to do bodily harm to another whether or not the times or offer is consummated

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60
Q

What is aggravated assault

A

And assault with a dangerous weapon or object likely to cause death or grievous bodily harm

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61
Q

What are the four phases of the judicial process

A

Response, investigation, prosecution, confinement

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62
Q

What is the first goal in the VWAP

A

Immediate and permanent termination of the harmful act

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63
Q

How are impromptu gathering developed

A

Informally and done by word-of-mouth. One person to another or group

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64
Q

When does an emergency disbursal occur

A

When people evacuate an area Because of an unexpected crisis such as fire, explosion, bomb threat , or terrorist acts of

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65
Q

What additional element does a sighting crowd have from a casual crowd

A

An event

66
Q

What are the characteristics of a riot baton

A

Length is 26- 42 inches
Made of hickory
Does not shatter or break
1 1/4 in in diameter

67
Q

Where are the primary target areas for a baton

A

Foot/shin
Inside and outside of thigh
Lower abdominal region
Forearm/upper arm

68
Q

What our final target areas for baton

A

Front and back of head, neck and throat, upper chest, xiphoid process

69
Q

For where our control force formations used

A

To disburse, contain, or blpick a crowd

70
Q

Where are the offense of an defense of applications of the line formation

A

Offensive – lone is used to push or drive crowd straight back across open area
Defensive – line is used to hold the crowd or deny access to area

71
Q

How is force protection achieved

A

Through the successful execution of integrated defense, emergency management, and the critical infrastructure program

72
Q

What are the two central areas of change of perspective required in the shift to ID

A
  1. Resource-based defense posture to risk based defense posture
  2. Compliance based operations to Effects based operations
73
Q

What FP effect should be developed to identify the presence of an object or event of possible military interest, whether a threat or a hazard

A

Detect

74
Q

What are the three types of control authority that reside in every organization in the Armed Forces

A

TACON tactical, 0PCON operational, ADCON administrative

75
Q

What does TACON provide

A

Sufficient authority for controlling and directing the application of force or tactical use of combat support assets within the assigned a mission or task

76
Q

What type of fencing is authorized for use in a restricted area

A

Type A

77
Q

For what are elevated barriers used

A

To identify restricted areas located on the flightline

78
Q

What are the five basic lighting system is used for restricted areas

A

Entry point, boundary, special purpose non-nuclear, area lighting and very near infrared, combination

79
Q

Where are SRT is required

A

At all installations supporting PL one, two, or three resources

80
Q

What will the RAB issuing authority do if the owner of a lost badge is not located within two weeks

A

Destroy the badge

81
Q

What must be done before a RAB is lanimated

A

Mark the badge with a locally devised authentication feature before

82
Q

As in EC, what actions do you take in the event in individual passes back a wrong counter sign when requesting entry into a Restricted area

A

Take the information as a sign of duress or hostile nature

83
Q

What are primary duties of a sentry

A

Maintain surveillance over assigned areas, reacting in reporting any unauthorized entry or personnel found in the area

84
Q

When does CIS control entry into aircrafts

A

When aircraft is carrying specific PL1 assets

85
Q

How are deviations from establish security criteria categorized

A

Technical, temporary, or permanent deviations

86
Q

How often must be approving authority review all permanent security deviations

A

Only once and don’t need expiration date

87
Q

What form must be used to document security deviations

A

AF form 116, request for deviation from security criteria

88
Q

What does the nuclear roadmap contain

A

Comprehensive action plans describing the actions required to restore public trust and ensure a credible nuclear deterrence

89
Q

What does the nuclear roadmap aim to identify

A

Common actions that must be standardized to ensure safe, secure, and reliable nuclear operations

90
Q

What do the nuclear weapon security program concepts mandate

A

That the security system stops an intruder before unauthorized access to a weapon can be achieved

91
Q

What is a nuclear weapon incident

A

And unexpected event involving the release or potential release of nuclear material caused by adversary actions and in this way different from nuclear related material

92
Q

For what is the NDA used, and who must designate and mark the NDA boundary

A

It’s used for to safeguard classified defense information and protect DoD equipment and material outside the confines of a military installation, but within the territory of the US. The senior DOD representative at the scene marks the boundary

93
Q

Who will develop local procedures for MMB use and Maintenance

A

MAJCOM’s

94
Q

What forms the cornerstone of the threat planning for nuclear security systems

A

Countering assessed and projected adversary capabilities

95
Q

Why are vulnerability assessments conducted a nuclear weapons operating locations

A

To determine the facilities vulnerability to sabotage, standoff attack, theft, loss, seizure, or unauthorized access by both external and internal threats

96
Q

How is a missile complex comprised

A

A 3–4 squadron areas containing five missile alert facilities providing housing for deployed security forces members and services teams and LFs which house ICBM nuclear resource

97
Q

What are nuclear weapons protected by when stored within a locked weapons security vault

A

A WS3 system providing significant access delay and denial

98
Q

What requirements must perimeter boundary fence meet

A

Two boundary fences separated by not less than 30 feet or not more than 150 feet. 9–46 m

99
Q

When will steel body steel shackle padlocks meeting the requirements of federal specifications FF-P-2827 be used in a restricted area

A

To secure frequently used perimeter gates, manhole covers large enough to fit a person and penetrate fence, access panels, culvert gratings, and alarm junctions

100
Q

What does a clear zone using to find system consist of

A

An area extending 30 feet outside the outer fence, the entire area between fences and an area extending 30 feet inside inner-fence

101
Q

What does basic configuration of the ECF include

A

A hardened gate house that provides protection for security forces personnel from small arms fire, a personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area

102
Q

Who will determine the appropriate number of persons permitted inside an exclusion area

A

The SVA

103
Q

Who are permitted unescorted entry into exclusion areas

A

Only personnel certified through nuclear weapons PRP, or the host national equivalent at WS3 installations

104
Q

What is the primary function of the three person SRT

A

To provide back up to the two person ART for security responses

105
Q

Who receives the A and B combinations when penetrating the LF

A

A: SF
B: Maintenance

106
Q

What are the duties of the security system operators

A

Operate electronic security systems and equipment employment to secure nuclear weapons. Dispatch security forces to alarms and make a initial notifications. Exercise command and control over assigned forces. Control entry to structures. Alert shelters and individuals

107
Q

What are the minimum standards for PAS – IIDS

A

Point Sensors on all door openings and a motion detection zone that includes the top of the vault, as it is the sole access point to a limited/exclusion areas regardless of the avenue of approach

108
Q

What must a CO cover as a minimum during a personal interview

A

Ensure each person selected and retained for performing duties associated with nuclear weapons/components/control system/equipment is emotionally stable and physically capable and demonstrated reliability and professional competence

109
Q

What are the two types of PRP decertification

A

Temporary and permanent

110
Q

What is NSI

A

Nuclear surety inspection. Inspect units capability to safely and reliably receive, store, secure, assemble, transport, maintain, load, mate, lock/unlock, test, render safe and employ nuke systems

111
Q

What is an LNSI

A

Limited nuclear surety inspection. Assess sustain performance of nuclear surety while minimizing the inspection footprint on a unit operation

112
Q

What is an NWIT

A

Nuclear weapons technical inspections. Compliance inspections and are conducted to evaluate a unit ability to manage nuclear resources while complying with all nuclear surety standards

113
Q

What is the definition of custodial agent

A

An individual acting on behalf of the custodian and maintaining control of access to US nuclear weapons and maintaining control of weapons prior to release

114
Q

What are NC2 materials

A

Nuclear command and control materials. Materials and devices used in the coding and authentication processing and communication medium necessary to transmit release, execution, or termination orders: and nuclear weapons targeting types of media content in nuclear weapons targeting data

115
Q

What is the definition of use control

A

The positive measures that allow the authorized use and prevent or delay unauthorized use of nuclear weapons

116
Q

The philosophy of community policing focuses on what three components

A

Partnership, prevention, and problem-solving

117
Q

How should formal problem-solving processes be implemented

A

By using specific task forces comprised Of stakeholders from agencies, community or business groups, and concerned individuals on and off the installation

118
Q

What is your role in crime prevention and resources protection program

A

Of an educational, technical, and supportive resource, an enabler or catalyst rather than A doer

119
Q

What is operation crime stop

A

A prompt an accurate means of reporting imminent crime situations or criminal acts

120
Q

What is the first information you should provide the desk sergeant during vehicle pursuit

A

Direction of travel

121
Q

What is one of the most important points to remember when using emergency equipment

A

It does not justify unsafe driving

122
Q

After deciding to stop a vehicle what is the last piece of information you should provide BDOC

A

Request back up if you feel necessary

123
Q

What is the second step he should take when approaching a vehicle during a traffic stop

A

Approach from left side of vehicle unless the situation dictates approach from right it’s acceptable due to officer safety

124
Q

What does a complete accident report include

A

Field sketch, scale diagram, and accident narrative

125
Q

What is the first and most important step in directing traffic

A

Selecting a site

126
Q

What are the standard whistle signals

A

Long blast – stop
Two short blasts – go
Several short blasts – attention

127
Q

What is the most significant factor about the Doppler principle

A

The frequency change happens only when there is relative motion between objects

128
Q

What are the three clues when administering the horizontal gaze nystagmus test

A

Lack of smooth pursuit, distinct sustained nystagmus at maximum deviation, and set of nystagmus prior to 45° angle

129
Q

What is the first step when conducting the horizontal gaze nystagmus test

A

If suspects wearing eyeglasses, have them remove it

130
Q

What is the six step in the heel to toe verbal instructions

A

When I tell you to start, take nine Heel to toe steps, turn, and take heel to toe steps back

131
Q

What are the two stages of the one leg stand SFST

A

Instruction and balance/counting stages

132
Q

What must you advise a suspect of prior to using any alcohol or chemical detection equipment

A

The implied consent policy

133
Q

What does the term close base mean

A

Only authorized personnel are allowed to enter

134
Q

How many copies of the AF form 75 are you required to prepare

A

2

135
Q

What must you ensure the visitor reads and signs on the reverse side of the AF form 75

A

The warning and the visitor advisory

136
Q

How many copies of the AF FM1109 are prepared

A

1

137
Q

How many days is the completed visitor registration logs maintained

A

90 calendar days from the last entry made

138
Q

Into how many sections is the AF form 1168 divided

A

6

139
Q

For what is the Air Force form 1176 used

A

To obtain authorization for search and seizure

140
Q

What made the responsible commander allow if a situation warrants immediate searching

A

May give verbal authority only after a probable cause briefing has been done

141
Q

Where and how do you complete the probable cause statement

A

On the reverse side of Air Force form 1176 or bond sheet of paper. Write/type statement outlining reason security forces member believe potential evidence is at a particular place

142
Q

Who completes the Air Force form 1315

A

Security forces members who completed traffic management and collision investigation course and are conducting a major traffic investigation

143
Q

What information do you include in the “occupant, not driver/operator, section”. Of the Air Force form 1315

A

Name and address of occupants in each vehicle. Not the driver

144
Q

What can be used to document the consent for search and seizure and must be included if an Air Force form 1364 is not available

A

Document consent on plain piece of paper, and have individual sign. Include date, time, person or people, and places to be searched

145
Q

What two congressional acts affected the amount of data required to be collected for crime reporting

A

The victims rights and restitution act of 1990. The Brady hand gun violence prevention act

146
Q

How many pages make up the Air Force form 3545 if it is generated by SFMIS

A

6 or more

147
Q

What information is included in section 2 of Air Force form 3545

A

Details as the UCMJ articles violated and whether the incident was a result of some form of bias

148
Q

What information is included in section 7 of Air Force form 3545

A

Describes who receives the report and any witnesses notified using DD form 2701

149
Q

What is Air Force form 3907 used for

A

To record routine contact between security forces members and members of the public

150
Q

How many copies of the Air Force form 3907 are prepared

A

1

151
Q

Who are DD form 1408s issued to

A

Those who commit either a moving or not moving traffic offense. Military

152
Q

Which copy of the DD form two 1408 is used by security forces members to record pertinent information

A

Second yellow copy

153
Q

To whom would you issue a DD form 1805

A

Issue to civilians who commit a moving or not moving traffic offense

154
Q

Which copy of the DD form 1805 is issued to the violator

A

The third copy manila card stock

155
Q

Who completes the DD form 1920

A

The apprehending security forces member

156
Q

How many copies of the DD form 2708 are prepared

A

2

157
Q

Which copy of the DD form 2708 is maintained in the case file

A

The original form

158
Q

What is the primary vehicle for identifying observations and potential lesson

A

After action report (AAR)

159
Q

The after action report is submitted within how many days from the event it refers

A

30

160
Q

Add a minimum, during deployed operations, how many after action reports are submitted, and what are their timelines

A

Two. 45 days into the deployment and 15 days prior to the end of the deployment

161
Q

What incidents require after action reports

A

Terrorist acts, shooting incidents, security incidents, military corrections incidents, CATM incidents, and miscellaneous incidence of educational value

162
Q

What does writing I n the active voice force you to do

A

To write percise information, lessens the report length, and answers questions

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