Volume 1 - CDCs Flashcards

1
Q

In 1943, as a result of the reorganization Of the war department, what were the Army Air Force military police companies renamed?

A

Army Air Force base security battalions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When did the designation “Air Police” come into effect?

A

January 2nd, 1948

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why was based offenses training discontinued in 1956

A

The program was not making significant headway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When was our current shield adopted

A

1966

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primarily why do you security force members were distinctive uniforms

A

So personnel can readily identify security force members in a crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In the initial stages of the Korean War, why did American and south Korean forces fall back

A

We were ill prepared and face communist onslaught

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Based on the experience of Korea the Air Force was led to make what base defense decision

A

Develop extensive base defense by concentrating on training AP who then train other members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the 1960s why was name air provost marshal dropped in favor of Director of security and law enforcement

A

Because the reflected the actual responsibilities involved in the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain operation safe side

A

Train security police in light infantry and special weapons to bolster protection ofair bases. 1041st security police squadron was trained for deployment in south east Asia to gain experience. The unit deployed to Phu cat airbase republic of Vietnam January 1967

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What career field milestone occurred in November 1971

A

12 female airmen entered the law-enforcement security police at Lackland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the purpose of the shift commander program, and in what year was it introduced

A

To provide continuous support by a security police commissioned officer to security polices on duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What event found security police units involved in war on a large scale on Florence oil for the first time since Vietnam conflict

A

Operation Desert Storm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After the terrorist attacks on September 11, 2001, what heightened security levels placed heavy demand and security force personnel

A

Increased installation patrols, identification checks, and vehicle checks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what way did air mobility command adopt the “first in” security force concept

A

With its Phoenix Raven program. Raven team is deployed as air crewmembers on AMC missions to help deter, detect, and counter threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After Kobara towers what action did the Air Force direct to ensure force protection changes were instituted

A

October 31, 1997 security specialist, law-enforcement specialist, and combat arms training and Maintenance career fields merged into one Career :security forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What unit conducted the career fields first combat parachute assault

A

786SFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the integrated defense applications of active and passive defense measures employed

A

Across the legally defined ground dimension of the operational environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In what year was the defensor fortis emblem and motto adopted

A

1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do the crossed runways on the security force flash represent

A

All bases and AF operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are DFC responsibilities

A

Total execution of the mission, training, administration, personal management, and sustainment of ID forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the duties of S1

A

Maintenance of unit strength and personal reports and records, development and maintenance of morale, decorations and awards, health services, discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What sections compromise the S2 branch

A

Anti-terrorism, force protection, and investigation section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What functions fall under the S5 plans and programs branch

A

Past and identification, reports and analysis, plans, installation security and physical security, resource protection, please services, corrections, crime prevention, and SFMIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What agency publishes the SF CFETP

A

The Air Force security forces center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What skill level must a security forces member possess prior to entering the MWD handler apprentice course
Journey man skill level five
26
Personnel and 3P051A who are awarded the 7 skill level and attained the rank of TSgt are awarded what SEI
The special apprenticed identifier 311 and their control AFSC is 3P071
27
What general order guide line would you violate if you consumed alcohol within eight hours prior to duty
Attention to duty
28
How long does it take to become acclimated to the heat and humidity in the AO
3 to 5 days
29
What is the safety distance and SF member must maintain a working around MWDs
10ft
30
What organization determines protective standards for dealing with blood-borne pathoge
OSHA Dept of Labor
31
What are the consequences of long-term sympathetic system activation
High blood pressure, chronic fatigue,Chronic digestive problems, sleep disorders, immune deficiency, psychological injuries/illnesses, sexual dysfunction
32
When faced with a stressful situation what are the four initial reactions
Thoughts, behavior, physical reactions, and emotions
33
Where was the Military Police aviation training camp established in 1942
Camp Ripley, MN
34
Air Police Security battalions were designed to protect against :
Riots, air raids, parachute attacks
35
On September 1, 1950 what was established at Tyndall Air Force Base Florida
Air police school
36
In what year did the Air Force approve the first trial issue of security police shield
1957
37
In what year was the name of the Career field change from air police to security police
1966
38
The success of what special unit in Vietnam led to the development of ground combat skills training for security police
The 1041st SPS (Test)
39
In 1971, SecurityPolice was split into two separate functions; what were these functions
Law Enforcement and security
40
Which Operation provided the US military it’s first significant experience in urban operations since Vietnam
Operation JUST CAUSE
41
The military operation launched against the taliban in December 2001 was called
Operation ENDURING FREEDOM
42
During the global war on terrorism assisting sister services brought about a new nontraditional security forces task of convoy
Escort duty
43
What security forces unit conducted the career fields first combat parachute assault
786th SFS
44
Which S branch maintains SFMIS
S-5
45
What course must a trainee attend for awarding of the 7-skill level
Craftsman
46
Dealing with offenders in a dignified matter adheres to which conduct guideline
Fulfilling the mission
47
You have failed to follow what channel kind a guy line if you issued a traffic ticket based on the violators race
Personal attitudes
48
Which base agency is responsible for routinely testing firing range for amounts of lead
BioEnvironmental engineering section
49
Specific procedures he must follow on the job to reduce your risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogen is
Employee work practices
50
What is the meaning of military jurisdiction
The authority, capacity, power, and right of the military to police their own
51
What are the three sources of military jurisdiction
US Constitution, federal statutes, international laws
52
Went overseas where does the commanders right to exercise authority originate
From bilateral and multilateral agreements between US and host nation countries
53
When declared what does martial law provide
We’re leave and rehabilitation of people, resumption of industrial production, reestablishment of Shattered economy, and protection of life and property
54
What is Federal tort law
A body of rights, obligations applied by courts and civil proceedings to provide relief or persons who suffered from wrongful acts of others
55
What does the fifth amendment to the constitution specify
No person shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself
56
What is custodial situation
Where although not detained or apprehended the suspect freedom of movement is restrained
57
Who provide specific guidance on using military working dogs to conduct searches on bases
The base SJA
58
What is the alternating approach to interviewing
Involves a combination of direct and indirect approaches alternating. Does not allow interviewee to be calm
59
What example of international law was reach at the Hague and Geneva convention
Laws of armed conflict (LOAC)
60
If a person subject melter love commits an offense overseas that person
Can be tried overseas or stateside
61
When in occupying power exercises authority over an occupied territory it is known as a
Military government
62
Which US service has primary responsibility of operations in a ministration during military government
Army
63
What are the two types of martial law
Qualified an absolute
64
Which type of martial law exist when military authority totally replaces civil authority
Absolute
65
Which uniform code of military justice article gives you the authority to issue lawful orders while executing your duties as an SF member
Article 92 (2)
66
Who may request a civil proceeding under the federal tort law
Private citizens
67
I’m determining whether an individual is a suspect, you should not base this decision on
Belief or opinion
68
The fifth amendment of the Constitution protects against
Self incrimination
69
Military working dog teams used in law enforcement activities provide an effective
Psychological deterrent
70
When is the MWD detection ability more effective
During darkness or limited visibility
71
When conducting building checks the military working dog is normally
On leash
72
May have been involved in committing an offense
Suspects
73
Reported the offense
Complaintants
74
Interviewed to develop facts and may be emotionally upset
Victims
75
Has pertinent information to the case
Witnesses
76
What are the most common types of interviews security forces will accomplish on day to day basis
Canvas and field interviews
77
What is SMARTNet
Security management and automation resource tracking network. New approach to managing web based computer applications for our career field
78
What is the purpose behind SmartNet
To consolidate programs to the greatest extent possible, to maximize efficiency, and reduce resource allocation
79
What does the acronym E – TTPG stand for, and how is it used
Electronic tactics, techniques and procedures guide designed to train security fourth person now. Lesson plans, study guides, and videos
80
What is the primary reason the SFMIS was developed
To meet the congressionally mandated defense incident based reporting system requirements and improve day-to-day operations of security forces
81
Who must ensure trained personnel use SFMIS to meet installation needs
Installation DFC
82
What is the NCIC
National crime information Center. Electronic clearinghouse of crime data providing to virtually every criminal justice agency nationwide
83
What are some suggested locations for the NCIC terminals to support DNIDS
VCC, BDOC, and commercial vehicle inspection station
84
Who is the AF executive agency for NCIC matters
Headquarters/AFOSI
85
What is the methodology of security forces training program
Evaluate train evaluate. Evaluate the week points, train those areas, evaluate
86
Who plays a key role in your success and the success of the mission
Your supervisor
87
What type of training build on individual team skills and what are some examples
Collective skills training. Fire team, flight, emergency services team, response force element team, or unit code teams
88
What type of DPE evaluation measures your ability to perform duties for a specific duty position
Performance evaluation
89
What are the minimum passing score you must receive on all verbal evaluations
69% for non-critical duty positions. | 79% for critical duty positions
90
What type of standard does Stan/Eval use to grade performance evaluations
Go/no go
91
What to forms are used when issuing Weapons
AF Form 629-frequent | AF Form 1297- temporary
92
What do BDOC Controllers use to keep priority of responses in mind
A local resource priority list
93
What is the period for conducting inventories in the armory
Continuously manned - each shift change | Not continuously manner- each time facility is open but not less than once a week
94
Where are base stations usually located
Located in BDOC and alternate BDOC
95
What occurs when the alarm monitor fails a no notice evaluation
Immediate decertification
96
What are the two types of duress
Duress signal/words, and duress alarms
97
Who can determine the need for additional duress alarms on your installation
Installation defense council
98
At a minimum, what information should be on the building check sheet
A place to annotate the time of check, initials of patrol person conducting the check, and results of security check
99
What form do you complete on all unsecured buildings having items missing, signs of forced entry, or designated protection of assets
AF form 3545A
100
Who review staffing requirements for level one confinement facility at least annually
The DFC
101
What is the minimum rank/skill level requirement for confinement personnel
E4 or above and a five skill level
102
What type of treatment programs are available for a confinees at level two confinement facility
Offense related treatment. Corrections/offense related counseling, sex offender treatment program etc.
103
What types of confinees are housed in level III confinement facilities
Confinees with sentences exceeding level two facilities capabilities upto confinement for life and death sentences
104
What must confinement and NCOs complete within six months of duty assignment
Complete the ATF corrections advanced distributed learning course, a service corrections course, complete a civilian equivalent course, American correctional association correctional officer course
105
When an individual’s placed in pre-trial confinement what forms do confinement personnel complete
AF form 444 – advisement of rights upon pre-trial confinement. DD form 2707 – confinement order
106
What are the four custody classifications
Maximum, medium, minimum, trustee – inmates demonstrate years of good conduct
107
What form will be completed by a medical officer certifying a person is fit for confinement
DD form 2707 – confinement order
108
When and why are bay and cell searches conducted
When:Irregular intervals In Cell. Search all visiting areas before and after and visitation Why:To find contraband
109
When are frisk searches conducted
Anytime the confinee leaves or returns to the facility, before and after visitation as determined by the confinement officer