Volume 2 Flashcards
What tool must you use in order to create a new ticket?
a. Remedy.
b. Remedy new.
c. Remedy user.
d. Remedy ticket.
c. Remedy user.
Depending on the problem type, what are the two types of forms used in Remedy?
a. Software or hardware.
b. Software and equipment.
c. Application or hardware.
d. Application and equipment.
a. Software or hardware.
In Remedy, to whom are the tickets assigned to fix problems?
a. A resolution group only.
b. A specific technician only.
c. Remedy automatically assigns tickets.
d. A resolution group or specific technician.
d. A resolution group or specific technician.
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) interface with the Enterprise System-Supply (ES-S) replaces what system throughout the maintenance complex?
a. Reliability and Maintainability System (REMIS).
b. Telephone Management System.
c. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
d. Remedy.
c. Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
Which is not a function of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?
a. Automate equipment history, scheduling, and other processes.
b. Function as a common interactive interface for other systems.
c. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
d. Provide status and inventory data.
c. Roll base-level logistics data up to the Air Force level.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is an online database program that is a part of the
a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
b. Telecommunications Management System (TMS).
c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
d. Automated Information System (AIS).
a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).
Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) is used to track and manage what Air Force assets?
a. Weapons.
b. Support.
c. Telephone.
d. Communications.
d. Communications.
The Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) system includes what type of database and is located where?
a. Access database at Randolph Air Force Base (AFB).
b. Access database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
c. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
d. Oracle database at Randolph AFB.
c. Oracle database at Wright-Patterson AFB.
Which method is not a means for secure telecommunications?
a. Defense Courier Service.
b. Protected distribution system.
c. Communications security equipment.
d. Intrusion Detection Optical Communications System.
a. Defense Courier Service.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do RED lines carry?
a. Encrypted classified.
b. Encrypted unclassified.
c. Unencrypted classified.
d. Unencrypted unclassified.
c. Unencrypted classified.
In the RED/BLACK concept, what type of traffic do BLACK lines carry?
a. Encrypted classified or unclassified.
b. Encrypted classified only.
c. Unencrypted classified.
d. Unclassified only.
a. Encrypted classified or unclassified.
Which two parts does the RED/BLACK concept have?
a. Physical separation and electromagnetic separation.
b. Electromagnetic separation and electrical separation.
c. Physical separation and electrical separation.
d. Physical separation and emission separation.
c. Physical separation and electrical separation.
What is the purpose of the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program?
a. Eliminate all instances of radiation of electrical impulses.
b. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
c. Improve the signal of radiation of electrical impulses.
d. Increase the range of radiation of electrical impulses.
b. Reduce the chances of radiation of electrical impulses.
What is the Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST) program in the Air Force called?
a. Communications security.
b. Transmission security.
c. Emission security.
d. Computer security.
c. Emission security.
What area is described as a complete building or facility area under direct physical control where unauthorized persons are denied unrestricted access and are either escorted by authorized persons or are under continuous physical or electronic surveillance?
a. Controlled access area (CAA).
b. Restricted access area (RAA).
c. Limited control area (LCA).
d. Uncontrolled access area (UAA).
a. Controlled access area (CAA).
Protected distribution systems (PDS) require which scheduled inspections?
a. Communications security.
b. Line route or visual.
c. Separation.
d. Electrical.
b. Line route or visual.
Protected distribution systems (PDS) events such as alarms, technical inspections, and other pertinent information are recorded in which log?
a. Emission security (EMSEC).
b. Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard (TEMPEST).
c. Inspection.
d. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
d. Protected Distribution Systems (PDS).
A line route inspection of a protected distribution system (PDS) consists of a close visual inspection that must include the
a. total surface.
b. visible area.
c. concealed area.
d. observable area.
a. total surface.
What are the two different types of current used for power?
a. 100 v (volts) and 210 v.
b. 105 v and 215 v.
c. 110 v and 220 v.
d. 115 v and 225 v.
c. 110 v and 220 v.
What are the two main options for storing electricity in an uninterruptible power supply (UPS)?
a. Storage batteries or a power wheel.
b. Storage batteries or a flywheel.
c. Batteries or a power wheel.
d. Batteries or a flywheel.
d. Batteries or a flywheel.
Which uninterruptible power supply (UPS) system is generally used for larger loads and currents?
a. Storage batteries.
b. Power wheel.
c. Flywheel.
d. Batteries.
c. Flywheel.
Which is not a consideration when selecting storage batteries for the central office?
a. The office power requirements.
b. The amount of floor space available.
c. Future subscriber growth and reserve time required.
d. The number of alternating current converters in the office.
d. The number of alternating current converters in the office.
In electrical power equipment, the generator can be two types, reciprocating or
a. turbine batteries.
b. a turbine engine.
c. an engine.
d. batteries.
b. a turbine engine.
Which fuel is not used for reciprocating generators?
a. Diesel.
b. Gasoline.
c. Fossil fuel.
d. Liquid petroleum.
c. Fossil fuel.
Who becomes responsible for life-cycle maintenance once the installation of cyberspace equipment is complete?
a. Production work center or communication squadron.
b. Production work center or contractor.
c. Communications squadron.
d. Production work center.
b. Production work center or contractor.
The approval or disapproval of all approved changes in the configuration is known as
a. configuration.
b. configuration item.
c. configuration control.
d. configuration identification.
c. configuration control.
Which one of these requires the use of the latest technical order (TO) information listed?
a. Configuration.
b. Configuration item.
c. Configuration control.
d. Configuration identification.
b. Configuration item.
Which of these statements pertains to configuration management?
a. Identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
b. Record and report change processing and implementation status.
c. Control changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a CI.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
What are the two standards for termination of Category 5 (CAT 5) and Category 6 (CAT 6)?
a. T–586 and T–586A.
b. T–586A and T–586B.
c. T–568 and T–568A.
d. T–568A and T–568B.
d. T–568A and T–568B.
Permanent markings can be completed by how many different methods?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
b. 2.
What publication governs the format of Alias names for e-mail accounts?
a. Air Force Systems Security Instruction (AFSSI) 8502, Organizational Computer Security.
b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.
c. AFI 33–201, Communications Security (COMSEC).
d. AFSSI 7700, Emission Security.
b. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 17–130, Cybersecurity Program Management.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that can receive as or send as for the account?
a. Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
b. Mailbox rights.
c. Mailbox security.
d. Custom attributes.
c. Mailbox security.
What exchange tab is used to add, delete, or modify user accounts that have special permissions to the account?
a. Intercluster Lookup Service (ILS) settings.
b. Mailbox rights.
c. Mailbox security.
d. Custom attributes.
b. Mailbox rights.
Which is not a reason why extreme caution should be used when deleting an e-mail account?
a. The user’s e-mail will be deleted from the Exchange server.
b. Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.
c. The wrong account could be deleted.
d. Restoring deleted e-mail is difficult.
b. Restoring deleted e-mail requires proper justification.
What automatically happens to an e-mail account when the user’s domain account is deleted?
a. Changed.
b. Deleted.
c. Updated.
d. Reviewed.
b. Deleted.
How many objects can be manipulated at a time in directory and resource administrator (DRA)?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
a. 1.
When using a Secure Terminal Equipment (STE), what is encrypted?
a. The analog signal.
b. The digital signal.
c. The multiplexed signal.
d. The sender’s private key.
b. The digital signal.
What components are used in both encryption and decryption?
a. Algorithm and key.
b. Certificate and key.
c. Telephone and receiver.
d. Algorithm and certificate.
a. Algorithm and key.
What are the two basic types of computer cryptology?
a. Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
b. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-secret key system.
c. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.
d. Symmetric-public key system and asymmetric-public key system.
c. Symmetric-secret key system and asymmetric-public key system.
What is the advantage of symmetric cryptology?
a. Speed.
b. Storage.
c. Security.
d. Standards.
a. Speed.
Which cryptology system has a disadvantage of using more processing power and time?
a. Symmetric.
b. Asymmetric.
c. Diametric.
d. None of the above, they are all the same.
b. Asymmetric.
In secure socket layer (SSL), before an encrypted transaction takes place, what does the Web server give to the browser?
a. Its public key.
b. Its private key.
c. Its public certificate.
d. Its private certificate.
a. Its public key.
What are the two major types of encryption algorithms in use today that operate by encrypting or decrypting one chunk of data at a time?
a. Stream algorithms and block ciphers.
b. Secure algorithms and block ciphers.
c. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.
d. Block algorithms and secure ciphers.
c. Block algorithms and stream ciphers.
How many bits for its key does data encryption standard (DES) use?
a. 64.
b. 128.
c. 192.
d. 256.
a. 64.
Triple data encryption standard (DES) is based on three compound operations of encryption/decryption and can incorporate the use of how many individual keys?
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
c. 3.
Which encryption is not a telecommunications encryption type?
a. Narrowband.
b. Network.
c. Bulk.
d. Open.
d. Open.
Which encryption handles data that can come from equipment such as computers?
a. Wideband.
b. Narrowband.
c. Network.
d. Bulk.
a. Wideband.
Which encryption handles multiplexed lines that come from combining multiple single data and voice lines into one?
a. Bulk.
b. Network.
c. Wideband.
d. Narrowband.
a. Bulk.
Which encryption handles software encryption?
a. Narrowband.
b. Wideband.
c. Network.
d. Bulk.
c. Network.
Communications security (COMSEC) is defined as the measures and controls taken to deny unauthorized persons information and to ensure
a. authenticity.
b. compliance.
c. integrity.
d. validity.
a. authenticity.
Which communications security (COMSEC) application provides us with guidance to deter, detect, and defeat hostile acts against US Air Force priority resources?
a. Cyptosecurity.
b. Physical security.
c. Emission security.
d. Transmission security.
b. Physical security.
Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a communications security (COMSEC) package?
a. Standard Form (SF) 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt.
b. SF 153, COMSEC Material Report
c. SF 701, Activity Security Checklist.
d. SF 702, Security Container Checklist.
b. SF 153, COMSEC Material Report
Which form is used as a register log to record visitors into restricted areas?
a. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.
b. AF Form 1119, Monthly Monetary Records.
c. AF Form 1019, Armament Recording Program Mission Data.
d. AF Form 1122, Personal Property and Personal Effects Inventory.
a. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log.
Which secure voice telephone can be used on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
a. Secure telephone unit (STU).
b. Cryptographic telephone (CT).
c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).
d. Pretty Good Privacy Phone (PGPfone).
c. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) consists of a
a. host terminal and removable security core.
b. security core and removable host terminal.
c. host terminal and removable secret core.
d. secret core and removable host terminal.
a. host terminal and removable security core.
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) cannot communicate securely with what device?
a. Secure telephone unit (STU)-III.
b. Satellite telephone.
c. Cellular telephone.
d. Land mobile radio.
d. Land mobile radio.
Which port on the office version Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) can be used to connect to a fax machine?
a. Universal Serial Bus (USB).
b. EIA 530.
c. RS–232.
d. Firewire.
c. RS–232.
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE) Integrated Subscriber Digital Network (ISDN) setting supports what speeds in kilobits per second (Kbps)?
a. 128.
b. 192.
c. 256.
d. 512.
a. 128.
Which set of electrical standards does the KIV–7 not support?
a. RS–422.
b. EIA–644.
c. EIA–530.
d. RS–232.
a. RS–422.
Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Classic and TACLANE–E100 are high-speed encryption devices that provide confidentiality, data integrity, and authentication security services for
a. serial networks.
b. tactical networks.
c. point-to-point connections.
d. Internet Protocol networks.
d. Internet Protocol networks.
What is the maximum throughput in megabits per second (Mbps) for the Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–E100?
a. 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.
b. 165 for full-duplex and 44.736 for half-duplex.
c. 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode and 100 for half-duplex.
d. 100 for full-duplex and 44.736 for asynchronous transfer mode.
a. 165 for full-duplex and 100 for half-duplex.
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro is a packet encryption device for Internet Protocol (IP)
a. version 4 and version 6.
b. version 4 and version 5.
c. version 5 only.
d. version 4 only.
a. version 4 and version 6.
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro may be equipped to handle all types of networks except
a. asynchronous transfer mode (ATM).
b. gigabit Ethernet.
c. fast Ethernet.
d. wireless.
d. wireless.
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can acquire an Internet Protocol (IP) address by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) on which side?
a. Static IP only.
b. Plaintext only.
c. Ciphertext only.
d. Ciphertext or plaintext.
d. Ciphertext or plaintext.
The Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE)–Micro can be used to overlay what type of networks on top of existing public and private network infrastructures?
a. Non-Secure Internet Protocol Router Networks.
b. Secret Internet Protocol Router Networks.
c. Other public or private networks.
d. Secure Virtual Networks.
d. Secure Virtual Networks.
What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs personal wireless communications system (PWCS) management?
a. 17–100.
b. 21–116.
c. 17–210.
d. 33–118.
c. 17–210.
Who coordinates the management of personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets for the installation commander?
a. Base communications and information systems officer (CSO).
b. Iridium Secure Module (ISM).
c. Base PWCS manager.
d. Unit PWCS manager.
a. Base communications and information systems officer (CSO).
Who appoints the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?
a. Unit commander.
b. Wing commander.
c. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
d. Communications and Information Systems officer.
a. Unit commander.
Which of these is a task completed by the unit personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager?
a. Briefs users on the proper use of PWCS equipment.
b. Implements unit-level customer education program.
c. Turns in excess equipment over to the base PWCS manager.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
Which of these is not part of the personal wireless communications system (PWCS) manager’s duties?
a. Maintaining the Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS) database.
b. Technical reviews.
c. Technical solutions.
d. Maintenance.
b. Technical reviews.
What is the only authorized Air Force inventory control software used to account for personal wireless communications system (PWCS) assets?
a. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
b. Tracking and Reporting System.
c. Integrated Maintenance Data System.
d. Core Automated Maintenance System.
a. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
What system serves as the focal point for suggested upgrades for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) assets?
a. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
b. Integrated Maintenance Data System.
c. Work Order Management System.
d. Remedy.
a. Asset Inventory Management System (AIMS).
What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI), Air Force Systems Security instructions (AFSSI), and Air Force manuals (AFMAN) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?
a. AFI 17–210; AFI 11–101; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–118.
b. AFI 17–210; AFI 33–118; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–219.
c. AFI 17–210; AFI 33–219; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 33–201.
d. AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
d. AFI 17–210; AFI 17–220; AFSSI 7702; AFMAN 17–1302–O.
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?
a. Pager.
b. Land mobile radio (LMR).
c. Family radio service (FRS).
d. Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR).
b. Land mobile radio (LMR).
Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?
a. Pager.
b. Land mobile radio (LMR).
c. Family radio service (FRS).
d. Personal digital assistant (PDA).
c. Family radio service (FRS).
How many channels do the intra-squad radios operate on?
a. 11.
b. 12.
c. 13.
d. 14.
d. 14.
What mode of operation do cell phones use?
a. Half-Duplex.
b. Simplex.
c. Duplex.
d. Hybrid.
c. Duplex.
How fast you sample the audio to get your digital signal is called
a. bit rate.
b. bite rate.
c. samp rate.
d. sample rate.
a. bit rate.
What needs to be higher to improve the audio quality?
a. Bite rate.
b. Bit rate.
c. Samp rate.
d. Sample rate.
b. Bit rate.
What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?
a. Time division multiple access (TDMA).
b. Personal communications services (PCS).
c. Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).
d. Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM).
a. Time division multiple access (TDMA).
Each cell in a service area has what tower and transceiver assembly that transmits to and receives from the cell phones in that area?
a. Eastern.
b. Western.
c. Central.
d. Northern.
c. Central.
Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?
a. Unit.
b. Installation spectrum manager (ISM).
c. Communications and Information Systems officer (CSO).
d. Base Personal Wireless Communications Systems (PWCS) manager.
a. Unit.
Cell sites are generally thought of as being a
a. square.
b. octagon.
c. hexagon.
d. pentagon.
c. hexagon.
What protocol does the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use to transmit video teleconferencing (VTC) data?
a. H.320.
b. H.323.
c. H.325.
d. H.330.
a. H.320.
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts incoming four wire transmissions into two wire transmissions?
a. Camera.
b. Computer.
c. Coder-decoder (CODEC).
d. Network termination (NT) 1.
d. Network termination (NT) 1.
What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?
a. Camera.
b. Coder-decoder (CODEC).
c. Network termination (NT) 1.
d. Central processing unit (CPU).
b. Coder-decoder (CODEC).
What are the voice messages encoded into when making a phone call using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
a. Addresses.
b. Codes.
c. Labels.
d. Packets.
d. Packets.
How many channels are used when a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another Internet Protocol (IP) host?
a. One, they share the same channel.
b. Two, one for each direction.
c. Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal.
d. Four, two to transmit and two to receive.
b. Two, one for each direction.
What component of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?
a. Gateway.
b. Gatekeeper.
c. Terminal adapter.
d. Multipoint control unit (MCU).
a. Gateway.
What percent packet loss should a network expect in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
a. Less than 1.
b. Greater than 1.
c. Less than .5.
d. Greater than .5.
a. Less than 1.
How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
a. Less than 50.
b. Less than 150.
c. Greater than 50.
d. Greater than 150.
b. Less than 150.
What is a system of error control for data transmission, where the sender adds redundant data to its messages, allowing the receiver to detect and correct errors without the need to ask the sender for additional data?
a. Quality of service (QoS).
b. Real time protocol (RTP).
c. Forward error correction (FEC).
d. Real time control protocol (RTCP).
c. Forward error correction (FEC).
What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?
a. Forward error correction (FEC).
b. Remote control protocol (RCP).
c. Quality of service (QoS).
d. Phase-locked loop (PLL).
d. Phase-locked loop (PLL).
In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of mobile satellite services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for
a. unclassified purposes outside the continental United States (CONUS).
b. unclassified purposes within the CONUS.
c. classified purposes outside the CONUS.
d. classified purposes within the CONUS.
b. unclassified purposes within the CONUS.
Which commercial satellite communication system offers true pole-to-pole global coverage?
a. European Telecommunications Satellite Organization.
b. International Telecommunications Satellite Organization.
c. International Mobile Satellite Organization.
d. Iridium.
d. Iridium.
Up to what level of classification does the Iridium Secure Module (ISM) provide secure voice communications?
a. Secret.
b. Top Secret.
c. Confidential.
d. For Official Use Only.
b. Top Secret.
Which does not fit the “Peaceful Purposes” clause of using the International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system?
a. Military use, involving armed conflict.
b. Armed forces use, relating to the protection of the wounded.
c. United Nations (UN) peacekeeping use, acting under the auspices of the UN Security Council.
d. Armed forces use, protecting itself against armed attack within the limitations of UN charter.
a. Military use, involving armed conflict.
What type of areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated?
a. Geographical.
b. Continental.
c. Regional.
d. Ocean.
d. Ocean.
Which Inmarsat terminals have a land mobile terminal, typically has a one-meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?
a. B.
b. M.
c. Aero I.
d. Mini-M.
a. B
What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?
a. Percentage of modulation.
b. Signal-to-noise.
c. Selectivity.
d. Distortion.
b. Signal-to-noise.
