Volume 1 Flashcards
Which functions do client systems technicians perform regarding personal wireless communication systems?
a. Plan, schedule, and implement installations and maintenances.
b. Develop system timelines.
c. Implement fix actions.
d. Manage databases.
a. Plan, schedule, and implement installations and maintenances.
What requirement must an Apprentice complete to be awarded Journeyman level?
a. All 7-skill level tasks.
b. Cyberspace Advancement Course.
c. Core tasks identified for client system craftsman.
d. Client System career development courses (CDC).
d. Client System career development courses (CDC).
What systems entail how we communicate and manage data?
a. Information.
b. Satellite.
c. Airfield.
d. Power.
a. Information.
What part do client systems technicians (CST) play in amassing, distributing, and controlling information?
a. Adapting.
b. Efficiency.
c. Production.
d. Procedures.
b. Efficiency.
A non-wireless way to load software or interface hardware to a tablet is with the
a. Ethernet port.
b. optical drive.
c. network interface card (NIC).
d. universal serial bus (USB) port.
d. universal serial bus (USB) port.
A personal computer (PC) is such a great tool because it
a. is a single purpose processor.
b. has a central processing unit.
c. is a multi-purpose processor.
d. has a hard drive.
c. is a multi-purpose processor.
The primary interface for the hard drive that is now the most commonly used connector for hard drives is the
a. motherboard.
b. small computer system interface.
c. integrated drive electronics controller.
d. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA).
d. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA).
Any hardware added to a computer that expands its capabilities is referred to as
a. a port.
b. a peripheral.
c. an interface.
d. an input/output (I/O) device.
b. a peripheral.
Transferring eight bits of data simultaneously through eight separate lines in a single cable is a function of what kind of port?
a. Serial.
b. Parallel.
c. Switching.
d. Universal serial bus.
b. Parallel.
What term refers to the process of launching an operating system (OS)?
a. Boot.
b. Random access memory (RAM).
c. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS).
d. Complimentary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS).
a. Boot.
What program sets up the divisions of memory that holds an operating system (OS), user information, and applications?
a. The memory.
b. The bootstrap loader.
c. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS).
d. Complimentary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS).
b. The bootstrap loader.
What describes how computers find a specific byte it is looking for in memory?
a. Processing.
b. Programming.
c. Memory addressing.
d. Memory segmenting.
c. Memory addressing.
How many bits long are the addresses that computer instructions work with?
a. 8.
b. 16.
c. 24.
d. 32.
b. 16.
What type of memory is non-volatile, considered permanent, and is also called firmware in reference to the data and instructions stored?
a. Cache.
b. Read-only memory (ROM).
c. Random access memory (RAM).
d. Complimentary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS).
b. Read-only memory (ROM).
This type of memory is blank and instructions can be placed on it permanently.
a. Read-only memory (ROM).
b. Random access memory (RAM).
c. Programmable read-only memory (PROM).
d. Complimentary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS).
c. Programmable read-only memory (PROM).
This type of random access memory (RAM) transfers sixteen times as much data per each clock cycle.
a. Synchronous dynamic random access memory (SDRAM).
b. Double data rate synchronous dynamic random access memory (DDR SDRAM).
c. DDR3 SDRAM.
d. DDR4 SDRAM.
d. DDR4 SDRAM.
Which type of memory is used to duplicate frequently accessed information stored elsewhere or computed earlier because the original data is time consuming to retrieve or compute?
a. Random access memory (RAM).
b. Read-only memory (ROM).
c. Buffer.
d. Cache.
d. Cache.
Which type of memory is located on just about every kind of circuit board there is in today’s computer technology?
a. Random access memory (RAM).
b. Read-only memory (ROM).
c. Buffer.
d. Cache.
c. Buffer.
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as
a. polling.
b. signaling.
c. processing.
d. multitasking.
a. polling.
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event indicating the need for a change in execution?
a. Cache.
b. Buffer.
c. Interface.
d. Interrupt.
d. Interrupt.
Which term describes that data is whole or complete?
a. Driver.
b. Parity bit.
c. Data integrity.
d. Error correction.
c. Data integrity.
Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
a. Interrupt.
b. Parity bit.
c. Data integrity.
d. Asynchronous.
b. Parity bit.
What operating system (OS) task ensures each process and application receives time to function and is used for real work as often as possible?
a. Application program interface.
b. Processor management.
c. Memory management.
d. Device management.
b. Processor management.
Which is not a type of computer user interface?
a. Application driven.
b. Command driven.
c. Graphical user.
d. Menu driven.
a. Application driven.
Which computer system requirements must be satisfied for software to be usable at all?
a. Minimum.
b. Processor.
c. Installation.
d. Recommended.
a. Minimum.
What is the most common set of system requirements defined by an operating system (OS) or software application?
a. Recommended.
b. Installation.
c. Hardware.
d. Power.
c. Hardware.
Which hardware requirement is defined as the model and the clock speed of central processing units (CPU)?
a. Memory.
b. Peripherals.
c. Architecture.
d. Processing power.
d. Processing power.
The specifications that should be met, if not exceeded, to ensure a computer is compatible as well as powerful enough to run an operating system (OS) without constant problems is for the computer to have the minimum
a. software.
b. hardware.
c. processors.
d. applications.
b. hardware.
Which is not considered a utility application?
a. Adobe Acrobat reader.
b. An antivirus program.
c. A spreadsheet.
d. WinZip.
c. A spreadsheet.
A hard disk is divided into how many byte sectors?
a. 124.
b. 248.
c. 512.
d. 1024.
c. 512.
The first sector at the beginning of a hard drive is called the master
a. volume.
b. cylinder.
c. partition.
d. boot record.
d. boot record.
On a hard drive, how many logical drives can a primary partition have?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three
d. Four.
a. One.
A formatted disk partition that is used for a particular file system is called
a. dynamic storage.
b. basic storage.
c. a volume.
d. a sector.
c. a volume.
Which file system is the best choice for data storage if the computer is a 32-bit Windows System?
a. New Technology File System (NTFS).
b. File Allocation Table System (FATS).
c. Neither FATS nor NTFS.
d. Either FATS or NTFS.
a. New Technology File System (NTFS).
Which logical structure component is a container used to organize objects into logical administrative groups?
a. Trees.
b. Forests.
c. Objects.
d. Domains.
d. Domains.
What type of remote network provides a private tunnel through public clouds (the Internet)?
a. Virtual private network (VPN).
b. Peer-to-peer (P2P).
c. Broadband.
d. Three tier.
a. Virtual private network (VPN).
In a cable Internet, as the distance increases, the speed of the overall transfer rate of data
a. halves.
b. doubles.
c. decreases.
d. stays the same.
d. stays the same.
What form of remote network access is often the only choice for rural or remote areas?
a. Dial-up.
b. Wireless.
c. Broadband.
d. Virtual private network (VPN).
a. Dial-up.
What does Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) use to carry network signals to the network access point?
a. Cable lines.
b. Radio waves.
c. Dedicated lines.
d. Telephone lines.
b. Radio waves.
What is installed on a computer to act as the interface between the computer and network?
a. Network interface card (NIC).
b. Coaxial cable.
c. Transceiver.
d. Ethernet.
a. Network interface card (NIC).
What is the unique identification number a network interface card (NIC) provides to a personal computer (PC)?
a. Media access control address.
b. Organization unique identifier address.
c. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers address.
d. Serial attached small computer system interface (SAS) address.
a. Media access control address.
How many connector interfaces does a network interface card (NIC) provide for network cables?
a. One.
b. Two.
c. Three.
d. Four.
d. Four.
What software activates the actual transmission and receipt of data over the network?
a. Network interface card (NIC) connector interfaces.
b. Network interface drivers.
c. Media access control (MAC).
d. Open data interfaces.
b. Network interface drivers.
Which of these is not defined by network protocols?
a. Packet sizes.
b. Signal timing.
c. Connector interfaces.
d. Whether acknowledgment is needed.
c. Connector interfaces.
Which information is not required when configuring Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)?
a. Domain name system server address.
b. Media access control (MAC) address.
c. Internet Protocol (IP) address.
d. Administrator access.
b. Media access control (MAC) address.
What stores print jobs in a print queue until a printer becomes available?
a. Print pool.
b. Print farm.
c. Print server.
d. Distributive print.
c. Print server.
Which is not a transmission medium for a wireless local area network?
a. Microwaves.
b. Fiber optics.
c. Radio.
d. Light.
b. Fiber optics.
What does the Air Force Network Integration Center (AFNIC) recommend for most military wireless network applications?
a. Fiber optics.
b. Microwave.
c. Satellite.
d. Light.
c. Satellite.
How does a router send information to the Internet on a wireless network?
a. An Ethernet connection.
b. Radio waves.
c. An antenna.
d. Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity).
a. An Ethernet connection.
What device receives information from the Internet, translates it into a radio signal, and sends it to the computer’s wireless adapter?
a. Network interface card (NIC).
b. Ethernet.
c. Router.
d. Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity).
c. Router.
Which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standard for wireless fidelity (Wi-Fi) has a good range, penetration, and the highest data rate?
a. 802.11n.
b. 802.11b.
c. 802.11g.
d. 802.11ac.
d. 802.11ac.
What problem can reduce the throughput and range of a wireless access point?
a. Radio frequency interference.
b. Interface frequencies.
c. Frequency hopping.
d. Bandwidth.
a. Radio frequency interference.
What drives faster processing speeds and increases the power of many computers and communication devices?
a. Microtechnology.
b. Nanotechnology.
c. Gigatechnology.
d. Biotechnology.
b. Nanotechnology.
How much power does a not and drive (NAND) require?
a. <4 watt.
b. <3 watts.
c. <2 watts.
d. <1 watts.
c. <2 watts.
What technology involves the capture and storage of a distinctive, measurable characteristic, feature, or trait of an individual for later recognition by automated means?
a. Microtechnology.
b. Nanotechnology.
c. Biometrics.
d. Protocols.
c. Biometrics.
What protocol is used to allow standard phone calls over the same data lines as electronic mail (e-mail) and Web traffic?
a. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
b. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).
c. Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4).
d. Virtual Internet Protocol (VIP).
b. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).
Which protocol provides an almost unlimited number of Internet Protocol addresses?
a. Transmission control protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
b. Virtual Internet Protocol (VIP).
c. Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).
d. Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4).
c. Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6).
How many principles govern all actions associated with risk management?
a. Six.
b. Three.
c. Five.
d. Four.
d. Four.
What is the first step towards eliminating mishaps?
a. Identify hazardous operational environments.
b. Recognize and assess hazardous situations.
c. Notify supervisor of hazardous situations.
d. Identify solutions to hazards.
b. Recognize and assess hazardous situations.
Which management process prevents software fixes or updates from introducing new problems into computer systems?
a. Definition.
b. Software.
c. Security.
d. Patch.
d. Patch.
Which patch will prevent exploitation and remove or mitigate a threat’s capability to exploit a specific vulnerability in an asset, and is the primary method of fixing vulnerabilities in software?
a. Security.
b. Software.
c. Antivirus.
d. Prevention.
a. Security.
What software category includes programs that do real work for users?
a. Piracy.
b. System.
c. License.
d. Application.
d. Application.
With a software license agreement, who has the full rights to the software and its further distribution and reproduction?
a. Buyer.
b. Publisher.
c. United States Air Force (USAF).
d. United States government.
b. Publisher.
What is an essential tool for any client systems technician (CST) to find software approved for use on an Air Force (AF) network?
a. Certification.
b. Enterprise license.
c. Enterprise Software Agreement (ESA).
d. Evaluated/Approved Product List (E/APL).
d. Evaluated/Approved Product List (E/APL).
What type of software piracy is it when a product offered was previously used to obtain an upgrade to a newer version?
a. Counterfeiting.
b. Internet piracy.
c. Corporate or end-use piracy.
d. Subscription licensing piracy.
b. Internet piracy.
What is one of the best habits a client systems technician (CST) can form in order to save time, effort and prevent mistakes?
a. Working fast.
b. Minimizing tools.
c. Getting organized.
d. Remembering everything.
c. Getting organized.
Which logical troubleshooting step would include classifying the problem as hardware or software related?
a. Isolate the problem.
b. Define the problem.
c. Resolve the problem.
d. Confirm the resolution.
a. Isolate the problem.
Which settings are established through the startup software in the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)?
a. Driver.
b. Client.
c. Software.
d. Configuration.
d. Configuration.
Which item is not a common problem inherent to computers?
a. Setup.
b. Driver.
c. System.
d. Configuration.
c. System.
Which of these is not an occurrence during a system cold boot?
a. The power supply fan turns on.
b. An audible beep should be heard.
c. The hard disk test is visible on the monitor.
d. The hard disk drive access light should come on.
c. The hard disk test is visible on the monitor.
What process in troubleshooting will help organize thoughts, prevent repeated steps from happening, and provide the basis for preparing service records?
a. Analysis.
b. Resolution.
c. Confirmation.
d. Documentation.
d. Documentation.
The most common hardware diagnostic tool is the
a. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) card.
b. power-on self-test (POST).
c. loopback plug.
d. patch panel.
c. loopback plug.
What hardware quick test should only be used to localize problems?
a. Smell.
b. Touch.
c. Visual.
d. Connections.
b. Touch.
What provides the logical network map?
a. System Management Automated Report Tracking System (SMARTS).
b. Network analysis detection tracking protocol.
c. Infrastructure management network system.
d. Protocols and mission critical applications.
a. System Management Automated Report Tracking System (SMARTS).
Which network troubleshooting step includes automatically polling network devices?
a. Gathering the facts.
b. Creating a plan of action.
c. Defining the main problem.
d. Considering all possible causes.
a. Gathering the facts.
Which item is not a good practice in helping with future troubleshooting?
a. Remembering every step taken.
b. Knowing your network.
c. Documentation.
d. Gathering facts.
a. Remembering every step taken.
Which network impairment occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame?
a. Frame check sequence (FCS) error.
b. Alignment error.
c. High utilization.
d. Collisions.
b. Alignment error.
What percentage of average network use indicates a busy network?
a. >30.
b. >40.
c. >50.
d. >60.
a. >30.
What is the maximum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?
a. 1,518 bits.
b. 1,518 bytes.
c. 65,535 bits.
d. 65,535 bytes.
d. 65,535 bytes.
What is the minimum packet size for Internet Protocol (IP)?
a. 28 bits.
b. 28 bytes.
c. 64 bits.
d. 64 bytes.
b. 28 bytes.
What function enables the higher layer protocol data units (PDU) to fit into the lower layer PDU for transmission across the network?
a. Frame relays.
b. Fragmentation.
c. Round trip delay.
d. Asynchronous transfer mode.
b. Fragmentation.
Which is not a way in which round trip delay can be determined?
a. Maximum.
b. Minimum.
c. Average.
d. Total.
a. Maximum.
What network troubleshooting tool will indicate if a noteworthy event has occurred on the network?
a. Event correlation system.
b. Automatic response.
c. Alarm categories.
d. Alarm browser.
d. Alarm browser.
Which alarm category in the network monitor system (NMS) indicates a warning?
a. Red.
b. Blue.
c. Cyan.
d. Orange.
c. Cyan.
What network troubleshooting tool can dramatically reduce the number of alarms displayed on the network monitor system (NMS) alarm browser?
a. Alarm category.
b. Application alarm.
c. Automatic response.
d. Event correlation system.
d. Event correlation system.
What should you usually check before you begin in-depth troubleshooting on a network?
a. Software.
b. Connectivity.
c. Electronic Industries Association (EIA) standards.
d. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).
b. Connectivity.
What is the most commonly used Electronic Industries Association (EIA) wiring standard for network connectors today?
a. 568A.
b. 588A.
c. 568B.
d. 588B.
c. 568B.
What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) command verifies connections to a remote host and can determine the path an Internet Protocol (IP) packet takes to reach a destination or determine where an IP packet stopped?
a. Internet Protocol configuration (IPconfig)/release.
b. Address resolution protocol.
c. Trace Route (TRACERT).
d. Network Statistics (NETSTAT).
c. Trace Route (TRACERT).
What command-line tool displays Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol statistics and active connections to and from the computer?
a. Network Statistics (NETSTAT).
b. Ping command.
c. Internet Protocol configuration (IPconfig)/release.
d. Address resolution protocol.
a. Network Statistics (NETSTAT).
Over what percentage of all network problems occur at the Data Link and Physical Layers of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
d. 60.
What piece of test equipment can help verify connectivity and identify shorts, reversed, crossed or split pairs on a network?
a. Time domain reflectometer.
b. Wide-area network tester.
c. Local-area network tester.
d. Signal generator.
c. Local-area network tester.
What tool can launch individual troubleshooting/configuration programs and other utilities having to do with networking, video display, printers, sound, and electronic mail (e-mail) configuration on an operating system (OS)?
a. Control panel.
b. Event viewer.
c. Device manager.
d. Disk management.
a. Control panel.
Which operating system (OS) tool will provide a listing of hardware and software failures or warnings?
a. Event viewer.
b. Control panel.
c. Device manager.
d. Network connections.
a. Event viewer.
Which operating system (OS) tool allows the viewing of the number of sent packets, status, total connection time, and speed of a network?
a. Network connections.
b. Device manager.
c. Control panel.
d. Event viewer.
a. Network connections.
Which fault isolation technique may entail checking the cable connections as well as reseating devices and checking all switches and settings for devices?
a. Check physical connections.
b. Check hardware devices.
c. Software check.
d. Memory check.
b. Check hardware devices.
Which media has a storage capacity of gigabyte (GB)—terabyte (TB), has a slow to moderate speed and is moderately expensive?
a. Tape.
b. Network.
c. Compact disc read-only memory (CD-ROM).
d. Digital versatile disc-recordable (DVD-R).
a. Tape.
What is the preferred method for clearing magnetic tapes and is the only approved method for sanitizing?
a. Erasing.
b. Wiping.
c. Overwriting.
d. Degaussing.
d. Degaussing.
Which item is not an optical storage media?
a. Compact disc read-only memory (CD-ROM).
b. Core optical disk.
c. Erasable optical disk.
d. Write-once, read-many (WORM) optical disks.
b. Core optical disk.
This must be done to any storage media before changing modes of operation or before using at a higher classification.
a. Overwriting.
b. Sanitizing.
c. Clearing.
d. Erasing.
c. Clearing.
This is an authorized method of cleaning and sanitizing many types of magnetic media.
a. Erasing.
b. Clearing.
c. Wipe info.
d. Overwrite.
d. Overwrite.
