Volume 2 Flashcards
What does a member have the right to submit when notified of his or her commander’s option to file documents into the member’s officer selection record?
The individual acknowledges receipt of the notification and right to submit a statement, if any, of rebuttal, mitigation, or circumstances for consideration on the AF Form 3070.
When is the report for tax filing due?a.March.b.June.c.September.d.December.
d.December.
What type of separation allows the parent or guardian apply for a discharge of an Airman who was 17 at the time the facts became known?
Enlistment of minors (chapter 5, section C - defective enlistments).
What is the first step in preparing a legal review for use of government resources? a. Draft a listing of the resources requested. b. Write your opinion after researching the facts. c. Review Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7-R, Joint Ethics Regulation. d. List any policies or instructions that authorize use of government resources.
c. Review Department of Defense (DOD) 5500.7-R, Joint Ethics Regulation.
Why must all host-tenant support agreements be signed by MAJCOM or a designated representative?
To verify the agreement does not conflict with DOD or Air Force directives, the appropriate base-level host and tenant coordination has been effected, and the agreement will be fulfilled.
What is an obligation of funds?
Any act that legally binds the government to make payment.
Which office maintains a repository of most SOFAs?
HQ USAF/JAO.
What is the maximum amount of time that documents may be retained in a member’s UIF?
Anywhere from six months to four years, depending on the type of action and whether the member is an officer or enlisted.
In determining eligibility of legal assistance you find the client has hired a civilian attorney,what is your immediate response?a.Defer to the staff judge advocate for a decision on the matter.b.Refer the client to his or her civilian attorney.c.Refer the client to another agency on base.d.Sign the client in for legal assistance.
b.Refer the client to his or her civilian attorney.
Which authority is authorized to give letters of counseling, admonishment, or reprimand?
_____a. A sergeant to a subordinate he or she supervise.
_____b. An instructor to a student.
_____c. A commander to any enlisted member of his or her command.
_____d. A captain who is squadron section commander to a second lieutenant in the unit.
_____e. A military justice noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) to a military justice paralegal for whom the NCOIC is the EPR reporting official.
a through e.
Who ensures fund drives are truly voluntary and no employee is coerced in any way to participate or contribute to the fundraising events? a. Commanders. b. Staff judge advocates (SJA). c. Chief, General Law Division. d. The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
a. Commanders.
An Accident Investigation Board’s (AIB) accident report must be completed within what maximum number of calendar days after receipt of the completed Part I safety investigation board (SIB) report?
a. 10.
b. 20.
c. 30.
d. 45.
c. 30.
What kind of law issues may have a significant impact on exercise and deployment operations?
Laws that reflect host country customs, such as religious laws and customs regarding insults.
What category of officers can be discharged by the Secretary of the Air Force without a personal hearing?
Regular probationary commissioned officers with less than five years of total active federal commissioned service in the Regular Air Force.
What is the goal for referring legal assistance clients to other legal agencies?
To aid clients in consulting with an attorney competent to provide the required assistance.
Define the term construction.
Any construction, development, conversion, or extension of any kind carried out with respect to a military installation, whether to satisfy temporary or permanent requirements.
The legal review for an off-duty employment form should have at least what two sections?
Background and discussion.
Who is entitled to a military legal advisor?
All US military personnel facing foreign criminal charges.
What form is used to document a non-verbal counseling?
AF IMT 174, Record of Individual Counseling.
When filing an annual ethics report, where is the first place you start?
TJAGC home page.
Define a lawful combatant.
An individual authorized by governmental authority or the LOAC to engage in hostilities.
What are the responsibilities of the MSPB?
Adjudicating individual employee appeals, conducting merit systems studies, hears the appeals of federal employees who are disciplined or otherwise separated from their positions, and reviews the significant actions of OPM to assess the degree to which those actions may affect merit.
List two reasons for separation of officers under AFI 36–3206.
substandard performance of duty;
misconduct or moral or professional dereliction;
fear of flying;
the interests of national security;
an officer who is sentenced by court-martial to a period of confinement for more than six months and not sentenced to a dismissal;
or HIV-related reasons.
Why may you have to cancel an appointment with a client?
Unforeseen circumstances or emergencies.
As a minimum, how often should audits be performed on sample collection procedures at GSUs?
No less than annually.
When receiving payment from a non-federal source, what is the preferred method of payment?
Payment in kind.
What is VoIP?
A technology that allows you to make voice calls using a broadband Internet connection instead of a regular (or analog) phone line.
When an officer has not met the requirement for exemplary conduct or is not mentally, physically, morally, or professionally qualified to perform the duties of the next higher grade, it is in the best interest of the Air Force to determine a. if dismissal is warranted. b. permanent change of station possibilities. c. if the member is not qualified for promotion or delay promotion d. if documents should be filed in the members officer selection record.
c. if the member is not qualified for promotion or delay promotion
What types of client information is maintained in WebLIONS?
Name, SSAN, military status, branch of service, grade (or sponsor grade), mailing address, legal residence,phone number, email address, sponsor information (as applicable) and the organization of each persongiven legal assistance; the date; the name of legal assistance officer or paralegal consulted; the nature of theproblem; action taken by the attorney; and, if appropriate, the name of the individual or agency to which thematter was referred.
____ (1) Section B, Involuntary Convenience of the Government.
____ (2) Section C, Defective Enlistment.
____ (3) Section D, Entry Level Performance or Conduct.
____ (4) Section E, Unsatisfactory Performance.
____ (5) Section F, Substance Abuse Treatment Failure.
____ (6) Section H, Misconduct.
a. Parenthood.
b. Drug abuse.
c. Alcohol abuse.
d. Civil court conviction.
e. Underage enlistment.
(1) a.
(2) e.
(3) b, c.
(4) b, c
(5) b, c, d.
(6) b
How are LOD determinations used?
As material evidence by a physical evaluation board to determine a member’s eligibility for benefits.
According to US policy, what will happen to captured combatants upon departure of an area?
Leave them behind.
What statute prohibits US Armed Forces from directly participating in civilian law enforcement duties? a. Posse Comitatus Act (PCA). b. Joint Ethics Regulation (JER). c. Standing rules of engagement (SROE). d. Commanders’ Emergency Response Program (CERP).
a. Posse Comitatus Act (PCA).
What is the last step to submitting the annual ethics report?
Check the data carefully for each section and then click the SUBMIT REPORT button.
If a General Order is issued by a US combatant commander in a multinational force, then the General Order applies to a. deployed US personnel. b. everyone in the multinational force. c. anyone that has read the General Order. d. only those working in the same area as Air Force members.
a. deployed US personnel.
For an OGE Form 278’s, within what maximum time period must a new entrant report be filed?
Within 30 days of assuming a covered position.
Who is the disclosure authority for all trial records for litigation and other investigations?
TJAG.
Among all eligible beneficiaries, what category of personnel is given the highest priority for legal assistance related matters?
Air Force personnel who need mobilization-or deployment-related legal assistance that facilitates commandreadiness.
When an Airman loses authorization for shipment of household goods as a consequence of an administrative demotion action, the demotion action a. is delayed and completed by the gaining commander. b. is terminated and reinitiated by the gaining commander. c. goes into effect and household goods are moved at the Airman’s own expense. d. goes into effect and a waiver of household goods shipment is issued by the Traffic Management Office (TMO).
a. is delayed and completed by the gaining commander.
What Act requires the government to seek competition for its requirements?
CICA, 10 U.S.C. § 2304
If the base volunteer coordinator calls your office wanting to discuss placement of a legalservice volunteer, to whom would you refer them?a.Chief of Legal Assistance.b.Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).c.Chief of Civil Law.d.Deputy SJA.
b.Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
What is a TACLANE?
It is a network encryption device that provides network communications security on IP and ATM networks for the individual user or for enclaves of users at the same security level.
What type of system has secure voice and data equipment designed for use on advanced digital communications networks? a. Defense Secure Network (DSN). b. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE). c. Voice-Over Secure Internet Protocol (VoSIP). d. Tactical Local Area Network Encryption (TACLANE).
b. Secure Terminal Equipment (STE).
For congressional inquiries to local commanders, what must be done within 24 hours of the receipt of the inquiry?
Fax a copy of the written inquiry to the SAF/LLI.
What should you be prepared to do when calling a client to cancel an appointment?
Have some alternate appointments available when you call to cancel.
What directive covers administrative discharge procedures for officers having substandard duty performance?
AFI 36–3206.
When a PA request is denied, within what maximum time period may a requester appeal to the SAF?
Within 60 calendar days from date of initial denial.
What information is covered by the Privacy Act?
Records retrieved by name or other personal identifier of a US citizen or alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence and are subject to Privacy Act requirements and are referred to as a Privacy Act system of records.
What is the role of legal support in air and space operations as defined by Air Force doctrine document (AFDD) 1–04, Legal Support? a. Provide legal assistance. b. Analyze and evaluate circumstances. c. Process claims for destruction of foreign property. d. Brief all personnel on Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC).
b. Analyze and evaluate circumstances.
What requirements must an investigative officer meet to be appointed to conduct a CO hearing?
Judge advocate, in the grade of captain or higher.
What report lists, by category, how much money clients were saved through the legal assistance program?
Client saving report.
What is international law?
The application of international agreements, international customary practices, and the general principles of law recognized by civilized nations to military operations and activities.
What is the governing directive for processing LOD actions?
AFI 36–2910.
When a client completes the Will and Advance Medical Directive Worksheet online, what is
automatically provided to him/her upon completion of the worksheet?
A ticket number.
Of the various types of fixed price contracts, which type of contract is the most common?
The FFP contract.
What information should be stressed when covering mobilization and deployment preparationissues?
Stress the importance of preparing a will, powers of attorney, and other necessary documents before
deployment.
Who determines whether or not an offense is referred to the Magistrate Court?
Installation commander.
What action does a court take when a person dies intestate?
Distributes the estate according to the state law; appoints an administrator; and designates guardians for
minor children when necessary.
Who is the final approval authority for an officer applicant? For an enlisted applicant?
Officers is the SecAF or designated representative and the final approval authority for enlisted personnel is HQ AFPC (active duty Airmen), ANGRC/DPM (ANG Airmen), HQ AFRES/CV (Reserve Unit Airmen), or HQ ARPC/CC (all other Reserve Airmen).
In joint doctrine, how are PKOs defined?
Military operations undertaken with the consent of all major parties to a dispute, and are designed to monitor and facilitate implementation of an agreement to support diplomatic efforts to reach a long-term political settlement.
What agency helps Airmen apply for voluntary separation?
The MPS Career Development Element.
Who is responsible for administering the host-tenant support agreement program? a. Receiver support agreement manager (SAM). b. Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). c. Installation commander. d. Installation supplier SAM.
d. Installation supplier SAM.
List the minimum required documents to be included in a discharge folder.
The commander’s recommendation with attachments, notification letter with attachments, addendum to the notification letter (if applicable), the Airman’s receipt of notification letter, the Airman’s statement with or without attachments, and the medical examination (if available),
What is the purpose of a host-tenant support agreement?
To formally identify the specific support functions and related responsibilities that are to be performed by the host and by the tenant.
Following a decision by the EEOC OFO, who may request reconsideration?
Either party (the agency or complainant).
What are the two types of investigations that involve aircraft or aerospace equipment?
Accident and safety investigations.
At base level, who is charged with developing and implementing educational initiatives as aprimary duty?
The Chief of Preventive Law or preventive law officer.
Upon receipt of a commander’s notification of intent to file optional material in a UIF, how long does a member have to respond?
Three duty days (30 calendar days from the date of receipt of the certified letter for non-extended active duty reservists).
In what situations may the SJA make a determination to refer clients seeking legal assistance with personal civil legal matters to other legal agencies?
If the SJA determines the workload or a lack of expertise in a specialized area of the law could impair thequality of legal service.
Define head of the contracting activity.
The person delegated overall responsibility for managing all contracting activities for a particular agency or element.
When a FOIA request is denied, within what maximum time period may a requester appeal to the SAF?
Within 60 calendar days from date of initial denial.
What is a living will?
A living will states a person’s desires regarding the termination of life support in the event of a terminal,
incurable medical condition.
With regard to the paralegal field, how is the Coast Guard significantly different than the other branches of service?
The Coast Guard does not have a paralegal career field.
When an employee believes they have been discriminated against because of race, color, sex, national origin, or religion, age, disability, or reprisal, within what maximum time period must an employee contact the installation-level EEO counselor?
With limited exceptions, this contact must occur within 45 days of the time that the employee believes or has reason to believe that discrimination occurred.
Who is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of Air Force property and can be held financially liable for failure to exercise this obligation? a. Property custodian. b. Responsible officer. c. Accountable officer. d. Financial liability officer.
a. Property custodian.
What must a commander ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge? a. All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted. b. Airman has met with the Area Defense Counsel and understands his or her options. c. Convening authority has concurred with the proposed action. d. Legal office has reviewed the file, and it is legally sufficient.
a. All rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted.
What are reasons an FOIA request can be denied?
(1) Classified in the interest of national security or foreign policy, as specifically authorized under the criteria established by Executive Order and implemented by regulations;
(2) related to the internal personnel rules and practices of the DOD or any of its components;
(3) Concerning matters a statute specifically exempts from disclosure by terms that permit no discretion on the issue, or in accordance with criteria established by statute for withholding or referring to particular types of matters to be withheld;
(4) Containing trade secrets or commercial or financial information that a DOD component receives from a person or organization outside the government with the understanding the information or record will be retained on a privileged or confidential basis in accordance with customary handling of such records;(5) Containing information considered privileged in litigation, primarily under the deliberative process privilege;
(6) Information in personnel and medical files, as well as similar personal information files that, if disclosed to a requester, other than the person about whom the information is about, would result in a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;
(7) Records or information compiled for law enforcement purposes; i.e., civil, criminal, or military law, including the implementation of Executive Orders or regulations issued pursuant to law;
(8) Containing in or related to examination, operation or condition reports prepared by, on behalf of, or for the use of any agency responsible for the regulation or supervision of financial institutions, and
(9) Containing geological and geophysical information and data (including maps) concerning wells.
If the total value of non-federal travel benefits exceeds $250, what step must be taken after an employee’s travel has been completed?
A report must be forwarded to the ethics counselor by the traveler for inclusion in the semiannual report to SAF/GCA and the Office of Government Ethics.
When may classified information be released for litigation?
Classified information cannot be released under any circumstances, unless proper authority first declassifies the material.
In the Army, how are skill levels obtained?
By training, the ability to perform tasks, and pay grade.
Which options properly constitute a discharge board hearing panel?
____a. A board of one major and two master sergeants (MSgt).
____b. A board of one major, one captain, and one MSgt.
____c. A board of three captains.
____d. A board of one lieutenant colonel, one major, and one technical sergeant (TSgt).
b and d.
Where must each office record their legal assistance visits and workload?
In WebLIONS.
What is the minimum number of days an Airman must serve on continuous active duty before a commander is not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge? a. 80. b. 90. c. 180. d. 190.
c. 180.
For monthly visitation reports, what matters require prompt notification to TJAG of the service concerned?
Matters involving denied visitation requests, prisoner maltreatment, and substandard conditions
When a squadron commander believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, the commander’s first step is to a. send the officer to the Area Defense Counsel. b. serve a notification memorandum on the officer. c. send the file to the special court-martial convening authority. d. evaluate the information and consult with the staff judge advocate.
d. evaluate the information and consult with the staff judge advocate.
If an officer member of a tenant unit is being administratively discharged, then jurisdiction for the member and the discharge belongs to a. tenant unit’s major command (MAJCOM). b. host unit’s MAJCOM. c. tenant unit. d. host unit.
c. tenant unit.
Which type of Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes? a. Full-SOFA. b. Mini-SOFA. c. Administrative and Technical Staff. d. Ambassador Executive Leadership Staff.
c. Administrative and Technical Staff.
To whom will the staff judge advocate forward the initial report of investigation regarding violations of the Law of Armed Conflict?
To TJAG through HQ USAF/JAO.
How does the US Air Force Legal Assistance Website enhance legal assistance?
Provides a valuable preventive law education tool through its “Legal Assistance Topics” section andenhances legal assistance by allowing clients to complete online worksheets for wills, healthcaredocuments, and powers of attorney. In addition, LAWS collects online feedback that allows us to identifyareas of strength and weaknesses in our legal assistance program and to make adjustments as needed.
Identify three examples of technology we use to keep communications from being compromised.
The VoSIP, STE, and TACLANE.
What three items should you be definite about when scheduling an appointment?
Time, date, and place.
Who normally files complaints on behalf of the installation with the Magistrate Court?
An officer designated by the installation commander; normally the chief of security forces or the SJA.
How must Airmen who want to voluntarily leave the active service PETS, request his/her separation?
In writing.
What is the first step in the line of duty (LOD) determination process? a. Legal office review. b. Medical officer’s review. c. Investigation by security forces. d. Commander directed investigation.
b. Medical officer’s review.
Define contracting officer.
An individual specifically appointed by the Secretary of the Air Force or designee with the authority to enter into, administer, or terminate contracts and execute related determinations and findings within the limits of the authority delegated.
Which Air Force Instruction provides guidance for processing and reporting international agreements?
AFI 51–701.
What may an employee be responsible for if they accept non-federal travel benefits after DOD rejects the offer?
Personally responsible for reimbursing the non-federal source.
How does confidentiality apply to your job as a paralegal?
You are an extension of this attorney-client relationship and are bound to keep all privileged information onthe client’s problem confidential. As a result, you must protect the attorney-client relationship.
What may happen to unlawful combatants during hostilities?
They may be killed or wounded and, if captured, may be tried as war criminals for their LOAC violations.
Which punishment makes an Article 15 a mandatory unfavorable information file (UIF) entry? a. Forfeiture of $200.00 pay for one month. b. 30 days correctional custody. c. 60 days restriction. d. 25 days extra duty.
c. 60 days restriction.
Where do most legal reviews for use of government resources stem from?
An organization needing an answer to a question concerning whether an employee is authorized to use government resources.
As a minimum, how often are inspections required for the DDRP?
No less than quarterly.
If the SJA determines prosecution is warranted in a case, what is the next action the installation commander takes?
Prepares a complaint for filing with the US District Court.
Which Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) principle prohibits the use of any kind or degree of force that exceeds that needed to accomplish the military objective? a. Distinction. b. Proportionality. c. Military necessity. d. Rules of engagement.
b. Proportionality.
What are the four aspects of the regulation of conduct during war?
Military necessity, discrimination between combatants and noncombatants, humanity, and use of force proportional to the desired result.
____ (1) Actual signing and notarizing of a will according to procedural requirements of applicable law.
____ (2) States a person’s desires regarding the termination of life support in the event of a terminal, incurable medical condition, during which the person
is incapable of competently communicating his/her desires.
____ (3) A testator giving personal property.
____ (4) A person lawfully vested with the power and charged with the duty of taking care of and managing the person and/or property of another whom,
because of status, age, understanding, or self-control, is determined to be
incapable of administering his/her own affairs.
____ (5) The individual who is responsible for holding and keeping the trust property for the benefit of the beneficiaries.
____ (6) When a trustor creates one trust, with pooled assets for all of the beneficiaries, and with one trustee.
____ (7) When a gift fails or goes away. When ademption occurs, the estate is not liable for the value of the gift to the intended beneficiary.
____ (8) The property shall be distributed in equal shares among the children, with the issue of deceased children dividing their deceased parent’s share
equally.
____ (9) A testator giving real property.
____ (10) Land and everything that is permanently affixed to land, such as, structures and the fixtures within structures.
a. Adeem.
b. Bequeath.
c. Devise.
d. Execution.
e. Guardian.
f. Living will.
g. Per stirpes.
h. Real property.
i. Single trust.
j. Trustee.
(1) d.
(2) f.
(3) b.
(4) e.
(5) j.
(6) i.
(7) a.
(8) g.
(9) c.
(10) h.
When should an application for redress be made?
Within 90 days of the discovered wrong.
What is the purpose of a SOFA?
To set forth rights and responsibilities between the United States and the host government focusing on two broad areas: criminal jurisdiction and civil law relief.
What guidance establishes the standards of conduct for all Air Force personnel—both military and civilian?
DOD 5500.7-R.
What will the commander consider when determining if an officer will be recommended not qualified for promotion?
If the officer has not met the requirements for exemplary conduct or is not mentally, physically, morally, or professionally qualified to perform the duties of the next higher grade.
Generally, who should have a will?
Any person owning real or personal property or who has children.
What is a hostile act?
A hostile act is an attack or other use of force against the US, US forces, or other designated persons or property.
Which Act revised the FAR to encourage competition for the award of all types of government contracts?
The CICA of 1984.
At a minimum, each Aircraft Investigation Board (AIB) is composed of a
a. president and a recorder.
b. president, recorder, and a legal advisor.
c. legal advisor and a reporter.
d. legal advisor and a recorder.
b. president, recorder, and a legal advisor.
Once a complainant receives a NOFI letter, within what maximum time period does a complainant have to file a formal complaint?
15 days from receipt of letter.
What actions may be appealed to the MSPB?
Removal, reduction in grade or pay, suspensions for greater than 14 days, or furlough for 30 days or less for cause, and other cases as set forth in 5 C.F.R. § 1201.2 and 1201.3.
Prior to drafting a will, what document do you need to review?
The Will and Advance Medical Directive Worksheet.
Who is required to file confidential financial disclosure reports?
Certain executive branch employees whose duties involve the exercise of discretion in sensitive areas such as contracting, procurement, administration of grants and licenses, and regulating or auditing non-Federal entities.
Who supervises and manages the tax assistance program at base level?a.Wing commander.b.Staff judge advocate.c.Squadron commander.d.Chief of legal assistance.
b.Staff judge advocate.
What does the category “Federal Civil Service employees” include?
Includes all appointed positions in the executive, judicial, and legislative branches of the Government of the US, except positions in the uniformed services. The US civil service includes both competitive service and excepted service.
What methods does the Air Force use to gain information about a particular situation?
Inquiry and investigation.
To whom does an individual forward an application for redress?
His or her commander.
Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an Accident Investigation Board (AIB)?
a. Paralegal.
b. Judge Advocate.
c. An officer in the rank of Colonel or above.
d. An enlisted member with a background in maintenance.
a. Paralegal.
What is the authority for officer administrative separations? (vol and invol)
AFI 36–3207.
Which category is not a part of the US Air Force Legal Assistance Website (LAWS)?a.Legal information.b.Legal worksheets.c.Online survey.d.Reports.
d.Reports.
What is the effective DOR for an Airman demoted as a result of termination of student status?
The date on which the Airman first performed service in the reduced grade (original date of rank).
What is the maximum number of days a member has to respond to a discharge notification when he or she is entitled to a board hearing?
Seven duty days.
What form is used for the host-tenant support agreement?
DD Form 1144.
Before travel payments are accepted from a non-federal source, what action must take place?
Prior approval must be granted from the travel approving authority.
What is the purpose of a board of inquiry?
To give respondents who face discharge proceedings a fair and impartial hearing, make case findings, and recommend whether the Air Force should retain or discharge officers.
What is the focus of MOOTW?
It is focused on deterring war, resolving conflict, promoting peace, and supporting civil authorities in response to domestic crises.
List four goals of Homeland Defense.
List any four of the following:
(1) Identify the threat.
(2) Dissuade adversaries from undertaking programs or conducting actions that could pose a threat to the US homeland.
(3) Ensure defense of the homeland and deny an adversary’s access to the nation’s airspace, land, and maritime approaches.
(4) Ensure access to space and information.
(5) Ensure availability of the DCI.
(6) Deter aggression and coercion by deploying forward with the capability to prevent attacks on the homeland and impose severe penalties for aggression on an adversary’s military capability and supporting infrastructure.
(7) Decisively defeat any adversary if deterrence fails.
(8) Minimize the consequences of any attack or incident.
In a Merit Systems Protection Board (MSPB) proceeding, what maximum number of days from the effective date of the adverse action does a complainant have to file an appeal with the MSPB? a. 10. b. 20. c. 30. d. 45.
c. 30.
Provide two examples of why the Navy paralegal field is unique to the other services.
It is not an entry-level position and the ability for a Paralegal to work in a variety of billets to include, afloat commands.
What action is taken when a military member is subpoenaed and the release of requested information is prohibited by regulation?
The member, with the assistance of the legal office, will attempt to resolve the matter with the attorney requesting the information or the member will appear before the court and explain the situation.
In what situations is the supporting legal office required to perform a legal review on contract actions?
Operational contract actions and Space and Missile System Center contract actions expected to exceed $500,000 and AFMC Non-Operational contract actions expected to exceed $1,000,000.
Who takes final action on a line of duty (LOD) determination case? a. Member’s commander. b. Staff judge advocate (SJA). c. Appointing authority. d. Approving authority.
d. Approving authority.
When signing documents in his/her official capacity, what information must a notary include?
The date and location, his/her title and office, and use a raised seal or inked stamp citing 10 U.S.C.§ 1044a
(for military notaries) or state authority for civilians designated in AFI 51-504.
The first step in a notification discharge is when the member a. reports for a medical examination. b. submits a statement in rebuttal of the discharge. c. receives oral notice of the reason(s) for discharge. d. receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge.
d. receives written notice of the reason(s) for discharge.
What action(s) are taken if the disclosure authority determines the Air Force may make material available under the FOIA or PA?
If the requester asked to inspect the record, tell the requester where and when it may be inspected and inform the requester of the amount of the fee, if applicable. If the requester asked for a copy of the record, inform the requester of the fee and explain that the FOIA/PA manager will furnish the copy upon receipt of the fee. If the request is urgent, you may send a copy before payment.
What office must provide approval to post bail bonds using US funds, if an international agreement provides for the US to exercise pretrial custody?
HQ USAF/JAO.
Who has the authority to disapprove a separation for a conscientious objector case?
Secretary of the Air Force.
The Contract Disputes Act obligates the contractor to a. continue performance pending final resolution of a dispute. b. continue performance only after final resolution of the dispute. c. complete the contractual terms regardless of any disputes. d. complete the contractual terms as modified by interim agreement.
a. continue performance pending final resolution of a dispute.
Which is considered to be the least severe form of administrative discipline? a. Letter of reprimand (LOR). b. Letter of admonition (LOA). c. Placement on a control roster. d. Record of individual counseling (RIC)/LOC
d. Record of individual counseling (RIC)/LOC
For what purpose have military commissions historically been used?
To prosecute enemy combatants who violate the Laws of War.
What is normally the grade of the COMAFFOR?
Colonel (0-6) to lieutenant general (0-9).
Where do you report final tax assistance statistics?
In TPRS through JAGUARS.
Who has the authority to demote an Airman? Can it be delegated?
The group commander, or equivalent level commander, may demote MSgts and below.
MAJCOM, FOA, or DRU commanders may demote senior and chief master sergeants - this can be delegated only once.
In the Marines, what type of document is used to establish training requirements?
SAT.
For first party access, what is the maximum time period to respond to all PA requests?
Within 20 workdays of receipt.
In Magistrate Court cases, once a complaint is reviewed by the SJA, how is it filed with the US District Court clerk’s office?
By either faxing or emailing the information to the clerk, depending on how they have their system set up.
Who supervises and manages the tax assistance programs at the base level?
SJAs.
What is the purpose of the control roster?
The control roster was created to reflect the names of Airmen, officer and enlisted; whose substandard conduct or duty performances require special observation and gives the member a chance to improve his or her conduct.
Legal information mastery is one of the six legal support functional competencies, what does thiscompetency allow legal officer personnel to do?
To obtain, analyze, and communicate legal information rapidly.
What two procedures are used for processing discharge actions under AFI 36–3208?
Notification procedure and board hearing or board waiver procedure.
What advantage does a military receptionist have over his or her civilian counterpart when receiving visitors?
Because most visitors are military personnel, it is easier to recognize a visitor’s rank and determine the lastname.
What must the immediate commander include in the demotion action case file when an Airman elects to have a personal hearing?
A written summary of the personal hearing.
What are SAPs used to obtain?
Almost exclusively used to obtain nonpersonal services, supplies, or construction that are not estimated to exceed $150,000.
Which report is a statistical summary of all cases involving jurisdiction over US personnel? a. Trial observer report. b. Serious incident report. c. Monthly visitation report. d. Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report.
d. Annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report.
What is the difference between an inquiry and an investigation?
An inquiry is an examination into facts or principles not complex or of a serious nature and can be resolved through routine channels and a written report may or may not be reuired, whereas the investigation is a proper authorized, systematic, detailed examination to uncover the facts and determine the trust of a matter and always required a written report.
What are the two types of financial disclosure forms?
The OGE Form 450, Executive Branch Confidential Financial Disclosure Report, and the OGE Form 278, Executive Branch Personnel Public Financial Disclosure Report.
When may an officer or employee accept voluntary services exceeding those authorized by law? a. When authorized by Congress. b. When authorized by the installation commander. c. In emergencies involving issues of National Security. d. In emergencies involving the safety of human life or protection of property.
d. In emergencies involving the safety of human life or protection of property.
When the authority for an international agreement falls under the major command (MAJCOM), to whom must it be submitted for concurrence? a. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF). b. MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate (SJA). c. Assistant Legal Advisor for Treaty Affairs. d. Chief, Headquarters, United States Air Force Operations and International Law Directorate.
b. MAJCOM Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
Define termination for convenience.
The exercise of the government’s right to completely or partially terminate performance of work under a contract when it is in the government’s interest.
Who has the overall responsibility for implementing status of forces policies and procedures in each foreign country?
DCO.
If an Airman with less than 180 days of service is documented as lacking aptitude for military service, what type of separation is appropriate for this Airman?
Entry-level separation.
