Volume 1 Flashcards
(156 cards)
1
Q
Who was the first Judge Advocate General of the Air Force?
A
Major General Reginald C. Harmon.
2
Q
When did paralegals receive a separate and distinct AFSC?
A
1 May 1955.
3
Q
Who is credited with obtaining approval for establishment of the first AF paralegal apprentice
school?
A
Chief Swigonski.
4
Q
Under the direction and supervision of TJAG, what does TJAG’s Corps provide?
A
Professional legal services needed to accomplish the mission of the US Air Force and maintain the highest
degree of effectiveness and readiness as directed by Title 10 U.S.C. § 8072 (renumbered sec. 8037).
5
Q
Where would you go to find more information on the duties of the individuals that make up the
TJAG’s Corps?
A
AFI 51–102.
6
Q
1) Must have at least eight years of experience in legal duties
as a commissioned officer to be appointed.
(2) Directly responsible to the commander and staff for legal
services.
(3) Advise TJAG on all paralegal enlisted matters.
(4) When TJAG is absent, assumes those duties.
a. TJAG.
b. TDJAG.
c. SJA.
d. Senior Paralegal Manager to
TJAG.
A
(1) a.
(2) c.
(3) d.
(4) b.
7
Q
At what level or levels in the military structure are SJAs assigned?
A
At MAJCOM, GCM, and base-level legal offices.
8
Q
A civilian attorney may be used at what level within TJAG’s Corps?
A
At all levels throughout the corps.
9
Q
Who makes up a typical ANG unit’s legal office?
A
An SJA, deputy SJA, and two paralegals.
10
Q
Who augments and supports active duty forces?
A
Cat B Reservists (IMA).
11
Q
What are the 13 awards that may be presented to TJAG Corps personnel?
A
(1) Albert M. Kuhfeld Award.
(2) Reginald C. Harmon Award.
(3) James O. Wrightson, Jr., Award.
(4) Karen Yates-Popwell Award.
(5) Steve Swigonski Award.
(6) Thomas Castleman Award
(7) David Westbrook Award.
(8) Andrew Stadler Award
(9) Harold R. Vague Award.
(10) Stuart R. Reichart Award.
(11) Special Service Award.
(12) Unsung Hero Award.
(13) Joy Dunlap Family Service Award.
12
Q
Which TJAG award is designed to recognize active duty SSgts or TSgts or below for their
demonstrated superior initiative, technical skill, leadership ability, attorney/paralegal teaming,
and devotion to duty?
A
The Steve Swigonski Award.
13
Q
What agencies establish procedures for selection of command/organizational nominees for TJAG
annual awards?
A
MAJCOMs and AFLOA.
14
Q
When managing people, how can you achieve the greatest degree of efficiency?
A
Good supervisory practices.
15
Q
What is a key ingredient to good management?
A
Supervision.
16
Q
The Air Force has long recognized that mission accomplishment depends on the judicious
application of what two principles?
A
Leadership and management.
17
Q
When supervising personnel, what must you set?
A
Specific goals.
18
Q
Why should you check subordinates’ work from time to time?
A
To ensure it meets expected work standards.
19
Q
What is a manager’s primary concern?
A
Obtaining results.
20
Q
How will your efforts as a supervisor be judged?
A
By how well requirements are met and by the volume and quality of production.
21
Q
In what order should work assignments be completed?
A
According to the priorities assigned by the supervisor.
22
Q
What is important about the first meeting with newly assigned personnel?
A
The first meeting should be a pleasant encounter.
23
Q
When a newly assigned individual reports to your work center, what should be your first item of
business?
A
Ensure that the individual finds a comfortable place to live and completes in-processing the base.
24
Q
What are some of the things you should include in the orientation of newly assigned personnel?
A
A tour of the base and activities he/she will be participating in, a walk-through of the office, and introductions to everyone. Provide a work center orientation, including work center policies and procedures, duty hours, breaks, uniform standards, and other activities of his/her new work environment. Cover all training requirements for upgrade and/or qualification training and any safety requirements, and his/her responsibilities as a trainee, trainer, task certifier, and supervisor, as applicable.
25
How do bases normally provide information on policies and procedures to newly assigned
personnel?
Brochures are handed out at in-processing briefings.
26
Why is it important to keep your personal information up-to-date in Roster?
Management of all JAG offices and personnel is accomplished through Roster.
27
Why is it important to have up-to-date bios and photos uploaded in Roster at all times?
TJAG, MAJCOM and NAF offices use them for Article 6 visits and SAVs.
28
How often is recertification of your personal information required?
Annually.
29
Who is responsible for the yearly certification of your roster information?
Each individual is responsible for certifying his/her information yearly, no one else can access it.
30
What does a law office superintendent/manager use Roster for?
"As an office management tool". Managing positions within a section, assigning new user accounts in Roster, and matching UMPR position numbers. A superintendent/manager would also use it to keep office contact information current, update inspection ratings, update SPCM and GCM commanders and the hours for the law office.
31
To ensure they are correct, what should personnel position numbers in Roster be compared
against?
Air Force manpower databases.
32
Name five items required in a reserve participation folder.
Copy of ARC Information Sheet from the WebFLITE ARC databases; current records review (RIP); original or copy of Physical Fitness Evaluation Record; copy of most recent AF Form 526; copies of AF Form 77; correspondence relating to achievements; citations for awards and decorations; copies of work products; standards of conduct acknowledgements; additional items at MAJCOM or local direction.
33
How often are EPRs required on Cat A and Cat B Reservists?
Biennially (every two years) upon achieving the rank of SSgt.
34
What is a PEDB for?
It is used to retention in current position, as well as quality review of the Reserve paralegal program and personnel; selection for special duties; command assignments, attachments, etc.; and career counseling and feedback, upon request. It is also used to identify the most qualified paralegal for reassignment to higher graded positions for those that meet promotion eligibility requirements. In addition, the board is used as an administrative tool for promotion selections; however, the PEDB is not a promotion board.
35
What are six methods for ARC members to complete training?
Military Personnel Appropriation Days, Quadrennial Tour/Home Station Support, Annual Tour, Inactive Duty Training, Seasoning Training, and Unit Training Assembly Participation System.
36
Who is eligible for Seasoning Training?
Recent 3-skill level paralegals and Officer Initial Skills formal school graduates.
37
What is the CFETP?
The primary document used to identify life-cycle education and training requirements.
38
What does the STS contain?
The STS identifies the most common tasks of an enlisted AFS that require training; identifies user-command, mission-related training requirements; lists tasks and knowledge required for upgrade and qualification training; identifies the level of training given airmen in basic, advanced, lateral, and other enlisted AFSC-awarding courses; and identifies CDC requirements or references to be studied if a CDC is not available.
39
What is the purpose of the AF Form 797?
To add duty section tasks that need to be trained, but are not included in the STS or in an established JQS.
40
What is the purpose of a training plan?
To identify duty and training requirements to ensure completion of all work center duty position requirements; 100-percent task coverage. This includes contingency, wartime, and mandatory specialty qualification requirements.
41
What is an MTL?
A list of all day-to-day tasks required in a work center; to include core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed.
42
What is included in the MTP document?
When tasks should be trained (priority/milestones), how they should be trained (resource/method), and approximately how long it should take to train an individual on a task or set of tasks.
43
To have an effective training program, what must the trainer exhibit?
The desire to train personnel to perform their assigned duties and supervisor's active involvement
44
How do good trainers treat their trainees?
As individuals.
45
Who establishes the completion dates for projects assigned to a trainee?
The trainer.
46
When a trainee’s progress does not meet required standards, what should you do?
Counsel the trainee and make sure he/she understands the circumstances and knows what is required.
47
What is the primary concern in upgrade training?
Developing inexperienced personnel into skilled workers.
48
What are the three components of the AF OJT program?
Job knowledge, job proficiency, and job experience.
49
When trainees are completing a CDC, why should you ensure that they answer self-test questions and unit review exercises?
To ensure the trainees understand the material.
50
What is the purpose of qualification training?
To further develop an airman’s knowledge and skill within a given position.
51
When is the best time to conduct your training program?
During slow periods.
52
How should complex operations be broken down for a trainee?
Simple step-by-step procedures.
53
How do you keep a trainee’s interest high?
Vary tasks.
54
What is the first resource for LLAO duties?
NetRAMS.
55
What are the ULL responsibilities of AFLOA/JAS? (6)
(1) Establish corps-wide policies and procedures for the operation and management of the ULL.
(2) Evaluate, plan for, and purchase the best combination of electronic and paper legal research resources within authorized funding levels.
(3) Provide guidance and supervision of all AF law libraries.
(4) Centrally order and track core law library system materials.
(5) Approve disposition of excess law library materials, including materials from scheduled office closures.
(6) Ensure the Unified Law Library Handbook is available on the NetRAMS Home Page and that the handbook establishes procedures for managing centrally purchased library materials.
56
Who may serve as the base LLAO?
Anyone within the legal office. There are no grade restrictions.
57
How is the LLAO appointed?
In writing by the SJA.
58
When changing the LLAO, what’s the second and final thing that must be done?
Certificate of Transfer.
59
What form is used to control the removed/checked out/borrowing of books from the law library?
AF Form 614.
60
List the three types of law library records and their purpose.
(1) NetRAMS; lists the publications in the law library.
(2) The acquisition file holds invoices or other documents received with publications.
(3) The disposition file consists of documents about the disposition of publications in the law library during the calendar year
61
How do you dispose of books when they become obsolete or non-serviceable?
Identify them and request approval from AFLOA/JAS and transfer them to DRMO following the standing guidelines of the local or regionally assigned DRMO office.
62
What is the process for purchasing commercial publications?
Prior to submitting a request to AFLOA/JAS, consider other means available to obtain material such as local public law libraries or online media (i.e., FLITE, Lexis, and Internet). If the new publication cannot be obtained by other means, forward a written request signed by the SJA or equivalent, as the requesting official. Send the request letter through the requester’s functional chain of command (MAJCOMs, FOAs, and Circuit as applicable) to AFLOA/JAS for approval.
63
Who has final approval authority on all purchase requests?
AFLOA/JAS.
64
What are the three reasons or considerations a complete inventory is conducted in the law library?
Annual inventory, in April; upon change of LLAO; and when directed by AFLOA/JAS, MAJCOM/JA, or the local SJA.
65
How are inventories conducted?
Compare each centrally and locally purchased publication on the shelf with the NetRAMS inventory.
66
What was Article 6 of the UCMJ was enacted for?
To ensure that the military justice system is administered properly; supports good order, morale, and discipline; and operates free from unlawful command influence.
67
What areas may Article 6 inspections focus on?
using a single inspection checklist tailored to Leadership, Military Justice, Victim and Witness Assistance Program, Special Victims Counsel, Adverse Actions, Legal Reviews, Installation Meetings, and Foreign Criminal Jurisdiction.
68
Who makes up the team of inspectors for an Article 6 conducted by JAI?
Judge Advocate and a Paralegal representative from AF/JAI and a Judge Advocate and a Paralegal representative from the MAJCOM of the unit being inspected.
69
When are Article 137, UCMJ briefings required to be given?
The first Article 137 briefing will occur within 14 calendar days on active duty. The second time an airman will receive the Article 137 briefing will be upon completion of when they complete six months of active duty. After the first two timelines, airmen are required to receive the reenlistment explanation within 30 calendar days of every reenlistment.
70
What is the required content of an Article 137, UCMJ briefing?
Types of punitive and administrative discharges; bases for characterizing service; Articles 2, 3, 7-15, 25, 27, 31, 37, 38, 55, 77-134, and 137-139, UCMJ; the benefits, disadvantages, and possible future effects of each type of service characterization; the denial of certain benefits to most persons who fail to complete at least two years of an original enlistment (38 U.S.C. § 5303A); and a detailed explanation of the applicable laws and regulations governing sexual conduct by members of the armed forces.
71
What are the records management roles that you may either work with or be assigned as an extra duty in the legal office?
Base records manager, functional area records manager, chief of records and record custodian.
72
What is the Record Custodian responsible for?
Manage the internal record keeping program, and have guardianship and control of records. RCs will maintain and dispose of the offices active and inactive records in accordance with RDS located in AFRIMS. Each RC must learn the functional mission of the office of record that the records support and know the purposes the records serve. The RC develops and maintains the office file plan within AFRIMS, and establishes electronic and paper records. Additionally, the RC will consult with the COR and FARM as necessary on problems that affect creating, maintaining, using, and disposing of records.
73
How often must attorneys and paralegals review TJAG’s policy memorandums?
Annually.
74
What three things must a judge advocate do to ensure the delegation of work to paralegals is proper?
Maintain a direct relationship with the client, retain complete responsibility for work product, and supervise the paralegal in the performance of the delegated work.
75
What term defines the rule of evidence that protects confidential communications between a lawyer and client made in the course of a professional relationship?
Attorney-client privilege.
76
What do paralegals have the responsibility to prevent?
The disclosure of any information related to the judge advocate’s representation of clients.
77
When paralegals speak with clients, other attorneys, or any other judicial person, what must they inform them of?
Their status as paralegals.
78
What must an attorney know to provide the best service possible to a client?
All the facts and circumstances surrounding a particular issue or case.
79
What is legal competence?
The legal knowledge, skill, thoroughness, and preparation reasonable necessary for the representation of a client.
80
What is legal diligence?
The constant and earnest effort to accomplish what is undertaken; it is the persistent exertion of body or mind.
81
When does a conflict of interest occur?
The representation of one client will be directly adverse to another client; or there is a significant risk that the representation of one or more clients will be materially limited by the attorney’s responsibilities toanother client, a former client or a third person or by a personal interest of the lawyer.
82
When must attorneys inform the proper authority of their knowledge of the conduct of another attorney or of judges?
When conduct is in violation of the rules, when it calls their integrity/trustworthiness into question or whenit calls their “fitness” to practice law into question.
83
Who is the proper authority for violation and misconduct complaints?
Complaints about trial judges will be submitted to the Chief Trial Judge. If the complaint is about CTJ, the complaint will go directly to TJAG. Complaints about an attorney will be submitted to the attorney’s SSA.
84
What is the purpose of HIPAA?
To simplify the administration of health care.
85
Under HIPAA, what document acts as the Air Force’s BAA?
DOD 6025.18R.
86
Name five instances when the MTF may disclose information without the individual’s authorization?
As required by any law (includes Air Force instructions and DOD regulations); to avert serious threats tohealth and safety (i.e., disclose information to SFS to prevent or lessen the threat); for specializedgovernmental functions (i.e., separations or discharges); for judicial and administrative proceedings,including courts-martial; for law enforcement purposes to identify or locate a suspect, fugitive, materialwitness, or a missing person, which includes AFOSI, SFS, JA; for organ donation purposes; for victims ofabuse, neglect, or domestic violence; for inmates in correctional institutions or in custody; for worker’scompensation; for research involving minimal risk; and for public health and health oversight activities.
87
Name the two types of government property uses that are considered proper.
Official and authorized.
88
What are the requirements to be an agency designee when dealing with use of government resource issues?
The first supervisor who is a commissioned military officer or a civilian above GS/GM–11 in the chain ofcommand or supervision of the employee concerned.
89
List three issues an agency designee must consider before allowing its employees to make limited personal use of non-communication-type government resources.
List any three of the following:
(1) The use does not adversely affect the performance of official duties by the employee or the employee’sorganization.
(2) The use is of reasonable duration and frequency and made only during the DOD employee’s personaltime, such as after duty hours or lunch periods.
(3) The use serves a legitimate public interest (such as supporting local charities or volunteer services tothe community; enhancing the professional skills of the DOD employee; job searching in response to federal government downsizing).
(4) The use does not put federal resources to uses that would reflect adversely on DOD (such as involving commercial activities; unofficial advertising, soliciting or selling; violation of statute or regulation, and other uses that are incompatible with public service).
(5) The use creates no significant additional cost to DOD.
90
When may an agency designee permit their employees to make limited use of federal government equipment or administrative support services?
To prepare papers to be presented at association or society events or to be published in professional journals.
91
Define the term official use as it applies to communications systems and equipment.
Emergency communications and communications the DOD component determines are necessary in theinterest of the federal government.
92
When is an employee’s use of federal government communications system monitored?
Any and all uses are monitored, to include incidental and personal uses, whether authorized orunauthorized.
93
To ensure a successful prosecution of cases involving misuse of government property, what must the government ensure?
That the case is well substantiated and properly charged.
94
What landmark case contains a detailed discussion of the privacy interests involved in commercial e-mail transmissions?
US v. Maxwell (CAAF 1996).
95
List three examples of a primary source of legal literature.
United States Reports, US Court of Military Appeals Reports, Military Justice Reporter, The United States Code, Manual for Courts-Martial, Federal Register, and Code of Federal Regulations.
96
List three examples of a secondary source of legal literature.
Corpus Juris Secundum, American Jurisprudence 2d, Martindale-Hubbell Law Directory, Black’s Law Dictionary, The Reporter.
97
List three examples of finding tools.
West Digests, Encyclopedias, Words and Phrases, Shepard’s Citations, Court Martial Reporter citators and indexes, The Table of Cases, Indexes in the Code, Indexes in the Code Annotated.
98
What method of legal research would you use to find the case US v. Jones?
Case method.
99
Where do you look to begin with the index method of legal research?
In the index of a book under the general subject.
100
What method of legal research uses the table of contents as a reference point?
Topic method.
101
When is the word-and-phrase method used?
When the meaning of a word or phrase is the issue and a court has rendered a decision to define that word or phrase.
102
List the three things you can achieve through the shepardizing process.
Traces the judicial history of a case, verifies the current status of each case, and finds later cases that have cited that case.
103
What is the primary avenue for computerized legal research in the Air Force legal office?
Lexis Advance.
104
What can Lexis Advance computerized legal research be used to find?
Case law, expert witnesses, deadbeat parents, provide background information on companies and issues that affect DOD (e.g. anthrax, recruitment, military pay).
105
How do you search for a document in the red search box of Lexis Advance?
Citation or Party Name.
106
Who is responsible for reviewing administrative separation actions for legal sufficiency?
The office of the Staff Judge Advocate.
107
A discharge legal review will vary depending on what two things?
Type of discharge and under what section a member is being discharged.
108
What seven things should a discharge legal review address?
1) Specific paragraph of AFI 36–3208, Administrative Separation of Airmen he or she is being discharged under, the recommended service characterization (Honorable, General, Under Other Than Honorable Conditions), probation and rehabilitation, and the SJA’s statement of legal sufficiency.
(2) Evidence for the government and derogatory information concerning the respondent.
(3) Evidence for the respondent; service history, medals, and any matters submitted by the Airman. If the mbr did not submit a response, say so in this paragraph.
(4) Any errors and irregularities.
(5) Basis for discharge and the SJA’s concurrence or non-concurrence, whether separation or retention is applicable and why, the characterization of service recommended by the commander and why, and whether probation and rehabilitation is recommended and why.
(6) Separation authority’s options for action on the discharge.
(7) SJA’s recommendation to the convening authority.
109
Which statement concerning The Judge Advocate General’s (TJAG) Corps is accurate?
a. General James C. Cheney was appointed the first TJAG.
b. General Reginald C. Harmon was appointed as the second TJAG.
c. General James C. Cheney established TJAG’s Department, 25 January 1949.
d. The Air Force Chief of Staff established TJAG’s Department, 25 January 1949.
d.The Air Force Chief of Staff established TJAG’s Department, 25 January 1949.
110
Who was the first paralegal Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) appointed to the position ofSpecial Assistant to The Judge Advocate General for Legal Airman Affairs?
a. CMSgt Thomas R. Castleman.
b. CMSgt Steve Swigonski.
c. CMSgt Jerry L. Becker.
d. CMSgt Billy G. Miller.
b.CMSgt Steve Swigonski.
111
The Area Defense Counsel (ADC) program went into effect worldwide on
a. 1 January 1972.
b. 1 March 1973.
c. 1 July 1974.
d. 1 October 1975.
c.1 July 1974.
112
What date was The Judge Advocate General’s (TJAG) Department (Corps) established?
a. 25 August 1948.
b. 15 January 1948.
c. 25 January 1949.
d. 15 August 1949.
c.25 January 1949.
113
What Air Force Instruction (AFI) provides guidance on The Judge Advocate General (TJAG)awards?
a. AFI 36–2803, AF awards.
b. AFI 36–2808, Outstanding Young Judge Advocate.
c. AFI 36–2809, Air Reserve Component Judge Advocate of the Year.
d. AFI 36–2855, Judge Advocate General Awards.
d.AFI 36–2855, Judge Advocate General Awards.
114
Which annual award is presented to the Outstanding Air Reserve Component Paralegal of theYear? a.Albert M. Kuhfeld Award.
b. David Westbrook Award.
c. Steve Swigonski Award.
d. Harold R. Vague Award.
b.David Westbrook Award.
115
All of The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) awards packages must reach the Professional Development Directorate, Office of The Judge Advocate General (AF/JAX) no later than
a. 1 February.
b. 15 February.
c. 1 April.
d. 15 April.
c.1 April.
116
What must the people you supervise do in order to successfully accomplish the mission?
a. Work within time constraints.
b. Understand training schedules.
c. Be able to understand the mission at hand.
d. Produce high-quality work in a timely manner.
d.Produce high-quality work in a timely manner.
117
When supervising personnel, you must set specific goals, then check
a. for accuracy of the work accomplished.
b. to see if they are achieved on schedule.
c. the quality of the work.
d. the quality of service.
b.to see if they are achieved on schedule.
118
After newly assigned personnel have taken care of their immediate personal needs, what isthe next priority?
a. Introduce them to the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
b. Discuss the work center policies and procedures.
c. Introduce them to their new supervisor.
d. Explain base policies and procedures.
b.Discuss the work center policies and procedures.
119
Why is it important to keep your information up-to-date in the Web Federal LegalInformation Through Electronics (WebFLITE) Roster?
a. The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) and major command (MAJCOM) offices use it to preparefor staff assistance visits (SAV).
b. Air Force Legal Operations Agency (AFLOA) uses it to order books for the law library.
c. MAJCOM and Numbered Air Force (NAF) offices use it to prepare for SAVs.
d. Your supervisor uses the information when writing evaluations.
c.MAJCOM and Numbered Air Force (NAF) offices use it to prepare for SAVs.
120
Through what Internet Webpage can individuals gain access to the Web Federal LegalInformation Through Electronics (WebFLITE) Roster?
a. Air Force Legal Operations Agency’s (AFLOA) home page.
b. The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) home page.
c. Air Force Portal home page.
d. Your office’s Webdocs page.
b.The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) home page.
121
What step must you take if you find an incorrect position number in the unit personnel management roster (UPMR) for an attorney?
a. Update the Web Federal Legal Information Through Electronics (WebFLITE) Roster.
b. Ask the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) to submit a request to update the UPMR.
c. Contact the Military Personnel Section (MPS).
d. Notify the attorney.
c.Contact the Military Personnel Section (MPS).
122
If a SSgt Category A Reservist has an accession date of 1 September 2014, the first enlisted performance report (EPR) is due by 1 September of what year?a.2014.
b. 2015.
c. 2016.
d. 2017.
c.2016
123
When a commander directs a special performance report on a Category B Reservist, what requirement is waived?
a. A letter to the panel.
b. Periods of supervision and points.
c. Reservist Performance Review (RPR).
d. Paralegal Enlisted Development Board (PEDB).
b.Periods of supervision and points.
124
In which section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) do you find a list of training objectives to be trained in the formal school?a.Section A, Part I.
b. Section B, Part I.
c. Section A, Part II.
d. Section B, Part II.
d.Section B, Part II.
125
Where would you look to identify the most common enlisted Air Force specialty tasks that require training?a.Job Qualification Standard (JQS).
b. Specialty Training Standard (STS).
c. Career development course (CDC).
d. AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training (OJT) Record-Continuation Sheet.
b.Specialty Training Standard (STS).
126
What form do you use to add required duty section tasks that are not included in the specialty training standard (STS) or an established job qualification standard (JQS)?
a. AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations.
b. AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Continuation Sheet.
c. AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.
d. AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
d.AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.
127
What should be done after developing a master task list (MTL) for a work center?
a. Set training priorities.
b. Plan concurrent knowledge training.
c. Determine training needs within a work center or section.
d. Consider different training strategies for conducting training.
c.Determine training needs within a work center or section.
128
What should be done if a trainee’s progress does not meet required standards?
a. Decertify the trainer on the task.
b. Decertify the trainee on the task and start over.
c. Counsel the trainer and inform him or her of the problem.
d. Counsel the trainee to ensure he/she understands the circumstances and requirements.
d.Counsel the trainee to ensure he/she understands the circumstances and requirements.
129
What is the first component of the Air Force on-the-job training (OJT) program?
a. Upgrade training.
b. Qualification training.
c. Job knowledge training.
d. Career knowledge training.
c.Job knowledge training.
130
Before starting their career development course (CDC), trainees should carefully read the
a. key to a successful course information.
b. questions at the end of each chapter of the CDC.
c. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
d. job qualification standard (JQS) for their Air Force specialty (AFS).
a. key to a successful course information.
131
If several trainees are having trouble with the same job training areas, what training method would be helpful?
a. Group study.
b. Refresher training.
c. Qualification training.
d. Individualized specialty training.
a. Group study.
132
What needs to be considered before you recommend an individual for training?
a. Job requirements.
b. Manpower requirements.
c. Proficiency requirements.
d. Qualification requirements.
a. Job requirements.
133
What must be updated for all books purchased by Air Force Legal Operations Agency Legal Information Services (AFLOA/JAS)?
a. Card catalog.
b. Shelflist cards.
c. Locally developed computer applications.
d. Network Resource Allocation Management System (NetRAMS).
d. Network Resource Allocation Management System (NetRAMS).
134
When is the law library required to be inventoried?
a. Quarterly.
b. Annually in April.
c. Biannually in April and October.
d. Upon change of the Law Library Accountability Officer (LLAO).
b. Annually in April.
135
What is the first thing you should complete if publications are missing during the law library inventory?
a. Replacement of Lost/Missing Law Library Publications(s) Memorandum.
b. DD Form 200, Issue Release/Receipt.
c. A thorough inspection of the office.
d. Report of Survey.
c. A thorough inspection of the office.
136
What is the first step in the process of deactivating a law library account due to the closing of an installation legal office?
a. Installation law office manager notifies Air Force Legal Operations Agency Legal Information Services (AFLOA/JAS) 12 months in advance.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS as soon as possible before closure.
c. Installation LLAO notifies AFLOA/JAS 12 months in advance.
d. Numbered Air Force (NAF) legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS as soon as possible before closure.
b. Major command (MAJCOM) legal office notifies AFLOA/JAS as soon as possible before closure.
137
Who does the Inspections and Standardization Division (AF/JAI) synchronize their inspection dates with?
a. Base legal office.
b. Air Force Inspection Agency.
c. Numbered Air Force legal office.
d. Inspector General’s Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
d. Inspector General’s Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
138
Who is not an authorized person to give the Article 137, Uniform Code of Military Justice Briefing?
a. TSgt Contreras, Military Justice noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).
b. Capt Richardson, a judge advocate and Chief of Legal Assistance.
c. MSgt Winlock, a paralegal and Legal Office Superintendent.
d. Mr. Jack Donovan, Civil Law attorney.
d. Mr. Jack Donovan, Civil Law attorney.
139
What is the first step in the process of providing the Article 137, Uniform Code of Military Justice Briefing? a. Develop the requirements as what is to be included in the briefing.
b. Developed a template reenlistment checklist for the Force Support Squadron.
c. Establish a process of receiving the names of all reenlistees from the military personnel section.
d. Take attendance at the training; to include the number of people trained and time spent in training.
c. Establish a process of receiving the names of all reenlistees from the military personnel section.
140
Who is responsible for the physical and legal custody of all records the office creates or receives, regardless of their physical characteristics?
a. Chief of records.
b. Records custodian.
c. Base records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.
a. Chief of records.
141
How often must a paralegal review The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) Standards of Professional Responsibility?
a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Annually.
d. Biannually.
c.Annually
142
When may a paralegal disclose attorney-client privilege information?
a. With permission from the attorney.
b. With permission from the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA).
c. With permission from The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
d. Never.
d.Never.
143
Where would a professional responsibility violation or misconduct complaint about thechief trial judge (CTJ) be forwarded?
a. The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
b. The Senior Supervising Attorney (SSA).
c. Numbered Air Force (NAF) Staff Judge Advocate.
d. Major command (MAJCOM) Staff Judge Advocate.
a.The Judge Advocate General (TJAG).
144
One of the reasons that Congress enacted the Health Insurance Portability andAccountability Act (HIPAA) is to
a. support the core functions of medical treatment and coverage.
b. improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage.
c. standardize the electronic exchange of medical administrative and financial data.
d. allow the health information of an individual to be freely used for treatment and health care.
b.improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage.
145
A military treatment facility (MTF) must receive a written request to suspend tracking ofinformation requests on a deceased individual within how many days?
a. 15.
b. 30.
c. 45.
d. 60.
b. 30.
146
If an employee is using government property to further the organization’s mission, then that use of government property is considered to be
a. official.
b. unofficial.
c. authorized.
d. nonmission essential.
a.official
147
The first supervisor in the chain of command, who is a commissioned officer or civilianabove general schedule (GS)/general manager (GM)–11, is the individual to seek approval for
a. volunteering for nongovernment sanctioned activities during duty hours.
b. volunteering for government sanctioned activities during duty hours.
c. using government property for limited personal use.
d. using personal property for government use.
c.using government property for limited personal use.
148
If you are researching elements of an offense in the Manual for Courts-Martial, you are using
a. finding tools.
b. a case method.
c. a primary source.
d. a secondary source.
c. a primary source.
149
Primary sources are either mandatory binding or persuasive binding depending on what?
a. Jurisdiction addressed.
b. Code of Federal Regulations.
c. Indexes in the Code Annotated.
d. How the secondary source directly affect the development of law.
a. Jurisdiction addressed.
150
When conducting manual legal research, what is considered to be a secondary source?
a. United States Code.
b. Black’s Law Dictionary.
c. Supreme Court Reporter.
d. Code of Federal Regulations.
b. Black’s Law Dictionary.
151
Which of the following is not a method of manual legal research?
a. Case method.
b. Shepardizing.
c. Index and topic method.
d. Military Justice Reporter method.
d. Military Justice Reporter method.
152
If you are researching a case and need to know how the courts have defined a term for legal purposes, what reference should you use first?
a. Code of Federal Regulations.
b. Words and Phrases publication.
c. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
d. American Jurisprudence 2d publication.
b. Words and Phrases publication.
153
Once you have found the case on point, what is your next step to shepardize?
a. Find the case in the index.
b. Find the case in the topic section.
c. Make sure the case is still good law.
d. Find the case in the table of contents.
c. Make sure the case is still good law.
154
What is your first step in computer assisted legal research (CALR) when searching for a case?
a. Go to the Area Research Library.
b. Access the Federal Cases research section.
c. Access the Military Justice research section.
d. Access Lexis Advance through the Judge Advocate General Corps (JAGC) homepage.
d. Access Lexis Advance through the Judge Advocate General Corps (JAGC) homepage.
155
In what order do cases first appear when conducting computer assisted legal research?
a. Random selection.
b. By date the case was decided.
c. Based on relevance of key word.
d. By date the case was decided.
c.Based on relevance of key word.
156
What condition warrants writing a legal review for an involuntary discharge action?
a. All involuntary discharge actions except entry level discharges must have a legal review.
b. A nonjudicial punishment action is included in the discharge package.
c. An under other than honorable discharge characterization is possible.
d. A general discharge characterization is possible.
a.All involuntary discharge actions except entry level discharges must have a legal review.
