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7 Level CDCs > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Besides the commander, who can also initiate a non-voluntary evaluation? (1-2)

A

the base legal office

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2
Q

When reviewing a non-voluntary patients medical record what should you focus on? (1-3)

A

previous referrals or possible contributory ailments.

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3
Q

What is your primary source of information for a non-voluntary referral? (1-3)

A

command, supervisor, and peers

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4
Q

Social history consists of what 3 areas? (1-3)

A

social
occupational/academic
home environment

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5
Q

True or False.
A client with very little academic capacity or lower educational level will have a difficult time functioning in a group setting.

A

True

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6
Q

Which are of the social history is a good indicator for showing a pattern of stability in your clients life? (1-5)

A

occupational history

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7
Q

Which area of the social history can provide a launching platform for treatment? (1-6)

A

The ability of the client to understand and articulate his or her values and the ability to implement values-based decision-making is an excellent platform for treatment.

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8
Q

What are the 8 areas that make up a client’s history? (1-6)

A 
substance used
frequency
progression
severity/amount used
onset
primary substance
route of administration
effects (blackouts, tremors, tolerance)
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9
Q

What is the most important part of the assessment process? (1-8)

A

MSE

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10
Q

What are the 5 universally recognized types of affect? (1-9)

A 
appropriate
inappropriate
flat
blunted
liable
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11
Q

What is the focus of attention when evaluating perceptual process? (1-11)

A

The ability of your client to interpret physical stimulation from his/her environment into psychological information.

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12
Q

In which area should we pay particular attention to vocabulary proficiency and reasoning? (1-12)

A

intelligence

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13
Q

What are the 3 factors needed to produce a crisis? (1-15)

A

an event
the meaning of the event to the individual and/or family
the nature and extent of the individual’s and/or family’s coping mechanisms

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14
Q

Before a civilian employee can regain driving privileges after being involved in a DWI/DUI incident on base, the employee must do what? (2-2)

A

complete the AF substance awareness seminar

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15
Q

When an active duty member is admitted to a MTF or any civilian hospital; who must be notified? (2-5)

A

the member’s unit commander

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16
Q

What should occur if a client refuses to sign the consent for treatment? (2-5)

A

document on the client’s refusal form

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17
Q

What is the purpose of HIPPA? (2-7)

A

The purpose of the Act is to improve the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage, improve access to long-term care services and coverage, and to simplify the administration of healthcare.

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18
Q

What are some instances when the client’s record can be released without his or her authorization? (2-7)

A

subpoena, court order, or public health requirements as well as national security requirements

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19
Q

What are some exceptions to the written consent rule? (2-9)

A

OSI
Federal or state courts or administrative bodies
government departments
medical research or scientific organization

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20
Q

Which form is universally recognized throughout the federal government as a medical records request between federal agencies? (2-10)

A

DD Form 877

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21
Q

Identifying your program goals and objectives has what effect on the client? (2-13)

A

provides a foundation where the client can begin

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22
Q

The FAP is comprised of what 3 primary areas? (2-13)

A

prevention services
maltreatment intervention
research and evaluation

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23
Q

IAW AFI 40-301, what is the objective of the FAP? (2-14)

A

Collaborating with key community leaders, the IDS and other helping agencies to provide services that enhance the resilience of the AF communities and reduce the incidence of family maltreatment.

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24
Q

Which US President’s Commission on MH helped establish the 1st Mental Health Bill of Rights? (2-15)

A

Carter

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25
Q

Self disclosure with a client should be unilateral. What does this mean? (3-3)

A

The helping relationship should remain unilateral; it should involve on side only

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26
Q

An effective communication technique is to occasionally repeat what is being said. This is known as what? (3-3)

A

reflecting

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27
Q

What basic ethical foundation encompasses the notion that you will make ethical decisions in good faith based upon the good of the client first. (3-4)

A

beneficence

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28
Q

Which basic ethical foundation of trust states you will not intentionally harm the patent through malice or incompetence? (3-4)

A

nonmaleficence

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29
Q

To ensure continuity of care, who will be notified when clients known to be at high risk for lethal or dangerous behavior exist? (3-6)

A

appropriate on call providers and emergency room staff

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30
Q

What are psychiatric advance directives used for? (3-7)

A

To state preferences for, or dislikes of, specific treatments, designate someone to make decisions for them, or make other advance decision about care.

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31
Q

What 3 things does a mental health provider make as written recommendations to a member’s commanding officer? (3-12)

A

proposed treatment
precautions
fitness/suitability for continued service

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32
Q

If your patient is having trouble coming up with strengths what might you suggest? (4-1)

A

friends, hobbies, interests

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33
Q

What is the 1st step in the client’s ownership of the problem? (4-2)

A

identifying the origins of the problems

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34
Q

If your client is having a difficult time prioritizing his/her problems how can you help them? (4-2)

A

organize each problem by the most consequential

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35
Q

How long is the minimum treatment for alcohol abuse? (4-3)

A

6 months for alcohol abuse

12 months for alcohol dependence`

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36
Q

True or False.

The member’s commander must concur with treatment recommendations by the ADAPTPM. (4-4)

A

true

37
Q

How long after consulting with the TT dos the ADAPTPM have to make a treatment decision? (4-4)

A

15 duty days

38
Q

How often do ADAPT personnel brief commanders on patient progress? (4-4)

A

quarterly

39
Q

Managed care is typically reserved for clients diagnosed with which severe conditions? (4-5)

A

physiological or psychological conditions

40
Q

What are the ASAM dimensions that help designate which level of care the client will be matched with? (4-5)

A 
acute intoxication and/or withdrawal
biomedical conditions and complications
emotional/behavioral conditions and complications
readiness to change
relapse/continued use potential
recovery/living environment
41
Q

What does the mnemonic HALT stand for? (4-8)

A

hungry
angry
lonely
tired

42
Q

Which of the determinants of relapse address the issue of feelings and self-medication? (4-9)

A

affective

43
Q

What are the degree of difficulty factors facing clients when they create a relapse prevention plan? (4-9)

A

the severity and length of his or her substance use
the client perception of the problem
the client’s motivation to remedy or change
the client’s current support system
the extent the substance has affected each aspect of the clients life

44
Q

What is an outcome statement of what the client will ultimately attain through treatment that is important to the client? (4-12)

A

goal

45
Q

Define objectives. (4-12)

A

a short-term step the client will take toward attaining the long-term treatment goal that can be realistically achieved within a period of time.

46
Q

What are the 6 reasons to terminate a therapeutic relationship? (4-16)

A 
symptom relief
improved social functioning
greater sense of identity
more adaptive defenses
accomplishment of goals
impasse in therapy
47
Q

What became the catalyst of hospital participation in the Joint Commission in the 1960s? (7-2)

A

Congress passed the Medicare Act with a provision that hospitals accredited by the Joint Commission

48
Q

Define the Joint Commission’s definition of standard. (7-3)

A

a statement of expectation concerning a degree or level of requirement, excellence, or attainment in quality of performance.

49
Q

What is provided prior to the Joint Commission’s Visit that will tailor the commission’s accreditation visit? (7-3)

A

a generic agenda

50
Q

What does the HIS inspection team do? (7-5)

A

The HIS ensures compliance with laws, directives, and standards of practice by examining processes and outcomes.

51
Q

What is the basic tenet for the HIS scoring process? (7-7)

A

is based on the unit goal of meeting mission requirements

52
Q

What is the difference between the denotative and connotative meaning to a word? (7-14)

A

denotative refers to the dictionary definition; connotative meaning refers to the meaning of the word in a given context or by common use

53
Q

How does the entire FY budget process begin each year? (7-19)

A

a budget call

54
Q

What is the next step after you have compiled all of your budget data? (7-21)

A

reference sources

55
Q

What are the 4 specific areas in the therapeutic relationship between you and the counselee?

A

behavior; Personal barriers; ability to cope with adversity, both personal and environmental; clear and informed decision-making knowledge and skill

56
Q

What does clarifying behavior attempt to accomplish? (5-1)

A

clarifies which behavior is detrimental, aberrant, and counterproductive and which is inconsequential

57
Q

During which stage of the counseling process should the counselor be seeking clarification of the client’s primary concerns? (5-2)

A

initial disclosure

58
Q

During this stage of the counseling process, the counselor begins formulating diagnostic options? (5-3)

A

in-depth exploration

59
Q

Which therapeutic approach uses the mnemonic ABC to have clients look at thoughts and feelings? (5-12)

A

RET/REBT uses an ABC approach to have people look at themselves

60
Q

What is the clinicians job in RET/REBT?

A

D- dispute the irrational belief; E- explore alternate beliefs; F- formulate a new rational belief system

61
Q

Which therapy was originally referred to as communication therapy? (5-7)

A

strategic family therapy

62
Q

What is the purpose of psychotherapeutic groups? (5-12)

A

Psychotherapeutic groups seek to assimilate clients who are experiencing issues currently which would improve by interacting with others.

63
Q

What is the maximum number of group members before co-facilitator should be employed? (5-12)

A

one facilitator can effectively manage a group of 8 to 10.

64
Q

In what educational group setting would a closed membership not be beneficial? (5-13)

A

substance abuse and medical problem groups

65
Q

What purpose would a verbal attack by a group member on the facilitator serve? (5-13)

A

challenge to the validity of you and the group as a whole

66
Q

What behavior might a schizoid client demonstrate during group? (5-15)

A

The client may appear aloof, matter-of-fact, isolated, or distant during group

67
Q

in what educational group setting would a closed membership not be beneficial? (5-13)

A

Is commenting on the nonverbal cues throughout the group.

68
Q

In a counseling relationship which area would not be addressed?

A

occupational barriers

69
Q

During which stage of counseling does a client often begin setting goals?

A

commitment to action

70
Q

Which psycho-therapeutic approach states our belief help dictate our emotional consequences to events that occur around us?

A

Rational Emotive Therapy/ Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy

71
Q

During which stage of Behavior Therapy does the counselor walk the client through the least anxiety provoking events to increasingly greater levels of anxiety?

A

desensitization proper

72
Q

Which group member is an easy target for an aggressive narcissist in the group?

A

the schizoid, obsessional, or overly rational client

73
Q

What does case management entail? (6-1)

A

seeks to identify and coordinate all community multidisciplinary activities.

74
Q

What was the creation of the CAIB intended to provide? (6-4)

A

The CAIB was created to identify, resolve, or elevate those installation or community issues that impact readiness or affect quality of the life for AF members and their families.

75
Q

What is the purpose of the IDS? (6-4)

A

The IDS seeks implementation of recommendations from the CAIB. The IDS also provides recommendations and solutions for problems to the CAIB.

76
Q

Who ensures the written case has satisfied all of the criteria prior to submission? (6-5)

A

the applicant’s supervisor/trainer

77
Q

What are the steps to completing the substance abuse counselor certification process? (6-5)

A

prepare a written case presentation; written exam; oral case presentation board

78
Q

What is the next step after your written case presentation has been approved locally? (6-6)

A

make 4 copies of the presentation and the application. One copy is for you the other 3 are sent to MAJCOM representative.

79
Q

What happens after you have completed your oral case presentation? (6-11)

A

each evaluator will individually rate, without discussion, the applicant’s responses based on how well his or her answers covers the global criteria of that particular core function.

80
Q

With the exception of what core functions can CADAC’s work independent of supervision as judged by the ADAPTPM? (6-11)

A

With exception of the initial assessment, development or changing of a treatment plan, and crisis intervention.

81
Q

Who must observe that the CADAC provides individual or group counseling at least 2 hours monthly? (6-11)

A

ADAPTPM

82
Q 
All of the following are activities that form the core components of case management except..
occupational support
crisis response services
spiritual/religious support
substance abuse treatment
A

occupational support

83
Q

Which group is considered the “working arm” of the CAIB?

A

Integrated Delivery System (IDS)

84
Q

When attending the oral case presentation, what happens after you enter the interview room?

A

the structured oral interview is conducted

85
Q

How soon before an inspection does Joint Commission send a survey planning questionnaire to your facility?

A

four months

86
Q

The basic tenet for HSI scoring is based on? (7-7)

A

meeting mission requirements

87
Q

Who prepares the budget for the entire MTF?

A

resource management office

88
Q

What is the first step in creating a projected budget? (7-20)

A

collect data

7 Level CDCs (2 decks)

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