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7 Level CDCs > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

____ is relating to a religious, racial, national, or cultural group? (1-1)

A

ethnicity

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2
Q

___ is a local geographic or global human population distinguished as a more or less distinct group by genetically transmitted physical characteristics. (1-1)

A

race

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3
Q

___ the totality of socially transmitted behavior patterns, art, beliefs, institutions, and all other products of human work and thought typical of a population or community at a given. (1-)

A

culture

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4
Q

How does stereotyping affect the counseling relationship? (1-2)

A

It affects the degree to which the counselor and patient are able to engage in open, honest, and mutually respectful dialogue.

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5
Q

What is prejudice? (1-2)

A

Prejudice essentially means to prejudge something. We tend to make assessments about a situation or people based on past experience, a learned stereotype or what we’ve seen in the media.

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6
Q

What must society change in order to overcome the influence of racism? (1-2)

A

Attitudes

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7
Q

What are some effects of discrimination? (1-3)

A

Discrimination deprives someone of something. It may deprive him or her of an opportunity, equal access to services, or certain rights.

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8
Q

In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur? (1-4)

A

personal

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9
Q

In which personal space do formal interactions occur? (1-4)

A

public

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10
Q

Which culture group is less likely to seek health care, but instead will turn to the large extended family for help. (1-6)

A

Blacks

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11
Q 
Old age has been broke down into what four categories? (1-9)
65-75
75-85
85-100
100+
A

Young old
Old
Old-old
Elite old

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12
Q

True or False. MHP frequently over-diagnose the elderly. (1-9)`

A

False. MHP frequently under-diagnose the elderly. The elderly are perceived too old to be capable of change.

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13
Q

Which aging theory states that aging is a process by which society and the aging individual gradually withdrawal from each other? (1-10)

A

Disengagement Theory of Aging

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14
Q

Which aging theory asserts that the older person should continue to engage in the same activities as he or she did during middle age. (1-10)

A

Activity Theory of Aging

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15
Q

What aging theory states that the behavior and personality of a person during his or her younger years prevails as the person becomes older. (1-10)

A

Continuity Theory of Aging

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16
Q

According to which theory, older adults, as a group, qualify as a subculture? (1-10)

A

Subculture Theory of Aging

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17
Q

How is alcoholism detected in older patients? (1-12)

A

The elderly are not routinely screened for substance abuse in general and are not usually identified until the abuse has affected their health.

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18
Q

Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications? (1-13)

A

Generation Xers

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19
Q

Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the perpetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model? (1-15)

A

Lack of comprehensive services offered to men who are victims of domestic violence.

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20
Q

What 3 factors are evaluated to distinguish between substance abuse and substance dependence? (2-2)

A

Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use are all characteristics of substance dependence.

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21
Q

What determines the nature of the withdrawal syndrome? (2-2)

A

The type of substance used determines the nature of the withdrawal syndrome.

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22
Q

Part of the drug combination in a speed ball (2-3)

A

Cocaine

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23
Q

Which drugs effects are highly unpredictable? (2-4)

A

PCP

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24
Q

What is anhedonia? (2-6)

A

Anhedonia describes the most severe form of the complete loss of interest or pleasure.

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25
Q

What is an endogenous depression? (2-8)

A

Depressive symptoms seem to appear in the absence of any identifiable stressor.

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26
Q

What is an exogenous depression? (2-8)

A

A specific event that seems to be causing the depressive symptoms.

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27
Q

How is a situational bound panic attack described? (2-10)

A

These attack occur in response to a particular situation or trigger.

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28
Q

How is a situational predisposed attack described? (2-10)

A

Situationally predisposed attacks are very similar to situationally bound attacks. However, the difference is the attacks can occur at any time and in any place.

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29
Q

What are the key features of agoraphobia? (2-10)

A

There are 2 key features of agoraphobia.
1st, there is intense fear about being in situations where escape might be difficult.
2nd, there is the avoidance of situations where there is risk of being alone or being in a crowded area.

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30
Q

What is the period of time for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder? (2-14)

A

This disorder generally develops within 3 months of the onset of an identifiable stressor and remits within 6 months. The exception to the time requirement is in the event the stressor itself persisted for longer than 6 months

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31
Q

What are personality traits? (2-15)

A

Personality traits determine how we perceive the world as a whole and our understanding of our role in our world, and shape our perceptions of our relationship to other people.

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32
Q

How are patients within the Cluster A personality disorders described and what are they? (2-15)

A

odd or eccentric are in this cluster.

Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal Personality Disorder

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33
Q

How are patients within the Cluster B personality disorders described? (2-16)

A

Antisocial, Borderline, Histrionic, and Narcissistic Personality Disorders are all cluster B.
These disorders are similar in that people in that people in this cluster generally have a difficult time managing emotions appropriately.

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34
Q

How are patients within Cluster C personality disorders described? (2-16)

A

Individuals with disorders from this cluster typically suffer from a higher degree of anxiety and generalized fear.
Avoidant, Dependent, and Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

35
Q

What personality disorder has a limited range of emotional display? (2-16)

A

Schizoid Personality Disorder

36
Q

How are coexisting conditions defined? (2-18)

A

We’ll define coexisting conditions as conditions related to substance abuse that can be medical conditions, legals issues, or social issues.

37
Q

Which medical condition is present in 10-20% of heavy drinkers and is also known as “scarring of the liver”? (2-18)

A

cirrhosis

38
Q

A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last 3 weeks. Which symptom of mania this behavior evidence of? (2-9)

A

Indiscretion

39
Q 
Which is an essential feature of PTSD? (2-11)
Tearfulness
Dissociation
Hallucination
Sleeplessness
A

Dissociation

40
Q

What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD? (2-11)

A

Acute intervention

41
Q

What is the time frame of binge behavior? (2-13)

A

less than 2 hours

42
Q

What does it mean to the counseling relationship for a counselor to be a good observer? (3-2)

A

Being a good observer primarily means the counselor is able to take in the totality of the situation and ready many different things simultaneously.

43
Q

What term describes the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient? (3-3)

A

Rapport is defined is defined as the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patients.

44
Q

What is the benefit to using open-ended questions? (3-4)

A

Using open-ended questions conveys to the patient that he or she is in an environment where it is safe to speak.

45
Q

What is an advantage of using a reflective statement? (3-5)

A

They help the patient understand how s/he is feeling. Another advantage is the statement help the interviewer by leading him or her into opportunities to clarify.

46
Q

What are the 3 main benefits to using silence in the interview process? (3-7)

A
  1. silence encourages the patient to continue talking.
  2. give the patient a moment to regain his or her composure.
  3. give the interviewer a moment to reflect before responding to a patient.
47
Q

How is motivational interviewing defined? (3-7)

A

a client-centered, directive method for enhancing intrinsic motivation to change by exploring and resolving ambivalence.

48
Q

What is the purpose of evocation? (3-8)

A

seeks to understand the underlying beliefs, values, or perceptions that influence the behavior of the patient.

49
Q

How is resistance handled in the motivational interviewing model? (3-8)

A

If resistance arises from the patient, it is a signal the counselor should try interacting differently with the patient.

50
Q

What are the 6 dimensions of ASAM? (3-12)

A
  1. acute intoxication and/or withdrawal
  2. biomedical conditions and complications
  3. emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions
  4. readiness to change
  5. relapse
  6. recovery/living enviroment
51
Q

A common mistake in the assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess what?

A

the need for detoxification

52
Q

What is preventative approach that helps individuals and units prepare for potentially traumatic events? (3-14)

A

Pre-Exposure Preparation (PEP0

53
Q

Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty AF installation with a MTF? (3-15)

A

installation commander

54
Q

How often do TSR teams meet to train? (3-16)

A

quarterly

55
Q

Following a potentially traumatic event, individual can seek up to how many 1 on 1 meetings with any member of the TSR. (3-17)

A

4

56
Q

What does the mnemonic HALT mean? (3-18)

A

Hungry
Angry
Lonely
Tired

57
Q

Conducting a group informational briefing is one way of helping large groups of individuals deal with traumatic feelings after what types of events? (3-20(

A

violence, mass casualty, terrorist attack, or suicide/murder

58
Q

Identify the phases of a group informational briefing. (3-20)

A

Phase 1- Common cause phase
Phase 2- Fact revelation phase
Phase 3- Sense of normalcy phase
Phase 4- self aid and buddy care

59
Q

Define addiction. (4-1)

A

compulsive need for and use of a habit-forming substance characterized by tolerance and by well-defined physiological symptoms of withdrawal.

60
Q

What is fundamental tenet of the disease model”? (4-1)

A

that alcohol and drug dependence are physical illnesses.

61
Q

What are the 4 core identifiers of the disease mode? (4-1)

A

Primary
Progressive
Chronic
Fatal

62
Q

What are the 4 stages of progressive symptoms according to the “Jellinek Chart”? (4-2)

A 
symptomatic phase
prodromal phase (early phase)
crucial phase (middle stage)
chronic stage (late stage)
63
Q

During which progressive stage of alcoholism are blackouts most common? (4-3)

A

prodromal phase (early stage)

64
Q

Which progressive stage of alcoholism is typically the easiest to treat? (4-3)

A

crucial phase (middle stage)

65
Q

What phase is dominated by the involuntary loss of control over drinking? (4-3)

A

crucial phase (middle stage)

66
Q

Which progressive stage of alcoholism results in severe irreversible physical malady and/or death? (4-3)

A

Chronic Phase (Late stage)

67
Q

To measure success in a particular program what aspect must you first consider? (4-3)

A

Knowing your client population and the characteristics of your community will be an important aspect of measuring success in a particular program.

68
Q

What are considered treatment obstacles in the disease model? (4-4)

A

Cumbersome processes/resources, lack of support from family/supervisor, or lack of multidisciplinary team members or investment

69
Q

What are the essential features of the biopsychosocial model of addiction? (4-5)

A

biological
psychological
sociocultural

70
Q

Under which feature of the biopsychosocial model should you identity the catalyst internally that facilitated a client’s first drug use? (4-6)

A

psychological

71
Q

What is the primary component of glue and plastic cement and how is it alluring to users? (5-1)

A

Toluene

72
Q

Glue-sniffing has resulted in sudden deaths of its users due to what physiological event? (5-1)

A

Arrhythmia or respiratory failure

73
Q

What is referred to as “poor man’s cocaine”? (5-2)

A

amphetamines

74
Q

What legal medical purpose are amphetamines used to treat? (5-2)

A

obesity, ADHD, and narcolepsy.

75
Q

What is the most prescribed of all medications? (5-4)

A

opiods

76
Q

What is the term used when the vapors from the crack inhaled? (5-6)

A

Freebasing the term used when the vapors from the crack inhaled.

77
Q

What 3 types of liver disease are caused by chronic alcohol use? (5-8)

A

fatty liver disease
alcoholic hepatitis
cirrhosis

78
Q

What effect does chronic alcohol consumption have on the lungs? (5-9)

A

Alcohol causes an increase in the fluid accumulation in the lungs and can lead to chronic lung infections.

79
Q

Why is MDMA often promoted as the “love drug”. (5-10)

A

it reduces inhibitions, eliminates anxiety, and creates intense tactile stimulation.

80
Q

What are the different roles that make up a chemically dependent family? (5-12)

A 
hero
caretaker
scapegoat
joker/mascot
lost child
81
Q

What are the 2 core beliefs do alcoholics repeat to their chemically dependent families? (5-13)

A

I am not an alcoholic

I am can control my drinking

82
Q

What 2 core beliefs do chemically dependent families believe in? (5-13)

A

There is no alcoholic in the family

We shouldn’t talk about drinking

83
Q

What 4 destructive traits are common in chemically dependent families? (5-14)

A

denial
guilt
fear of anger
poor relationships

7 Level CDCs (2 decks)

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