Volume 2 Flashcards
If the client is self-referred, what historical resources should be used sparingly and only if the client is unable to provide historical data?
Family.
Aside from the commander, who else can make a nonvoluntary referral to the mental health clinic?
Base legal.
What is considered a major developmental milestone when exploring the client’s social history?
Meaningful relationships.
Which area of the social history is a good indicator for showing a pattern of stability in your client’s life?
Occupational history.
When building the client’s substance use history, in what area will you identify and detail a chronology of your client’s substance use from childhood to present?
Substances used.
What is the most important part of the assessment process?
Mental status examination.
It is important that you document your observations
objectively.
In what area of the MSE would you note any unusual or bizarre gestures the client demonstrates?
Behavior.
What is referred to as the internal emotional tone?
Mood.
In what area of the MSE do we note that a client knows the date and the situation of the moment?
Orientation.
A client’s ability to recall events in the last few minutes or past week is an example of
recent memory.
In which area should we pay particular attention to vocabulary proficiency and reasoning powers?
Intelligence.
Active duty service members are categorized under which TRICARE priority?
1.
The type of care provided to an active duty service member, by a civilian medical facility, due to lack of availability at the MTF is called
supplemental.
Before a civilian employee can regain driving privileges after being involved in a DWI/DUI incident on base, the employee must
complete the Air Force substance awareness seminar.
What is the proper course of action if your facility cannot support your clients diagnostic needs?
Find resources to accommodate your client.
Where would you create a manifest of any items of value or items not permitted on the inpatient unit?
Detailed valuables receipt.
Who is the primary stakeholder in treatment outcomes?
Client.
All medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by the
Privacy Act of 1974.
How is the MHS Notice of Privacy Practices documented?
HIPPA acknowledgement label.
Which of the following requires written consent to obtain information from a client’s record?
ADC.
Which form of is universally recognized throughout the federal government as a medical records request between federal agencies?
DD Form 877.
When should a client’s medical records be sequestered?
The client has initiated a Congressional Inquiry.
Identifying your program goals and objectives has what effect on the client?
Provides a foundation where the client can begin.
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 40-301, The Family Advocacy Program, lists all of the following as primary areas except
special needs and assignment coordination.
The mental health clinic’s goal usually coincides with the goals and mission statement of the
MTF.
Which US President’s Commission on Mental Health helped establish the first Mental Health Bill of Rights?
Carter.
Who must have a vested interest in treatment outcomes if the treatment is to be successful?
Client.
An effective communication technique is to occasionally repeat what is being said. This is known as
reflecting.
Which basic ethical foundation of trust states you will not intentionally harm the patient through malice or incompetence?
Nonmaleficence.
Which type of liability involves a personal lawsuit and money damages?
Civil tort liability.
To ensure continuity of care, who will be notified when clients known to be at high risk for lethal or dangerous behavior exist?
Appropriate on-call providers and emergency room staff only.
Which situation does not require a provider contact the commander of a client?
Member reports suicidal ideation.
The first step a commander must take before directing a member to a CDE Mental Health Evaluation is to consult with
a mental health provider.
Which is not appropriate to warrant a voluntary hospital admission?
The patient’s commander deems it necessary for the needs of the military.
What three things does a mental health provider make as written recommendations to a member’s commanding officer?
Proposed treatment, precautions, and fitness/suitability for continued service.
The next step in the treatment planning process after identifying strengths is to identify
weaknesses.
What is the minimum number allowed for the list of strengths in treatment planning?
3.
The first step in client ownership of a problem is
helping clients identify the origin.
If the client cannot prioritize his or her problems, how should you ask him or her to organize them?
Consequentially.
When a member is diagnosed with alcohol abuse, who formulates a recommendation to present to the TT regarding a disposition of the member?
Mental health technician.
How long does the ADAPTPM have, after consulting with the TT, to make a treatment decision?
15 duty days.
How many assessment dimensions are evaluated prior to recommending a client’s level of care?
6.
Which is not an assessment dimension of the American Society of Addiction Medicine?
Ambulatory detoxification.
Which of the determinants of relapse address the issue of feelings and self-medicating?
Affective.
A relapse prevention plan is also known as a
survival plan.
The degree of difficulty it will require for a client to create a plan is based on all of the following factors except the
client’s past support system.
What is an outcome statement of what the client will ultimately attain through treatment that is important to the client?
Goal.
Objectives towards achieving a client’s goals are also known as
milestones.
What types of goals are unacceptable?
Inconsequential.
What is essential in defining success in achieving a goal?
Clarity.
Goals should be all of the following except
positive.
The final phase of treatment often creates what type of feelings for the client?
Loss.
What helps to clarify client’s expectations following the termination of treatment?
Clear boundaries.
In a counseling relationship which area would not be addressed?
Occupational barriers.
What is paramount for a client to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?
Sound insight.
During which stage of counseling does a client often begin setting goals?
Commitment to action.
Which psychotherapeutic approach focuses on psychological disturbances which frequently originate from habitual errors in thinking?
Cognitive Therapy.
Which psychotherapeutic approach states our beliefs help dictate our emotional consequences to events that occur around us?
Rational Emotive Therapy/Ration Emotive Behavior Therapy.
During which stage of Behavior Therapy does the counselor walk the client through the least anxiety provoking events to increasingly greater levels of anxiety?
Desensitization proper.
Which psychotherapeutic approach is best known for its non-directive, empathic approach?
Client-Centered Therapy.
Which would not fit the educational group mold?
Depression.
In order for group rules to be clear to all group members, the rules should be
written down.
At what point during the entire group process should the counselor discuss the termination of the group?
Midway through the group sessions.
When absenteeism by a group member occurs, who is preferably the person or persons to confront the offender?
Group members.
In which group is adding a new group member a rarity?
Educational.
Which group member is an easy target for an aggressive narcissist in the group?
The schizoid, obsessional, or overly rational client.
All of the following are activities that form the core components of case management except
occupational support.
Which group is considered the “working arm” of the CAIB?
Integrated Delivery System.
Which area will you write about after you have written your assessment in Part II Typed Narrative of the written case presentation?
Treatment plan.
When attending the oral case presentation, what happens after you enter the interview rooms?
The structured oral interview is conducted.
According to AFI 44-119, what task can a CADAC do “independently of supervision” from an ADAPTPM?
The 12 core functions.
What is the Joint Commission requirement that requires a physician to conduct face-to-face evaluation of a patient placed in restraints?
One-hour rule.
How soon before an inspection does Joint Commission send a survey planning questionnaire to your facility?
Four months.
