Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDC 7lvl > Volume 2 > Flashcards

Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

If the client is self-referred, what historical resources should be used sparingly and only if the client is unable to provide historical data?

A

Family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aside from the commander, who else can make a nonvoluntary referral to the mental health clinic?

A

Base legal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered a major developmental milestone when exploring the client’s social history?

A

Meaningful relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which area of the social history is a good indicator for showing a pattern of stability in your client’s life?

A

Occupational history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When building the client’s substance use history, in what area will you identify and detail a chronology of your client’s substance use from childhood to present?

A

Substances used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most important part of the assessment process?

A

Mental status examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

It is important that you document your observations

A

objectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what area of the MSE would you note any unusual or bizarre gestures the client demonstrates?

A

Behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is referred to as the internal emotional tone?

A

Mood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In what area of the MSE do we note that a client knows the date and the situation of the moment?

A

Orientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A client’s ability to recall events in the last few minutes or past week is an example of

A

recent memory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In which area should we pay particular attention to vocabulary proficiency and reasoning powers?

A

Intelligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Active duty service members are categorized under which TRICARE priority?

A

1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The type of care provided to an active duty service member, by a civilian medical facility, due to lack of availability at the MTF is called

A

supplemental.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Before a civilian employee can regain driving privileges after being involved in a DWI/DUI incident on base, the employee must

A

complete the Air Force substance awareness seminar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the proper course of action if your facility cannot support your clients diagnostic needs?

A

Find resources to accommodate your client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where would you create a manifest of any items of value or items not permitted on the inpatient unit?

A

Detailed valuables receipt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is the primary stakeholder in treatment outcomes?

A

Client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by the

A

Privacy Act of 1974.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is the MHS Notice of Privacy Practices documented?

A

HIPPA acknowledgement label.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following requires written consent to obtain information from a client’s record?

A

ADC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which form of is universally recognized throughout the federal government as a medical records request between federal agencies?

A

DD Form 877.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When should a client’s medical records be sequestered?

A

The client has initiated a Congressional Inquiry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Identifying your program goals and objectives has what effect on the client?

A

Provides a foundation where the client can begin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 40-301, The Family Advocacy Program, lists all of the following as primary areas except

A

special needs and assignment coordination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The mental health clinic’s goal usually coincides with the goals and mission statement of the

A

MTF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which US President’s Commission on Mental Health helped establish the first Mental Health Bill of Rights?

A

Carter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who must have a vested interest in treatment outcomes if the treatment is to be successful?

A

Client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

An effective communication technique is to occasionally repeat what is being said. This is known as

A

reflecting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which basic ethical foundation of trust states you will not intentionally harm the patient through malice or incompetence?

A

Nonmaleficence.

31
Q

Which type of liability involves a personal lawsuit and money damages?

A

Civil tort liability.

32
Q

To ensure continuity of care, who will be notified when clients known to be at high risk for lethal or dangerous behavior exist?

A

Appropriate on-call providers and emergency room staff only.

33
Q

Which situation does not require a provider contact the commander of a client?

A

Member reports suicidal ideation.

34
Q

The first step a commander must take before directing a member to a CDE Mental Health Evaluation is to consult with

A

a mental health provider.

35
Q

Which is not appropriate to warrant a voluntary hospital admission?

A

The patient’s commander deems it necessary for the needs of the military.

36
Q

What three things does a mental health provider make as written recommendations to a member’s commanding officer?

A

Proposed treatment, precautions, and fitness/suitability for continued service.

37
Q

The next step in the treatment planning process after identifying strengths is to identify

A

weaknesses.

38
Q

What is the minimum number allowed for the list of strengths in treatment planning?

A

3.

39
Q

The first step in client ownership of a problem is

A

helping clients identify the origin.

40
Q

If the client cannot prioritize his or her problems, how should you ask him or her to organize them?

A

Consequentially.

41
Q

When a member is diagnosed with alcohol abuse, who formulates a recommendation to present to the TT regarding a disposition of the member?

A

Mental health technician.

42
Q

How long does the ADAPTPM have, after consulting with the TT, to make a treatment decision?

A

15 duty days.

43
Q

How many assessment dimensions are evaluated prior to recommending a client’s level of care?

A

6.

44
Q

Which is not an assessment dimension of the American Society of Addiction Medicine?

A

Ambulatory detoxification.

45
Q

Which of the determinants of relapse address the issue of feelings and self-medicating?

A

Affective.

46
Q

A relapse prevention plan is also known as a

A

survival plan.

47
Q

The degree of difficulty it will require for a client to create a plan is based on all of the following factors except the

A

client’s past support system.

48
Q

What is an outcome statement of what the client will ultimately attain through treatment that is important to the client?

A

Goal.

49
Q

Objectives towards achieving a client’s goals are also known as

A

milestones.

50
Q

What types of goals are unacceptable?

A

Inconsequential.

51
Q

What is essential in defining success in achieving a goal?

A

Clarity.

52
Q

Goals should be all of the following except

A

positive.

53
Q

The final phase of treatment often creates what type of feelings for the client?

A

Loss.

54
Q

What helps to clarify client’s expectations following the termination of treatment?

A

Clear boundaries.

55
Q

In a counseling relationship which area would not be addressed?

A

Occupational barriers.

56
Q

What is paramount for a client to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?

A

Sound insight.

57
Q

During which stage of counseling does a client often begin setting goals?

A

Commitment to action.

58
Q

Which psychotherapeutic approach focuses on psychological disturbances which frequently originate from habitual errors in thinking?

A

Cognitive Therapy.

59
Q

Which psychotherapeutic approach states our beliefs help dictate our emotional consequences to events that occur around us?

A

Rational Emotive Therapy/Ration Emotive Behavior Therapy.

60
Q

During which stage of Behavior Therapy does the counselor walk the client through the least anxiety provoking events to increasingly greater levels of anxiety?

A

Desensitization proper.

61
Q

Which psychotherapeutic approach is best known for its non-directive, empathic approach?

A

Client-Centered Therapy.

62
Q

Which would not fit the educational group mold?

A

Depression.

63
Q

In order for group rules to be clear to all group members, the rules should be

A

written down.

64
Q

At what point during the entire group process should the counselor discuss the termination of the group?

A

Midway through the group sessions.

65
Q

When absenteeism by a group member occurs, who is preferably the person or persons to confront the offender?

A

Group members.

66
Q

In which group is adding a new group member a rarity?

A

Educational.

67
Q

Which group member is an easy target for an aggressive narcissist in the group?

A

The schizoid, obsessional, or overly rational client.

68
Q

All of the following are activities that form the core components of case management except

A

occupational support.

69
Q

Which group is considered the “working arm” of the CAIB?

A

Integrated Delivery System.

70
Q

Which area will you write about after you have written your assessment in Part II Typed Narrative of the written case presentation?

A

Treatment plan.

71
Q

When attending the oral case presentation, what happens after you enter the interview rooms?

A

The structured oral interview is conducted.

72
Q

According to AFI 44-119, what task can a CADAC do “independently of supervision” from an ADAPTPM?

A

The 12 core functions.

73
Q

What is the Joint Commission requirement that requires a physician to conduct face-to-face evaluation of a patient placed in restraints?

A

One-hour rule.

74
Q

How soon before an inspection does Joint Commission send a survey planning questionnaire to your facility?

A

Four months.

CDC 7lvl (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions