Volume 2

Question 1

If the client is self-referred, what historical resources should be used sparingly and only if the client is unable to provide historical data?

Answer 1

Family.

Question 2

Aside from the commander, who else can make a nonvoluntary referral to the mental health clinic?

Answer 2

Base legal.

Question 3

What is considered a major developmental milestone when exploring the client’s social history?

Answer 3

Meaningful relationships.

Question 4

Which area of the social history is a good indicator for showing a pattern of stability in your client’s life?

Answer 4

Occupational history.

Question 5

When building the client’s substance use history, in what area will you identify and detail a chronology of your client’s substance use from childhood to present?

Answer 5

Substances used.

Question 6

What is the most important part of the assessment process?

Answer 6

Mental status examination.

Question 7

It is important that you document your observations

Answer 7

objectively.

Question 8

In what area of the MSE would you note any unusual or bizarre gestures the client demonstrates?

Answer 8

Behavior.

Question 9

What is referred to as the internal emotional tone?

Answer 9

Mood.

Question 10

In what area of the MSE do we note that a client knows the date and the situation of the moment?

Answer 10

Orientation.

Question 11

A client’s ability to recall events in the last few minutes or past week is an example of

Answer 11

recent memory.

Question 12

In which area should we pay particular attention to vocabulary proficiency and reasoning powers?

Answer 12

Intelligence.

Question 13

Active duty service members are categorized under which TRICARE priority?

Answer 13

1.

Question 14

The type of care provided to an active duty service member, by a civilian medical facility, due to lack of availability at the MTF is called

Answer 14

supplemental.

Question 15

Before a civilian employee can regain driving privileges after being involved in a DWI/DUI incident on base, the employee must

Answer 15

complete the Air Force substance awareness seminar.

Question 16

What is the proper course of action if your facility cannot support your clients diagnostic needs?

Answer 16

Find resources to accommodate your client.

Question 17

Where would you create a manifest of any items of value or items not permitted on the inpatient unit?

Answer 17

Detailed valuables receipt.

Question 18

Who is the primary stakeholder in treatment outcomes?

Answer 18

Client.

Question 19

All medical records are maintained within a system of records protected by the

Answer 19

Privacy Act of 1974.

Question 20

How is the MHS Notice of Privacy Practices documented?

Answer 20

HIPPA acknowledgement label.

Question 21

Which of the following requires written consent to obtain information from a client’s record?

Answer 21

ADC.

Question 22

Which form of is universally recognized throughout the federal government as a medical records request between federal agencies?

Answer 22

DD Form 877.

Question 23

When should a client’s medical records be sequestered?

Answer 23

The client has initiated a Congressional Inquiry.

Question 24

Identifying your program goals and objectives has what effect on the client?

Answer 24

Provides a foundation where the client can begin.

Question 25

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 40-301, The Family Advocacy Program, lists all of the following as primary areas except

Answer 25

special needs and assignment coordination.

Question 26

The mental health clinic's goal usually coincides with the goals and mission statement of the

Answer 26

MTF.

Question 27

Which US President's Commission on Mental Health helped establish the first Mental Health Bill of Rights?

Answer 27

Carter.

Question 28

Who must have a vested interest in treatment outcomes if the treatment is to be successful?

Answer 28

Client.

Question 29

An effective communication technique is to occasionally repeat what is being said. This is known as

Answer 29

reflecting.

Question 30

Which basic ethical foundation of trust states you will not intentionally harm the patient through malice or incompetence?

Answer 30

Nonmaleficence.

Question 31

Which type of liability involves a personal lawsuit and money damages?

Answer 31

Civil tort liability.

Question 32

To ensure continuity of care, who will be notified when clients known to be at high risk for lethal or dangerous behavior exist?

Answer 32

Appropriate on-call providers and emergency room staff only.

Question 33

Which situation does not require a provider contact the commander of a client?

Answer 33

Member reports suicidal ideation.

Question 34

The first step a commander must take before directing a member to a CDE Mental Health Evaluation is to consult with

Answer 34

a mental health provider.

Question 35

Which is not appropriate to warrant a voluntary hospital admission?

Answer 35

The patient's commander deems it necessary for the needs of the military.

Question 36

What three things does a mental health provider make as written recommendations to a member's commanding officer?

Answer 36

Proposed treatment, precautions, and fitness/suitability for continued service.

Question 37

The next step in the treatment planning process after identifying strengths is to identify

Answer 37

weaknesses.

Question 38

What is the minimum number allowed for the list of strengths in treatment planning?

Answer 38

3.

Question 39

The first step in client ownership of a problem is

Answer 39

helping clients identify the origin.

Question 40

If the client cannot prioritize his or her problems, how should you ask him or her to organize them?

Answer 40

Consequentially.

Question 41

When a member is diagnosed with alcohol abuse, who formulates a recommendation to present to the TT regarding a disposition of the member?

Answer 41

Mental health technician.

Question 42

How long does the ADAPTPM have, after consulting with the TT, to make a treatment decision?

Answer 42

15 duty days.

Question 43

How many assessment dimensions are evaluated prior to recommending a client's level of care?

Answer 43

6.

Question 44

Which is not an assessment dimension of the American Society of Addiction Medicine?

Answer 44

Ambulatory detoxification.

Question 45

Which of the determinants of relapse address the issue of feelings and self-medicating?

Answer 45

Affective.

Question 46

A relapse prevention plan is also known as a

Answer 46

survival plan.

Question 47

The degree of difficulty it will require for a client to create a plan is based on all of the following factors except the

Answer 47

client's past support system.

Question 48

What is an outcome statement of what the client will ultimately attain through treatment that is important to the client?

Answer 48

Goal.

Question 49

Objectives towards achieving a client's goals are also known as

Answer 49

milestones.

Question 50

What types of goals are unacceptable?

Answer 50

Inconsequential.

Question 51

What is essential in defining success in achieving a goal?

Answer 51

Clarity.

Question 52

Goals should be all of the following except

Answer 52

positive.

Question 53

The final phase of treatment often creates what type of feelings for the client?

Answer 53

Loss.

Question 54

What helps to clarify client's expectations following the termination of treatment?

Answer 54

Clear boundaries.

Question 55

In a counseling relationship which area would not be addressed?

Answer 55

Occupational barriers.

Question 56

What is paramount for a client to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?

Answer 56

Sound insight.

Question 57

During which stage of counseling does a client often begin setting goals?

Answer 57

Commitment to action.

Question 58

Which psychotherapeutic approach focuses on psychological disturbances which frequently originate from habitual errors in thinking?

Answer 58

Cognitive Therapy.

Question 59

Which psychotherapeutic approach states our beliefs help dictate our emotional consequences to events that occur around us?

Answer 59

Rational Emotive Therapy/Ration Emotive Behavior Therapy.

Question 60

During which stage of Behavior Therapy does the counselor walk the client through the least anxiety provoking events to increasingly greater levels of anxiety?

Answer 60

Desensitization proper.

Question 61

Which psychotherapeutic approach is best known for its non-directive, empathic approach?

Answer 61

Client-Centered Therapy.

Question 62

Which would not fit the educational group mold?

Answer 62

Depression.

Question 63

In order for group rules to be clear to all group members, the rules should be

Answer 63

written down.

Question 64

At what point during the entire group process should the counselor discuss the termination of the group?

Answer 64

Midway through the group sessions.

Question 65

When absenteeism by a group member occurs, who is preferably the person or persons to confront the offender?

Answer 65

Group members.

Question 66

In which group is adding a new group member a rarity?

Answer 66

Educational.

Question 67

Which group member is an easy target for an aggressive narcissist in the group?

Answer 67

The schizoid, obsessional, or overly rational client.

Question 68

All of the following are activities that form the core components of case management except

Answer 68

occupational support.

Question 69

Which group is considered the "working arm" of the CAIB?

Answer 69

Integrated Delivery System.

Question 70

Which area will you write about after you have written your assessment in Part II Typed Narrative of the written case presentation?

Answer 70

Treatment plan.

Question 71

When attending the oral case presentation, what happens after you enter the interview rooms?

Answer 71

The structured oral interview is conducted.

Question 72

According to AFI 44-119, what task can a CADAC do "independently of supervision" from an ADAPTPM?

Answer 72

The 12 core functions.

Question 73

What is the Joint Commission requirement that requires a physician to conduct face-to-face evaluation of a patient placed in restraints?

Answer 73

One-hour rule.

Question 74

How soon before an inspection does Joint Commission send a survey planning questionnaire to your facility?

Answer 74

Four months.