Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What TO explains how Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS) works?

A

00-5-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What system currently provides immediate (near-term) improvements in war fighter capability to manage and electronically distribute both paper and electronic technical orders (eTO)?

A

Enhance Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Joint Computer-Aided Acquisition and Logistics Support System (JCALS) is primarily used by…

A

TO managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What strategic steering group is chartered to improve the quality of TOs, define policy, and develop procedures required to achieve the AF digital TO vision and CONOPS?

A

Centralized technical order management (CTOM) organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What base level agency administers and manages the TCTO program?

A

Wing plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TCTO kits are not necessary for…

A

condition or inspection TCTOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of these criteria is not used in the submission of an AFTO Form 22?

A

Cost savings of more than 50 dollars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In which category is a TO improvement that, if not approved, would result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel and impede the mission?

A

Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which TO would you check to find a list of addresses for the appropriate TO management agency (TOMA)?

A

00-5-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Responsibility for making sure an AFTO Form 22 is valid and warrants submission rests with the…

A

Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The AF supply system must immediately respond to the constantly changing needs of its customers and requires…

A

more flexibility than any civilian supply system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Three characteristics of the AF supply system that are of prime importance include manageable segments based on…

A

a geographical and functional basis, as well as a classification system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What facets are paramount in the AF supply system due to its complexity?

A

Manageability of segments and performance of specialized functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

As a supply customer, how many primary points of contact within base supply do you have and what are they?

A

4; customer service, retail sales, demand processing, equipment management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What supply point of contact will you document your request for assistance and notify you of actions taken?

A

Customer service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What element of supply would you contact if you want to obtain steel-toed boots?

A

Retail sales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What two codes does the uniform material movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS) use to provide a method for identifying the importance of requisitions?

A

Force activator designator (FAD) and urgency of need designator (UND)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What level(s) of command share the responsibility for maintaining an effective and credible priority system?

A

All levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who designates (approves) force activity designator (FAD) I assignments?

A

SecDef, with the opinion of JCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Urgency of need designators (UND) are used to identify…

A

mission capability degradation and determine priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

High priority requests inflate the overall cost of assets by increasing…

A

transporation and handling costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Urgency of need designator (UND) “A” is used when…

A

lack of an item causes inability to perform the mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of position must appointed individuals occupy when then commanding officer designates them to review urgency of need designator (UND) requests?

A

Management-level positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many priority elements do base supply personnel use when responding to your needs?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Mission capable (MICAP) procedures may be initiated only after verification that the requirement cannot be satisfied using base-level resources. Who makes this verification?
Supply and maintenance personnel
26
What was mission capable asset sourcing system (MASS) designed to do?
Improve the efficiency of mission capable (MICAP) processing and the management of MICAP requirements
27
All of the statements are functions of the mission capable asset sourcing system (MASS) except...
prevent abuse and misuse of uniform material movement and issue priority system (UMMIPS)
28
What is the maximum standard terminal date for order and shipping time (O&ST) normally required for the logistic system to deliver the requisitioned material?
Standard delivery date (SDD)
29
What priority system tells base supply personnel how much time they have to deliver a part in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement?
Required delivery date (RDD)
30
The day (calendar date) material deliver must be accomplished in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement describes the...
Required delivery date (RDD)
31
For a transfer of equipment between custodians, personnel in the equipment management element (EME) process an inter-custody receipt transfer, the purpose of which is to...
prevent spending allocated funds
32
What form is used to request an item that is in the allowance standard retrieval system (ASRS) and requires wing-level approval?
AF Form 2005
33
What form is submitted with justification by the senior maintenance officer if the maximum repair cost of an equipment item exceeds 75% of replacement cost, but is less than $2500?
AFTO Form 375
34
When is a report of survey (ROS) not required?
Property is lost in combat operations
35
What form is used to request changes to the allowance standard retrieval system (ASRS)?
AF Form 601
36
You may voluntarily pay for the property when the value of the loss is...
$500 or less
37
Usually, what types of items are the only ones listed in allowance documents?
Nonexpendable
38
Who may initiate requests for changes to allowance standards?
Any activity
39
The equipment management element controls and issues...
test equipment
40
Which AF Form is used for turn-in of excess or unserviceable property?
2005
41
Standard equipment reporting designator (SRD) codes are designed to identify...
specific model, design, and series of weapon systems and ground CE equipment.
42
When ordering equipment items using AF Form 2005, "MEMO" indicates...
organizational funds are unavailable
43
To which supply element would you send requests for supplies?
Demand processing
44
What are the categories of supply-type items that require turn-in?
Recoverable and consumable
45
What expendability, reparability, recoverability code (ERRC) identifies consumable items?
XB3
46
What forms do equipment custodians send to the equipment management element (EME) in order to ask for turn-in of equipment on the custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL)?
AF Form 602 or AF Form 2005
47
To turn-in equipment that is beyond economical repair (condition condemned) requires the signature of...
a qualified AFE maintenance inspector
48
Organizations may turn-in all types of items listed below directly to the Receipt in Place Location (RIPL), except...
EAID equipment
49
The first four digits of an NSN identify the...
national supply classification (NSC) code
50
The last nine digits of an NSN represent the...
national item identification number (NIIN)
51
Review the D04, daily document register, for...
due-out releases and cancellations
52
Upon reviewing a D04, you notice a transaction code of DUO which means an item is...
due out or back ordered
53
On the M30, due-out validation listing, due-outs for urgency of need (UND) C equipment are validated how often?
quarterly
54
What is indicated by a budget code of 9 on the M30, due-out validation listing?
General support - O&M funded
55
What type of issue is the demand code R on the M30, due-out validation listing?
Recurring issue
56
What transaction code on the M30, due-out validation listing, indicates a forced charge has been made against O&M funds?
IPU
57
The D18, priority monitor report, only lists parts that have an urgency of need (UND) code of...
A
58
On the D18, priority monitor report, an asterisk in the "Memo and/or firm due-out indicator" column indicates the item...
has funds obligated
59
Which supply status code on the D18, priority monitor report, is for an item being processed for release and shipment?
BA
60
On the D23, due-in from maintenance (DIFM) listing, which column would contain the term MAINT OFF ATTN REQ?
PHRASE
61
If a custodian has more than one organizational code assigned,
a separate custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) will be printed for each code
62
How are adjustments made on the original custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) when equipment is taken on a deployment?
Adjustments are made in pencil
63
Forecasting reports on life sustaining items are prepared annually and cover a minimum of...
6 years
64
Whom must item managers provide with annual forecasts for time change items?
Wing superintendent
65
Over what period do conventional munitions reports project munitions usage?
6 years
66
For resource management, what is the lowest level of a cost center?
Flight
67
In resource management, which individual is the responsibility center manager (RCM)?
Squadron commander
68
At what level(s) in the USAF are many of the basic decisions determining the level of expenditures of resources decided?
HQ USAF and MAJCOMs
69
What type of appropriations finance most of the day-to-day cost of running an AF base?
O&M
70
The responsibility for planning, directing, and coordinating the activities of subordinate organizations rests with the...
responsibility center manager
71
On a day-to-day basis, responsibility for regulating the consumption of work hours, supplies, equipment, and contract services in the production of things or the performance of tasks rests with the...
cost center manager
72
Which procurement appropriation provides for the fabricating and procuring aircraft weapon systems, miscellaneous aircraft requirements, and technical data?
3010
73
Which procurement appropriation provides for the procurement of direct and indirect ground weapon support materiel, other industrial facilities, equipment and modifications, and investment-type spares?
3080
74
Which statement regarding excess funds at the end of fiscal year is not true?
You can transfer it to the next fiscal year.
75
A key program in managing your budget will be your organization's use of the...
AF Government-Wide Purchase Card Program
76
Mismatched data on the unit personnel management roster (UPMR) refers to...
mismatched skill levels
77
What should be done to ensure environmental and personnel control within an AFE facility?
Entrances should be limited
78
What technical order lists the minimum standards for deployed facilities?
15X-1-1
79
Category II deficiency reports (DR) must be submitted within how many working days after the discovery of a deficiency?
3
80
What activity is responsible for resolution of a deficiency report (DR)?
Action point
81
When are messages used to report deficiency reports (DR)?
When automated means are not feasible
82
What is the maximum number of days a deficiency report (DR) exhibit should be held pending response when the exhibit is to be transferred to another DOD component?
60
83
Category II deficiency reports (DR) are classified as...
deficiency and improvement reports
84
Maintenance assistance is provided in technical assistance, organizational and/or intermediate level maintenance, and un-programmed depot maintenance categories. Who provides this assistance?
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)
85
Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) can provide authorization to do all of the following except
purchase items not listed on authorization documents
86
What maintenance requests will be forwarded to the appropriate maintaining command?
Organizational and intermediate (O&I) level
87
What number format of equipment involved should all requests for maintenance assistance include?
Mission, design, series (MDS) or Type, model, series (TMS)
88
The system manager and/or item manager will reply to all emergency requests for maintenance assistance within how many hours after receipt?
4