Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When will you receive additional training in AF hazardous communications safety program (AFHCP) specific hazards?

A

Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated MSDS?

A

Study it to determine how it affects your operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common type of AF mishap?

A

Ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A timely mishap investigation relies on…

A

Prompt notification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

AF mishaps that result in total destruction or damage beyond economical repairs to an AF aircraft are considered Class…

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and misses at least 8 hours of work?

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When must the preliminary report be initiated for class A and B off-duty ground mishaps?

A

After the 2nd duty day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What AF form do you log Class C off-duty ground mishaps on?

A

1057

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 2 types of safety boards that can occur when dealing with an aircraft mishap?

A

Interim Safety Board (ISB) and Safety Investigation Board (SIB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who serves as the liaison between local and medical authorities or coroners and military investigators during an ISB?

A

ISB medical member.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who works directly for the board president and is charged with generally facilitating the proceedings of the entire board?

A

AF safety center representative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF)?

A

Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Physiological mishaps should be filed as what Class of mishap?

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Weapons safety training is conducted by the…

A

Base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Weapons safety training is required…

A

Initially, nefore you perform explosive related maintenance, and then annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If there is no MAJCOM weapons safety training plan available, who is responsible for developing a local plan?

A

You or the personnel in your section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To develop local written procedures for an explosive safety training program, you need not include…

A

References to standard publications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, you would…

A

Not limit your inspection to one area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When may an explosive laden vehicle loaded and unloaded while the engine is running?

A

When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When you transport explosives on base, you would establish a…

A

A primary and alternate route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

AFE explosives must be carried in

A

Protective containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when you are planning and conducting explosive operations?

A

Using the two-man concept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who is authorized to visit an area during an explosives operation?

A

Inspection personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How often must comtainers of ouly rags, combustible scrap, and waste materials be emptied?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
To ne acceptable for storage, explosives must be...
Assigned a hazard classification
26
Within the AFE shop, which limitation applies to the number of survival kits and spare components that are undergoing maintenance at any one time?
Net explosives weight
27
Explosive items are assigned to compatibility groups for...
Storage and transportation
28
To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in storage facilities, you must give priority to items that are...
Self-propelled
29
Serviceable and unserviceable items must ne...
Segregated
30
AFE shops are authorized to store a...
Mission essential quantity of explosives
31
Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative must...
Inspect the proposed facility
32
To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must...
Be protected from moist, hot temperatures
33
Who enters the office symbols of the coordinators on the AF Form 2047, Explosive Facility License?
Installation weapons safety representative
34
What is the most important trait when it comes to training?
Attitude
35
Training conducted in the form of one way video and two way audio is called...
Video teletraining
36
Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an Af specialty rests with the...
AF Career Field Manager
37
After a student graduates from tech school, within how many months will a supervisor receive a field evaluation questionnaire?
4 to 6
38
Which column of the graduate assessment survey indicates the rating of satisfactory?
S | think Succeed
39
How many days in advance do most units forecast ancillary training?
60
40
Which person will assist you in filling out any locally required paperwork for for projecting ancillary training within your work center?
UTM
41
You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by your technical school graduates by using the...
Specialty Training Standard (STS)
42
When you decertify a newly reassigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, you must then place that person in...
Qualification training
43
What do training waivers provide?
Means for saving training resources without affecting career progression
44
Information about your career progression in an AF specialty can be found in what part of your CFETP?
1
45
Prior to using the CFETP, you must ensure it is...
The latest edition
46
Which column of the STS defines the contract with the technical school?
4
47
A proficiency code of 2b in column 4 of the STS indicates...
Task performance and task knowledge
48
The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertains only to...
One particular base or work center
49
When developing an AF Form 797, what do you not provide?
Task developers
50
A task developed for an AF Form 797 must be measurable, observable, and...
Have a definite beginning and end
51
An occupational survey report is an all-inclusive survey of all tasks within an...
AF specialty
52
MAJCOM and AETC SMEs, in conjunction with occupational survey report data, help develop the...
STS
53
When filling out your occupational survey, it is important that you answer questions that apply to tasks you...
Are currently doing in your job
54
The AF Occupational Measurement Squadron provides 2 products: the occupational survey report and a...
Training extract
55
If representatives of the utilization and training workshop disagree on an STS item, how is it resolved?
Each MAJCOM, with the exception of AETC, has one vote for or against
56
What 3 sources give supervisors a starting point for determining whether their current mishap prevention program is adequate?
AF Form 55, MSDS, Self-Inspection Checklist
57
Prior to assigning an individual their work duties, you should...
Evaluate the individual's OJT records.
58
The status of resources and training system (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit's....
ability to undertake its full mission.
59
What is the responsibility of a pilot unit?
Developing a and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details.
60
Where can the office of primary responsibility information be found for an AF publication?
Cover page of the publication.
61
Who is the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?
Staff judge advocate.
62
What instruction covers the management of a CTK program?
AFI 21-101, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Management
63
Who is responsible for tool accountability and control within a specific section of your AFE shop?
CTK custodians
64
Consumables such as halocarbons may be placed in CTKs...
if they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.
65
How often should a comprehensive inspection of all CTKs be accomplished?
Annually.
66
At which milestone of the acquisition process is the production decision made?
B.
67
When are mission need statements required?
When solutions require new developments, new procurements, or an upgrade of existing systems.
68
Which agency develops the operational requirements document?
Lead operating command.
69
The code 412A is defined as which type of code?
Budget program activity code (BPAC).
70
Who is responsible for the AFE special programs office (SPO)?
Human Systems Group
71
What is conducted throughout a system's life cycle to ensure the AF acquires and maintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users' needs?
Developmental test and evaluation.
72
What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system as it progresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?
Live fire test and evaluation.
73
What is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system's effectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?
Operational test and evaluation.
74
How many parts are there to the typical objective statement.
3
75
What is the first step in developing a lesson plan?
Research.
76
Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?
LL01
77
The equipment used for AFE continuation training must be inspected at what interval?
180 days
78
Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?
MAJCOM
79
What should be your number one concern when instructing AFECT courses?
Safety.
80
Who must document compliance with an ORM program that has been conducted within your training program?
THE AFES or AFEO
81
What instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)?
AFI 10-403
82
Who provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises?
Deployment Control Center (DCC)
83
Which work center ensures the deploying personnel are properly accounted for and prepared for deployment?
Personnel Deployment Function (PDF)
84
Which work center is not part of the Installation Deployment Officers (IDO) activation process?
Personnel Readiness Unit (PRU)
85
Which AFI describes the AEF UTC Status Reporting Tool (ART)?
AFI 10-244
86
Who is responsible for the overall AF current operations, readiness and training?
Directorate of Operations
87
How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
7500
88
What guidance is used to develop a CONOPS?
AFI 10-401
89
What is the minimum amount of days following a significant radiological event will installations receive assistance from specialized federal assets?
12
90
Which of the following is not a step to preemptively mitigate the effects of a radiological warfare (RW) event?
Integrated Offence
91
The minimum of how many yards from the boundary of the ACCA, should the toxic free area (TFA) main personnel, rest and recovery area be placed?
200 yards
92
When setting up an ACCA who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color?
ACCA manager
93
A minimum of how many trained attendants are required to run standard operations of an ACCA?
5
94
Which decontamination area is where the boot and protective over garment removal phase takes place?
3
95
When you use the M295 decontamination kits, you start your decontamination process of an aircrew member from...
the top of the individual and work down
96
Within how many business days after you mail the registration form in will the data be entered into the National 406 MHz Beacon Registration Database system?
2
97
What is considered normal vision?
20/20
98
What NVG limitation occurs during the hours of darkness that may impact the NVG mission?
Physiological considerations