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7 Level CDCs > Volume 1 > Flashcards

Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

When will you receive additional training in AF hazardous communications safety program (AFHCP) specific hazards?

A

Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials.

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2
Q

What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated MSDS?

A

Study it to determine how it affects your operations.

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3
Q

What is the most common type of AF mishap?

A

Ground

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4
Q

A timely mishap investigation relies on…

A

Prompt notification

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5
Q

AF mishaps that result in total destruction or damage beyond economical repairs to an AF aircraft are considered Class…

A

A

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6
Q

What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and misses at least 8 hours of work?

A

C

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7
Q

When must the preliminary report be initiated for class A and B off-duty ground mishaps?

A

After the 2nd duty day.

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8
Q

What AF form do you log Class C off-duty ground mishaps on?

A

1057

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9
Q

What are the 2 types of safety boards that can occur when dealing with an aircraft mishap?

A

Interim Safety Board (ISB) and Safety Investigation Board (SIB)

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10
Q

Who serves as the liaison between local and medical authorities or coroners and military investigators during an ISB?

A

ISB medical member.

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11
Q

Who works directly for the board president and is charged with generally facilitating the proceedings of the entire board?

A

AF safety center representative

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12
Q

What are the four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF)?

A

Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements

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13
Q

Physiological mishaps should be filed as what Class of mishap?

A

E

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14
Q

Weapons safety training is conducted by the…

A

Base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO

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15
Q

Weapons safety training is required…

A

Initially, nefore you perform explosive related maintenance, and then annually

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16
Q

If there is no MAJCOM weapons safety training plan available, who is responsible for developing a local plan?

A

You or the personnel in your section

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17
Q

To develop local written procedures for an explosive safety training program, you need not include…

A

References to standard publications

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18
Q

To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, you would…

A

Not limit your inspection to one area

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19
Q

When may an explosive laden vehicle loaded and unloaded while the engine is running?

A

When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load/unload explosives

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20
Q

When you transport explosives on base, you would establish a…

A

A primary and alternate route

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21
Q

AFE explosives must be carried in

A

Protective containers

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22
Q

Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when you are planning and conducting explosive operations?

A

Using the two-man concept

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23
Q

Who is authorized to visit an area during an explosives operation?

A

Inspection personnel

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24
Q

How often must comtainers of ouly rags, combustible scrap, and waste materials be emptied?

A

Daily

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25
Q

To ne acceptable for storage, explosives must be…

A

Assigned a hazard classification

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26
Q

Within the AFE shop, which limitation applies to the number of survival kits and spare components that are undergoing maintenance at any one time?

A

Net explosives weight

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27
Q

Explosive items are assigned to compatibility groups for…

A

Storage and transportation

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28
Q

To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in storage facilities, you must give priority to items that are…

A

Self-propelled

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29
Q

Serviceable and unserviceable items must ne…

A

Segregated

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30
Q

AFE shops are authorized to store a…

A

Mission essential quantity of explosives

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31
Q

Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative must…

A

Inspect the proposed facility

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32
Q

To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must…

A

Be protected from moist, hot temperatures

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33
Q

Who enters the office symbols of the coordinators on the AF Form 2047, Explosive Facility License?

A

Installation weapons safety representative

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34
Q

What is the most important trait when it comes to training?

A

Attitude

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35
Q

Training conducted in the form of one way video and two way audio is called…

A

Video teletraining

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36
Q

Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an Af specialty rests with the…

A

AF Career Field Manager

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37
Q

After a student graduates from tech school, within how many months will a supervisor receive a field evaluation questionnaire?

A

4 to 6

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38
Q

Which column of the graduate assessment survey indicates the rating of satisfactory?

A

S

think Succeed

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39
Q

How many days in advance do most units forecast ancillary training?

A

60

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40
Q

Which person will assist you in filling out any locally required paperwork for for projecting ancillary training within your work center?

A

UTM

41
Q

You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by your technical school graduates by using the…

A

Specialty Training Standard (STS)

42
Q

When you decertify a newly reassigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, you must then place that person in…

A

Qualification training

43
Q

What do training waivers provide?

A

Means for saving training resources without affecting career progression

44
Q

Information about your career progression in an AF specialty can be found in what part of your CFETP?

A

1

45
Q

Prior to using the CFETP, you must ensure it is…

A

The latest edition

46
Q

Which column of the STS defines the contract with the technical school?

A

4

47
Q

A proficiency code of 2b in column 4 of the STS indicates…

A

Task performance and task knowledge

48
Q

The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertains only to…

A

One particular base or work center

49
Q

When developing an AF Form 797, what do you not provide?

A

Task developers

50
Q

A task developed for an AF Form 797 must be measurable, observable, and…

A

Have a definite beginning and end

51
Q

An occupational survey report is an all-inclusive survey of all tasks within an…

A

AF specialty

52
Q

MAJCOM and AETC SMEs, in conjunction with occupational survey report data, help develop the…

A

STS

53
Q

When filling out your occupational survey, it is important that you answer questions that apply to tasks you…

A

Are currently doing in your job

54
Q

The AF Occupational Measurement Squadron provides 2 products: the occupational survey report and a…

A

Training extract

55
Q

If representatives of the utilization and training workshop disagree on an STS item, how is it resolved?

A

Each MAJCOM, with the exception of AETC, has one vote for or against

56
Q

What 3 sources give supervisors a starting point for determining whether their current mishap prevention program is adequate?

A

AF Form 55, MSDS, Self-Inspection Checklist

57
Q

Prior to assigning an individual their work duties, you should…

A

Evaluate the individual’s OJT records.

58
Q

The status of resources and training system (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit’s….

A

ability to undertake its full mission.

59
Q

What is the responsibility of a pilot unit?

A

Developing a and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details.

60
Q

Where can the office of primary responsibility information be found for an AF publication?

A

Cover page of the publication.

61
Q

Who is the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?

A

Staff judge advocate.

62
Q

What instruction covers the management of a CTK program?

A

AFI 21-101, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Management

63
Q

Who is responsible for tool accountability and control within a specific section of your AFE shop?

A

CTK custodians

64
Q

Consumables such as halocarbons may be placed in CTKs…

A

if they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.

65
Q

How often should a comprehensive inspection of all CTKs be accomplished?

A

Annually.

66
Q

At which milestone of the acquisition process is the production decision made?

A

B.

67
Q

When are mission need statements required?

A

When solutions require new developments, new procurements, or an upgrade of existing systems.

68
Q

Which agency develops the operational requirements document?

A

Lead operating command.

69
Q

The code 412A is defined as which type of code?

A

Budget program activity code (BPAC).

70
Q

Who is responsible for the AFE special programs office (SPO)?

A

Human Systems Group

71
Q

What is conducted throughout a system’s life cycle to ensure the AF acquires and maintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users’ needs?

A

Developmental test and evaluation.

72
Q

What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system as it progresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?

A

Live fire test and evaluation.

73
Q

What is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system’s effectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?

A

Operational test and evaluation.

74
Q

How many parts are there to the typical objective statement.

A

3

75
Q

What is the first step in developing a lesson plan?

A

Research.

76
Q

Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?

A

LL01

77
Q

The equipment used for AFE continuation training must be inspected at what interval?

A

180 days

78
Q

Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?

A

MAJCOM

79
Q

What should be your number one concern when instructing AFECT courses?

A

Safety.

80
Q

Who must document compliance with an ORM program that has been conducted within your training program?

A

THE AFES or AFEO

81
Q

What instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)?

A

AFI 10-403

82
Q

Who provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises?

A

Deployment Control Center (DCC)

83
Q

Which work center ensures the deploying personnel are properly accounted for and prepared for deployment?

A

Personnel Deployment Function (PDF)

84
Q

Which work center is not part of the Installation Deployment Officers (IDO) activation process?

A

Personnel Readiness Unit (PRU)

85
Q

Which AFI describes the AEF UTC Status Reporting Tool (ART)?

A

AFI 10-244

86
Q

Who is responsible for the overall AF current operations, readiness and training?

A

Directorate of Operations

87
Q

How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

A

7500

88
Q

What guidance is used to develop a CONOPS?

A

AFI 10-401

89
Q

What is the minimum amount of days following a significant radiological event will installations receive assistance from specialized federal assets?

A

12

90
Q

Which of the following is not a step to preemptively mitigate the effects of a radiological warfare (RW) event?

A

Integrated Offence

91
Q

The minimum of how many yards from the boundary of the ACCA, should the toxic free area (TFA) main personnel, rest and recovery area be placed?

A

200 yards

92
Q

When setting up an ACCA who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color?

A

ACCA manager

93
Q

A minimum of how many trained attendants are required to run standard operations of an ACCA?

A

5

94
Q

Which decontamination area is where the boot and protective over garment removal phase takes place?

A

3

95
Q

When you use the M295 decontamination kits, you start your decontamination process of an aircrew member from…

A

the top of the individual and work down

96
Q

Within how many business days after you mail the registration form in will the data be entered into the National 406 MHz Beacon Registration Database system?

A

2

97
Q

What is considered normal vision?

A

20/20

98
Q

What NVG limitation occurs during the hours of darkness that may impact the NVG mission?

A

Physiological considerations

7 Level CDCs (2 decks)

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