Vol.3 AF Flashcards by Michael Guerrero

(401) The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans
include the National Security Council System;
a. Communication, Command, and Control System; Planning, Programming, Budgeting and
Execution System; and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
b. Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System,
and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
c. Communication, Command, and Control System; Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning,
Programming; and Budgeting and Execution System.
d. Joint Strategic Planning System, Communication, Command, and Control System, and Joint
Operations Planning and Execution Systeminclude the National Security Council System;

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(401) What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve
the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?
a. Joint Strategic Planning System.
b. National Security Council System.
c. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System.
d. Planning, Programming and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System

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(401) What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual
use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?
a. Deployment.
b. Employment.
c. Force package.
d. Mission essential task

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(401) What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or
below the level of combatant command?
a. Plan.
b. Mobility.
c. Tactical control.
d. Operational control.

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(402) In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do
functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and
realign forces, if necessary?
a. Quarterly.
b. Every other AEF cycle.
c. In the middle of each AEF cycle.
d. Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle.

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(402) What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?
a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 24 months.
d. 36 months

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(403) What is the Air Force’s war planning system?
a. DCAPES.
b. MRDSS.
c. DRRS.
d. ART.

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(403) What system’s objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and
execution process?
a. ART.
b. DRRS.
c. MRDSS.
d. DCAPES.

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(404) According to the Department of Defense (DOD), a unit task code is developed and assigned
by the
a. Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
b. Joint Chiefs of Staff.
c. wing commander.
d. major command

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(404) What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in
support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?
a. Manpower Force Element Listing (MFEL).
b. Unit Personnel Management Roster.
c. Manpower Deployment Roster.
d. Unit Manpower Listing.

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(404) What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool
(ART)?
a. One, two, three.
b. Red, yellow, green.
c. On target, satisfactory, delinquent.
d. Met objective, close to objective, fail objective.

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(404) Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space
Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?
a. Unit task code (UTC) tasked to deploy.
b. Significant UTC change.
c. Once a month.
d. Daily

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(405) Who is responsible for assessing the “mission ready” status of their unit, assigned unit type
codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?
a. Unit deployment manager.
b. Medical readiness manager.
c. Unit commander.
d. Base commander

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(405) Who assigns the unit’s missions and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System
(DRRS)?
a. Major command commander (MAJCOM/CC).
b. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
c. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).
d. Wing commander (Wing/CC).

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(406) What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff,
Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?
a. Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
b. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).
c. Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS).
d. Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS).

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(406) What C-level states the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the
full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?
a. C–1.
b. C–2.
c. C–3.
d. C–4.

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(406) Units must update the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) monthly, no later
then what day of the month?
a. 1st.
b. 5th.
c. 10th.
d. 15th.

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(407) What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel
and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?
a. MRDSS-ULTRA.
b. MEDRED-C.
c. SITREP.
d. SORTS

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(407) Who must approve user accounts before the Medical Readiness Decision Support System
(MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters.
b. Military treatment facility (MTF) commander.
c. Medical readiness office.
d. Base commander.

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(407) In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to
manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?
a. Mission Essential Task.
b. Medical Resource Letter.
c. Manpower Force Element Listing.
d. Designed Operational Capability Statement.

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(408) What plan is the medical unit commander’s plan, establishing procedures for the unit’s
expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and
emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan
(CEMP)?
a. MCRP.
b. IGESP.
c. DCP.
d. IDP.

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(408) What triage category would include injuries that need immediate medical or surgical
attention to save a life?
a. Delayed.
b. Minimal.
c. Expectant.
d. Immediate.

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(409) Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?
a. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
b. MAJCOM readiness office.
c. Base readiness office.
d. Base commander.

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(410) When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who
is responsible for their accountability?
a. Unit commander
b. Base commander.
c. Unit deployment manager.
d. Personnel deployment function

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(410) At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing? a. The military treatment facility commander (MTF/CC). b. The unit deployment manager (UDM). c. Medical control center chief (MCC). d. Medical readiness office (MRO).

(411) Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment? a. Military treatment facility commander (MTF/CC). b. Support squadron commander (MDSS/CC). c. Installation deployment office (IDO). d. Medical readiness office (MRO).

(412) Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual’s training information? a. The individual’s name. b. Find individual’s record. c. Record training course attendance. d. Update training for multiple individuals

(413) What part of the deployment folder is for major command (MAJCOM)/installation/wing/unit requirements? a. Part 2. b. Part 3. c. Part 4. d. Part 5.

(414) All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, except a. document training in Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS). b. assign the member to a medical contingency response plan (MCRP) team. c. assign the member to a unit task code (UTC). d. give the member their mobility folder.

(415) The medical control center is also known as the a. unit control center. b. mission control center. c. readiness control center. d. commander control center

(415) The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system? a. Mass notification. b. Pyramid alerting system. c. Enterprise notification system. d. Mission essential alerting system.

(415) Who’s function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation? a. First responders (FR). b. Crisis action team (CAT). c. Incident commander (IC). d. Emergency operations center (EOC).

(415) Who has overall authority and responsibility for conducting all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site? a. First responders (FR). b. Crisis action team (CAT). c. Incident commander (IC). d. Emergency operations center (EOC).

(416) On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as the vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above? a. Red. b. Black. c. Green. d. Brown.

(416) On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features? a. Red. b. Black. c. Green. d. Brown

(416) On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the a. horizontal grid line. b. grid line number. c. vertical grid line. d. grid square

(416) What time frame should an event log cover? a. 6-hour period. b. 12-hour period. c. 24-hour period. d. 48-hour period

(417) What is the first step in completing a checklist? a. Initial the checklist. b. Evaluate the scenario. c. Enter the date on the checklist. d. Write your name on the checklist

(418) What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and then to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone? a. Theater. b. Forward. c. Strategic. d. Domestic.

(418) What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations? a. Theater. b. Forward. c. Strategic. d. Domestic.

(418) Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designated aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF? a. The President. b. AF Chief of Staff. c. Owning major command. d. Responsible combatant commander

(418) The primary USAF aircrafts supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, except the a. C–130 Hercules. b. C–17 Globemaster. c. KC–135 Stratotanker. d. UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter.

(419) What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott Air Force Base (AFB)? a. JPMRC. b. TPMRC-A. c. TPMRC-E. d. TPMRC-P.

(420) Medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) typically is associated with what type of aircraft? a. Fixed wing. b. Heavy wing. c. Forced wing. d. Rotary wing

(420) What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated as soon as possible and within a maximum of one hour? a. I-Urgent. b. II-Priority. c. III-Routine. d. IV-Convenience

(420) What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours? a. I-Urgent. b. II-Priority. c. III-Routine. d. IV-Convenience.

(420) An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient? a. I-Urgent. b. II-Priority. c. III-Routine. d. IV-Convenience.

(421) What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world? a. CHCS. b. TMDS. c. ALTHA. d. Essentris

(421) Which capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIPJ)? a. Blood status. b. Inpatient care. c. Notification status. d. Tracking medical supplies

(422) A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as a a. psychiatric walking patient of moderate severity. b. psychiatric litter patient of intermediate severity. c. litter patient other than psychiatric. d. severe psychiatric litter patient

(422) Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as a. litter. b. recovered. c. psychiatric. d. ambulatory

(422) What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system? a. 6A. b. 6B. c. 5A. d. 5B

(422) What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system? a. 6A. b. 6B. c. 5A. d. 5B.

(423) In the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system, the originating physician’s responsibility for a patient ends when a. the patient is reported via the Transportation Command (TRANSCOM) Regulating and Command & Control Evacuation System (TRAC2ES). b. the Patient Movement Requirements Center (PMRC) assigns a cite number to the regulating request. c. the physician is notified by PMRC of the destination military treatment facility (MTF). d. the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.

(423) Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient’s movement? a. Admissions and dispositions technician. b. Unit inpatient records technician. c. Patient movement technician. d. TRAC2ES technician.

(423) The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the a. patient’s primary care manager (PCM). b. physician at the destination who is accepting the patient. c. physician who is treating the patient at the originating medical treatment facility (MTF). d. physician located were the patient will remain overnight (RON) and will take care of the patient.

(424) All of the following needs to be prepared for the flight, except for which item? a. Patient. b. Medical records. c. Laboratory reports. d. Attending physician.

(424) It’s important to check the Mission Document for the flight in order to a. notify patient movement requirements center (PMRC) if there are changes to the patient movement request (PMR). b. make sure the patient movement request PMR information is correct. c. make sure everyone is entered is on the appropriate flight. d. make a change to the patient movement request PMR

(424) Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight? a. The attending physician. b. The receiving physician. c. Patient Movement Center. d. Medical Readiness Office.

(424) What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient’s Baggage Tag represent? a. The facility where an aeromedical evacuation (AE) patient will remain overnight (RON) awaiting AE movement to the final destination. b. The civilian AE transport center where the patient will be transported. c. The patient’s final military treatment facility (MTF) destination. d. The patient’s originating MTF.

(424) Who’s responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag, includes all essential patient information? a. The patient. b. The aerovac nurse. c. The attending physician. d. The patient movement clerk.

(424) The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must not exceed a. 78 inches in any one direction or 105 inches overall (length+width+height). b. 76 inches in any one direction or 105 inches overall (length+width+height). c. 74 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height). d. 72 inches in any one direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height).

(424) Which item listed below is not part of the anti-hijacking search? a. Inspect patients and attendants with either a hand held or walk through metal detector. b. Redo the inspection for personnel who leave a holding area after you have finished. c. Honor requests for visual inspection instead of using X-ray or metal detectors. d. Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection.

(425) All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, except the a. North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) litter. b. Air Force decontamination litter. c. Army decontamination litter. d. overweight patient litter.

(425) When a patient is in remain overnight (RON) status, on which form should the evaluation, treatment and medication be documented? a. AF Form 3899, Patient Movement Physical Assessment. b. SF 600, Chronological Record of Medical Care. c. DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation Tag. d. Patient Movement Request

(425) What is the primary purpose of a release certificate, which is signed by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the aeromedical evacuation (AE) system of his or her own free will? a. Prohibits the patient from receiving future AE services. b. Determines if the patient is sufficiently competent to understand the consequences of his or her decision. c. Releases the US government, its agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage. d. Demands reimbursement for travel costs expended and certifies that the patient will proceed by his or her own means of transportation

(426) What service(s) is/are involved with the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)? a. Air Force. b. Air Force and Army. c. Air Force, Army, and Navy. d. Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine Corps.

(427) In general, Airmen are not eligible for disability due to all of the following reasons, except a. Airman with conditions that existed prior to service. b. Airmen in an Absent Without Leave status. c. Airmen pending honorable discharge. d. Airmen facing court martial charges.

(428) All of the following are examples of trigger events, except for a. provider identification. b. commander requests evaluation. c. permanent change of station (PCS) cancellation for administrative actions. d. Medical Retention Standards Branch (HQ AFPC/DPANM) identification and direction.

(428) What type of condition is not eligible for referral to the Disability Evaluation System (DES)? a. Unfit. b. Unsuiting. c. Duty limitation. d. Duty restriction.

(428) What is a report of an Airman’s injury or illness, based on evaluation by a medical professional, that describes specific physical activities or functions that are recommended for the Airman to avoid allowing recovery or reducing risk of further injury? a. Functional (or physical) restriction. b. Functional (or physical) limitation. c. Duty restriction. d. Duty limitation.

(428) An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days? a. 90 days. b. 120 days. c. 180 days. d. 365 days.

(428) An Airmen should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days? a. 90 days. b. 120 days. c. 180 days. d. 365 days.

(428) Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)? a. Exercise physiologist. b. Medical group commander. c. Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer. d. Medical Standards Management Element.

(428) What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make? a. Case dismissal. b. Return to duty with ACL-C. c. Permanent Disability Retirement List. d. Temporary Disability Retirement List.

(428) Once AFPC/DPANM (Medical Retention Standards Branch) reviews an initial review in lieu of (RILO), how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO) of the determination? a. E-mail from the organizational box. b. Official memorandum. c. AF Form 356. d. AFPC/FL 4.

(429) Who appoints the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk and the Physical Evaluation Board liaison Officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked? a. Military treatment facility commander; published orders. b. Flight commander, patient administration; published orders. c. Military treatment facility commander; official correspondence. d. Flight commander, patient administration; official correspondence.

(429) Which of the following is a responsibility of the medical evaluation board (MEB) clerk? a. Schedules cases for board hearings. b. Ensures accurate and complete case records are sent to the physical evaluation board (PEB). c. Requests commander’s letter and keeps member’s commander/first sergeant apprised of the member’s case status. d. Advises the patient administration or hospital services office of the final disposition of all cases where the member underwent PEB processing in an outpatient status.

(429) Which of the following is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer (PEBLO)? a. Obtains evaluee or next of kin (NOK) signature on AF Form 618, Medical Board Report, forwards the completed medical evaluation board (MEB) package to the disposition authority, and makes proper distribution of that authority’s responses. b. Counseling members or NOK on the physical evaluation board (PEB) findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356, Findings and Recommended Disposition of USAF Physical Evaluation Board. c. Completes AF Form 618, Medical Board Report; obtains signatures from the board members and the approval authority; and assembles the attachments to AF Form 618, Medical Board Report. d. Assists the evaluee in resolving any questions concerning the content of the report or summary.

(429) Before the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES) process existed, how long would the average medical evaluation board (MEB) take from case imitation to Veteran’s Administration (VA) rating? a. 5 years. b. 4 years. c. 3 years. d. 2 years.

(430) Who is the non-clinical benefits advisor to the member while going through the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (IDES)? a. MEB clerk. b. VA-MSC. c. Provider. d. PEBLO.

(430) The Veterans Tracking Application a. retrieves data from the Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL). b. retrieves data from comprehensive recovery plan (CRP). c. tracks review in lieu of (RILO). d. is a web-enabled tool.

(430) The Veterans Tracking Application a. is strictly used to create reports for Senior Department of Defense (DOD) officials. b. replaces the local military treatment facility (MTF) database system. c. is hosted on the Veterans Information Portal (VIP). d. tracks review in lieu of (RILO).

(430) When the providing care manager (PCM), or referring provider, reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does not note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do? a. Rewrite the narrative/summary (NARSUM) in the approved Air Force format. b. Submit an addendum stating there were no inconsistencies. c. Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete. d. The provider is not required to review the C&P results.

(431) A medical board can be convened to determine an individual’s mental competence for pay and records purposes when the member a. is not performing to the appropriate skill level and grade. b. has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses. c. displays gross financial irresponsibility. d. has been under severe emotional stress.

(431) Who designates the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) on a general officer? a. The board will be conducted at the originating MTF. b. Air Force Surgeon General. c. HQ AFPC/DPANM. d. HQ AF/CC.

(431) Who can authorize a military treatment facility (MTF) to conduct a military evaluation Board (MEB) on an assigned enlisted staff member who has been a disciplinary problem? a. AFPC/DPANM. b. MEB President. c. MAJCOM/SG. d. MTF/CC.

(431) Who can be voting member(s) on the medical evaluation board (MEB)? a. Physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO). b. Physicians. c. Residents. d. Interns.

(431) Who appoints medical evaluation board (MEB) members, and by what means are they tasked? a. Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer (PEBLO); MEB report. b. Military treatment facility commander; appointing orders. c. MEB recorder; meeting minutes. d. Base commander; orders.

(431) Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a medical evaluation board (MEB)? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

(431) Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report? a. Military treatment facility commander or their designee. b. Physical Evaluation Board liaison officer. c. Medical Evaluation Board president. d. Attending physician.

(431) After the evaluee has been informed of the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) findings, how many days does the member have to request an impartial review? a. Depends on whether the case has imminent death implications. b. Seven calendar days. c. Three duty days. d. Five duty days.

(431) If the impartial reviewer finds that the review does not support the medical evaluation board (MEB) findings, the reviewer should contact the a. MEB President concurrently with notification to the member. b. physical evalutation board liaison officer (PEBLO). c. patient’s primary care manager (PCM). d. MEB clerk.

(432) Although assignment limitation codes (ALC)-C are valid indefinitely, how often should the codes be reviewed? a. At least annually, unless otherwise specified by Medical Retention Standards Branch (DPANM). b. At least every 18 months, unless otherwise specified by DPANM. c. As determined by the Physical Evaluation Board. d. As prescribed by the attending physician.

(432) What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should not be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition? a. ALC-C0. b. ALC-C1. c. ALC-C2. d. ALC-C3.

(433) A member may be permanently retired when the member has a. a disabling condition that is determined to be stable. b. more than three diagnosed conditions. c. at least 20 years in the military. d. 100% disability rating.

(433) What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on a Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)? a. 3 years. b. 4 years. c. 5 years. d. 6 years.

(434) Who appoints an officer to serve as the Patient Squadron commander? a. MTF/CC. b. Squadron/CC. c. The MAJCOM. d. AFPC/DPAMM.

(435) How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to develop a comprehensive recovery plan? a. Once the member is discharged from the military treatment facility. b. Only after the member is retired or separated. c. Until the member is retired or separated. d. It provides lifetime support.

(435) Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wounded, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days? a. 90. b. 120. c. 180. d. 365