Vol. 2 AF

Question 1

(201) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and
a. Insurance Claims Amendments.
b. Disability of Americans Amendments.
c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.
d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

(201) Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical
information?
a. Drug and alcohol.
b. Adoptions and abortions.
c. Sexual assault and abuse.
d. Child molestation and endangerment.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

(202) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s
medical record information to an insurance company?
a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.
b. Verbal consent from the husband.
c. Written consent from husband.
d. Verbal consent from wife.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

(203) If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could
have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,
a. only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).
b. release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).
c. send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee
d. only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to
make psychiatric or mental determinations.

Answer 4

D

Question 5

(203) An individual’s medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific
organizations when
a. the information concerns patients treated in a medical treatment facility (MTF) within the past
five-years.
b. reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.
c. the patient does not want his or her recordsreleased.
d. the request concerns active duty members.

Answer 5

B

Question 6

(204) The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows military treatment facility (MTF)
personnel to track patient care and
a. ICDM–9 (automated coding).
b. related administrative activities.
c. AF Forms 542, Subsistence Stock Records.
d. War Reserve Material (WRM) requirements.

Answer 6

B

Question 7

(204) What two purposes does the user record serve?
a. Allows access to the system and lets the system know who you are.
b. Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.
c. Allows you access to the system and establishes how you can use the system.
d. Establishes how you can use the system and ensures your actions are noted by the system audit
mechanism.

Answer 7

B

Question 8

(204) Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care
System (CHCS)?
a. ???.
b. OLUM.
c. ??OLUM.
d. ?OPTION.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

(205) To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new
patient in the Composite Health Care System?
a. Accomplish a “Patient lookup”.
b. Access On Line User’s Manual by entering ??OLUM.
c. Create medical record using post registration options.
d. Compare patient documentation with a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS)RIP
from military personnel flight (MPF).

Answer 9

A

Question 10

(205) What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?
a. Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.
b. Making a system inquiry concerning upcoming appointments.
c. Updating a home address for an active duty member.
d. Running (printing) a pull list.

Answer 10

A

Question 11

(205) Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient’s name during Composite Health
Care System (CHCS) Registration?
a. Lastname(space)(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).
b. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).
c. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial.
d. Lastname(space)First Initial.

Answer 11

C

Question 12

(205) A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to accomplish whattask?
a. Verify the patient’s eligibility for care.
b. Ensure the patient’s CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.
c. Provide a tool for commander’s to keep abreast of unit’s manning strength.
d. Provides interface for military personnel flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

Answer 12

A

Question 13

(206) What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the
check-in record option?
a. Clinic returning record.
b. Provider who checked-out the record.
c. Date and time of record being returned.
d. Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

Answer 13

C

Question 14

(207) Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is a pattern of timeslots that is
specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?
a. Capacity appointment slots.
b. Template.
c. Schedule.
d. Profile.

Answer 14

B

Question 15

(207) What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider’s schedule in the Composite Health
Care System (CHCS)?
a. Profile first, template second, and schedule last.
b. Template first, profile second, and schedule last.
c. Schedule first, template second, and profile last.
d. Schedule first, profile second, and template last.

Answer 15

A

Question 16

(208) What Composite Health Care System (CHCS) option makes it simple for the user to add,
delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider’sschedule?
a. Maintain/Cancel Schedule.
b. Cancellation by Facility.
c. Freeze/Release Schedule.
d. Modify/Add/Delete Schedule.

Answer 16

A

Question 17

(208) The schedule hold duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) defines how muchtime
will elapse before
a. the system automatically freezes slots.
b. the system automatically releases frozen slots.
c. the appointment technician can manually freeze slots.
d. the appointment technician can manually release frozen slots.

Answer 17

B

Question 18

(209) Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?
a. Back cover, in the status box in the center of the record jacket.
b. Front cover, in the patient identification block.
c. Back cover, in the lower right hand corner.
d. Front cover, in the lower left hand corner.

Answer 18

B

Question 19

(209) If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10),
the step child’s family member prefix (FMP) will be
a. 01.
b. 03.
c. 60.
d. 90.

Answer 19

B

Question 20

(209) If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s family member prefix (FMP) will be
a. 20.
b. 21.
c. 30.
d. 31.

Answer 20

D

Question 21

(209) Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record
for a sponsor whose social security number is 987–65–4321?
a. 4.
b. 3.
c. 2.
d. 1.

Answer 21

D

Question 22

(209) Where is allergy information displayed on a patient’s health record?
a. Below the “Food Handler” line on the bottom left hand corner of the record jacket.
b. Above the patient’s name, in the patient identification block.
c. Anywhere on the front cover of the record jacket in red ink.
d. Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.

Answer 22

D

Question 23

(210) What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required
minimum identification documentation?
a. Place the documentation in the research file.
b. Annotate the correct identification to save time.
c. Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.
d. Annotate identification and then call clinic personnel to brief proper requirements.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

(210) Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health
Record–Outpatient?
a. Section 1.
b. Section 2.
c. Section 3.
d. Section 4.

Answer 24

A

Question 25

(210) In which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed? a. Section 1. b. Section 2. c. Section 3. d. Section 4.

Answer 25

C

Question 26

(210) Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, are living wills (SelfDetermination Act forms) filed? a. Section 1. b. Section 2. c. Section 3. d. Section 4.

Answer 26

D

Question 27

(210) Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to aninpatient record recorded? a. No notation is required, as long as it is returned to the outpatient record. b. On SF 600, Health Record—Chronological Record of Medical Care. c. On AF Form 1480, Summary of Care, in the outpatient record. d. In the inpatient record.

Answer 27

B

Question 28

(211) Outpatient records are the property of the a. United States Government. b. medical treatment facility. c. records custodian. d. patient.

Answer 28

A

Question 29

(211) Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing system? a. Tertiary number, color-coded and blocked filing system. b. Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system. c. Tertiary number filing system. d. Terminal digit filing.

Answer 29

B

Question 30

(211) A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system makes it easier to a. group records according to primary borrower. b. file the forms in an outpatient record. c. identify a misfiled record. d. distribute the workload

Answer 30

C

Question 31

(212) If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge OutRequest? a. The clinic that originally transferred the record. b. The clinic receiving the transferred record. c. Outpatient records personnel. d. The patient.

Answer 31

C

Question 32

(213) How often are active duty records inventoried? a. Never, if the facility has CHCS. b. At least semiannually. c. Whenever necessary. d. At least once a year.

Answer 32

D

Question 33

(213) When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired? a. End of each calendar year. b. End of each fiscal year. c. Semiannually. d. Quarterly.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

(213) What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing recordsretirement? a. Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2). b. AFI 37–138, Records Disposition Policies and Procedures. c. AFMAN 37–139, Records Disposition Schedule. d. Records retirement list.

Answer 34

A

Question 35

(214) What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing? a. TRICARE team. b. Alternative care team. c. Health care optimization team. d. Primary care optimization team.

Answer 35

D

Question 36

(214) When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records? a. Acute care manager. b. Health care manager. c. Primary care manager. d. Family practice manager.

Answer 36

C

Question 37

(215) If for some reason the sponsor’s medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a a. letter of non-availability. b. letter of justification. c. letter of reason. d. waiver letter.

Answer 37

A

Question 38

(215) When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent? a. The sponsor. b. The dependent. c. The gaining unit. d. The primary care manager.

Answer 38

B

Question 39

(216) For which of the following would you not create an inpatientrecord? a. Active duty personnel admitted to a non-Federal hospital. b. Patients admitted and dispositioned on the same day. c. Patients admitted to a tactical medical facility. d. Stillbirths.

Answer 39

D

Question 40

(216) The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filingsystem? a. Terminal digit (by patient’s inpatient register number). b. Terminal digit (by sponsor’s social security number). c. Numerically, by inpatient unit. d. Alphabetically, by inpatient unit.

Answer 40

B

Question 41

(216) Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation? a. Unit inpatient records technician. b. Inpatient records section technician. c. Admission and disposition technician. d. Military personnel flight (MPF) personnel during basic military training.

Answer 41

B

Question 42

(217) A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for a. all inpatients unless treated by a tactical medical treatmentfacility. b. patients remaining in the hospital as bed occupants for 48 hours or less. c. inpatients received by transfer for further treatment. d. cases involving communicable diseases.

Answer 42

C

Question 43

(217) Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except a. patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hourstay. b. uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries. c. patients treated at a tactical military treatment facility (MTF). d. normal newborn infants.

Answer 43

C

Question 44

(218) How are fetal monitor strips filed? a. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with outpatient medical records. b. In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records. c. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with inpatientrecords. d. In alphabetical order.

Answer 44

B

Question 45

(218) An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is a. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001. b. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003. c. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004. d. never retired as long as the patient remains on active duty

Answer 45

C

Question 46

(219) Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility untilthe a. patient provides other identification. b. patient provides proof of insurance. c. patient’s eligibility is determined. d. patient pays for treatment.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

(219) Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS) eligibility check? a. A patient issued an identification card within the last 120 days. b. A patient issued an identification card within the last 60 days. c. A patient returned from overseas within the last 120 days. d. A returned from overseas within the last 60 days

Answer 47

A

Question 48

(219) After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the military treatment facility? a. If it is determined that the patient has sufficient insurance. b. If there is a possibility of risk to the Air Force or patient. c. If the patient has other forms of identification. d. If the patient need only minimal medical care.

Answer 48

B

Question 49

(220) What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form? a. Establish a follow up appointment. b. Fax/e-mail a copy to the member’s unit. c. Update medical treatment facility (MTF) records. d. Update the member’s duty status in the Military Personnel Data System(MilPDS).

Answer 49

B

Question 50

(221) A Secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered and a. the specific provider who will follow the designee. b. the specific primary care optimization team the designee is assigned to. c. determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation. d. confirmation that the designee is either a TRICARE prime, extra or standard member.

Answer 50

C

Question 51

(221) When can patients request for a renewal of their Secretary of the Air Force designeestatus? a. The Judge Advocate General determines that continued status may thwart possible litigation. b. A teaching case that is still producing benefits for the Air Force residencyprogram. c. Military treatment facility commander approves the continuation. d. Continued care is still necessary.

Answer 51

D

Question 52

(221) When an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority isthe a. medical group commander. b. Secretary of the Air Force. c. wing commander. d. unit commander.

Answer 52

A

Question 53

(221) Generally how are the applications for designee statussubmitted? a. Through the command surgeon general’s office to HQUSAF/SGMA. b. Through the wing commander to the command surgeon general’s office. c. Through the military treatment facility commander to HQ USAF/SGMA. d. Through the chief of hospital or clinic services to the command surgeon’s office.

Answer 53

A

Question 54

(222) Which of the following is not part of the mission of the special needs identification and assignment coordination (SNIAC) process? a. Identify active duty service members with family members with special educational needs. b. Locates providers and establishes the consults for care. c. Help families obtain information on required services. d. Ensures access to necessary services if reassigned.

Answer 54

B

Question 55

(222) For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the a. military training facility (MTF) in closest proximity to the family. b. military personnel flight (MPF) in closest proximity to the family. c. MTF in closest proximity to the member. d. MPF in closest proximity to the member.

Answer 55

A

Question 56

(223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for physical disability retirement? a. Office of Personnel Management. b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs. c. Department of Labor. d. Air Force.

Answer 56

D

Question 57

(223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits? a. Office of Personnel Management. b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs. c. Department of Labor. d. Air Force.

Answer 57

B

Question 58

(223) Which agency uses line of duty (LOD) determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training? a. Office of Personnel Management. b. Department of Veterans’ Affairs. c. Department of Labor. d. Air Force.

Answer 58

C

Question 59

(224) The three types of line of duty determinations are informal, formal, and a. administrative. b. associative. c. disease/injury. d. general.

Answer 59

A

Question 60

(224) The interim line of duty (LOD) for reserve members is valid for no more than how many days? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 180.

Answer 60

C

Question 61

(224) If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative line of duty (LOD) is more appropriate after an AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the military personnel flight (MPF)/DFMPEP to the a. appointing authority. b. investigating officer. c. unit commander. d. LOD-MFP.

Answer 61

D

Question 62

(224) The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of line of duty (LOD) findings is the a. investigating authority. b. staff judge advocate. c. approval authority. d. unit commander.

Answer 62

C

Question 63

(225) Who is held financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered? a. Nurse. b. Member. c. Supervisor. d. Military treatment facility (MTF) commander.

Answer 63

D

Question 64

(225) Who pays for claims for network care by military treatment facility (MTF) enrolled patients? a. MCSC. b. TRICARE. c. RMC. d. PAD.

Answer 64

A

Question 65

(226) Which office is the “one stop shop” where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM? a. TRICARE. b. Family practice. c. Referral management center. d. Resource management office.

Answer 65

C

Question 66

(227) A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered a. an emergency room death. b. a carded for record only. c. a dead on arrival. d. an outpatient.

Answer 66

A

Question 67

(227) For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility? a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status. b. Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilianfacility. c. A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area. d. A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air Force MTF.

Answer 67

A

Question 68

(227) Patient register numbers are assigned in numericalsequence a. until the facility is closed down. b. on a calendar year basis. c. based on local policy. d. on a fiscal year basis.

Answer 68

A

Question 69

(228) When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560? a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office. b. Admissions technician. c. Attending physician. d. Head nurse.

Answer 69

C

Question 70

(228) Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries? a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office. b. Admitting physician. c. Admissions clerk. d. Charge nurse.

Answer 70

C

Question 71

(228) Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form560? a. Son, USAF E7 (Ret). b. Civilian emergency. c. AD E6 OSI Agent. d. Wife, AD AF 0–3.

Answer 71

C

Question 72

(229) Use the interward transfer Composite Health Care System (CHCS) function to a. move a patient from one unit to another within the military treatment facility (MTF). b. update a remaining overnight (RON) patient’slocation. c. move a patient from one MTF to another MTF. d. correct a previous ward assignment error.

Answer 72

C

Question 73

(229) Composite Health Care System (CHCS) reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility (MTF) personnel are called a. special reports. b. AD HOC reports. c. customized reports. d. Patient Administration Directory (PAD) reports.

Answer 73

B

Question 74

(229) A Composite Health Care System (CHCS) admission notification letter is generated each time a. a patient with private insurance is admitted to the military treatment facility(MTF). b. an active duty patient is admitted to the MTF. c. an SI/VSI or III patient admitted to the MTF. d. an 0–6 or above is admitted to the MTF

Answer 74

B

Question 75

(229) The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers. b. all transactions taking place in the admissions and dispositions (A&D) office. c. admissions, dispositions, and newborns only. d. admissions and dispositions only.

Answer 75

A

Question 76

(230) Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit? a. AF Form 560. b. AF Form 577. c. The outpatient record. d. Patient suspense file.

Answer 76

D

Question 77

(230) What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient? a. Inpatient record. b. Patient control file. c. Patient suspense file. d. Master index of patients.

Answer 77

C

Question 78

(231) When a military patient is admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF), the patient’sunit commander should be notified by a. admission notification letter and telephone or prioritymessage. b. electronic message or telephone. c. admission notification letter only. d. telephone only.

Answer 78

A

Question 79

(231) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF)? a. Immediately, following admission. b. When requested by the flag officer. c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission. d. When expected hospital stay is more than seven days

Answer 79

C

Question 80

(232) An inventory of patient valuables is conducted a. annually. b. quarterly. c. monthly. d. daily.

Answer 80

C

Question 81

(232) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables? a. Staff Sergeant Jones, NCOIC, outpatient records. b. Captain Smith, director, medical logistics. c. Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician. d. Mrs. Lee (GS–6), DBMS’ secretary.

Answer 81

C

Question 82

(233) When a patient’s clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the a. medical service account office. b. disposition office. c. clinical records. d. inpatient unit.

Answer 82

B

Question 83

(233) In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient’s hospitalization? a. Block 33, Primary admission diagnosis. b. Block 38, Diagnoses–Procedures. c. Block 40, Administrative data. d. Block 41, Disposition.

Answer 83

B

Question 84

(234) When a patient’s physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is a. Incapacitating illness or injury. b. Very seriously ill. c. Seriously ill. d. Critically ill.

Answer 84

B

Question 85

(234) When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on a. AF Form 1403, Roster of Seriously Ill/Very Seriously Ill. b. the Composite Health Care System (CHCS). c. AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders. d. SF 509, Progress Notes.

Answer 85

C

Question 86

(234) Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals? a. AF Form 1403. b. AF Form 560. c. AF Form 570. d. SF 509.

Answer 86

C

Question 87

(234) When a patient’s physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for the travel of the patient’s next of kin (NOK) for a. terminally ill family members of active duty personnel. b. SI, VSI, and III active duty military patients. c. SI and VSI active-duty military patients. d. all military patients.

Answer 87

C

Question 88

(235) When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient’s remains to mortuary personnel? a. Within 24 hours after death. b. After a complete and thorough investigation has been conducted. c. When approved by the medical group commander or a designated representative. d. When approved by the wing commander or a designated representative.

Answer 88

A

Question 89

(236) The minimum identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient’s name, family member prefix (FMP), sponsor’s social security number, register number, and the a. name of the military treatment facility (MTF). b. name of the attending physician. c. patient’s social security number. d. inpatient unit.

Answer 89

A

Question 90

(236) When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination? a. Prior to admission to the inpatient unit. b. Within 24 hours after admission. c. Within 7 days of admission. d. Prior to discharge.

Answer 90

B

Question 91

(236) Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician’s instructions to the nursing staff? a. SF 506. b. SF 509. c. SF 539. d. AF Form 3066.

Answer 91

D

Question 92

(236) A provider’s verbal or telephone orders may be taken by a. the unit inpatient records technician (UIRT) or nurse only. b. a nurse or medical technician only. c. anyone assigned to the ward. d. a registered nurse only.

Answer 92

D

Question 93

(237) Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are a. considered to be on “pass” until they return to theward. b. administratively discharged from the hospital. c. reported to the sponsor’s commander. d. considered AWOL.

Answer 93

B

Question 94

(237) To monitor patient absences, use a. updates on the inpatient unit nursing status board. b. AF Form 569, Patient’s Absence Record. c. notes on the AF Form 560. d. a patient sign-out register.

Answer 94

D

Question 95

(237) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is a. maintained on the ward until the patient returns to the ward or is discharged. b. forwarded to the clinic for reference during follow-up outpatient visits. c. forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file. d. forwarded to the inpatient records section for coding and filing.

Answer 95

C

Question 95

(237) Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by the a. medical squadron section commander. b. attending physician’s supervisor. c. patient’s unit commander. d. MDG/CC.

Answer 95

C

Question 96

(238) Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition? a. Dentist. b. Registered nurse. c. Physician assistant. d. Medical service corps officer.

Answer 96

A

Question 97

(238) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your military treatment facility (MTF)? a. DOD policy. b. Local policy. c. Air Force policy. d. Military personnel flight (MPF) policy.

Answer 97

B

Question 98

(239) Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as a. common procedure terminology. b. common patient terminology. c. current procedural terminology. d. current patient terminology.

Answer 98

C

Question 99

(239) What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes? a. History, test, and medical decision making. b. History, physical, and decision making. c. History, lab, and decision making. d. History, examination, and medical decision-making.

Answer 99

D

Question 100

(240) What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information? a. Military Health Service System. b. Current Procedural Terminology. c. Evaluation and Management Codes. d. International Classification of Diseases.

Answer 100

B

Question 101

(240) How many years do category III codes remain in the Current Procedural Terminology Manual? a. One b. Three. c. Five. d. Seven.

Answer 101

C

Question 102

(241) All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are: a. alphanumeric. b. numeric. c. alpha. d. either alpha or numeric.

Answer 102

A

Question 103

(242) According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification, what does a code beginning with the letter “E” mean? a. There is no specific code in the classification system. b. External causes of injury. c. Type of examination. d. Echovirus.

Answer 103

B