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vol2 Flashcards

1
Q

201. Deployment planning and execution process

A

201

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2
Q
  1. Define deployment planning.
A
  1. Deployment planning is a continuous, iterative and highly structured process that allows for an orderly transition from peace to war and then to post-hostilities operations.
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3
Q
  1. Which type of plan is driven by current events in real time and normally occurs in emergencies and in the context of time-sensitive situations?
A
  1. Crisis action plan.
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4
Q
  1. Which document details deployment execution responsibilities and procedures for crisis action and deliberate plans, as well as executing the deployment and reception of equipment and personnel?
A
  1. AFI 10–403.
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5
Q
  1. Deployment sourcing process
A

202

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6
Q
  1. Who initiates a Request for Forces in the development phase of the deployment sourcing process?
A
  1. Combatant commanders.
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7
Q
  1. What name is given to a tasking when a non-standard sourcing solution is required?
A
  1. Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET).
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8
Q
  1. When must MAJCOMs verify whether or not they can support a requirement?
A
  1. After the 10-day initial sourcing window has closed.
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9
Q
  1. Reporting resources
A

203

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10
Q
  1. SORTS assesses unit status based on what two factors?
A
  1. (1) The mission for which it was designed and organized for.(2) The mission as tasked per the OPORD.
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11
Q
  1. What rating applies to a unit if its personnel, equipment, and supplies on hand, equipment, and condition falls between 70 to 89%?
A
  1. C–2.
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12
Q
  1. What is the ART and its purpose?
A
  1. ART is a SIPRNET Web-based tool with a NIPRNET training suite that gives AEF-allocated units the ability to report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status.
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13
Q
  1. Which units are required to report status in ART?
A
  1. All Air Force units including Air National Guard and Reserve components owning standard UTCs postured in UTC availability.
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14
Q
  1. Unit type codes management documents
A

204

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15
Q
  1. What is the definition of a DOC statement?
A
  1. The mission for which a measured unit has been equipped, organized, or designed.
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16
Q
  1. What is the purpose of an Air Force SORTS DOC statement?
A
  1. To summarize the unit’s mission using the DRRS core Mission Essential Task List and provide units with a single document referencing all that determine the pool of resources and training to measure and report in SORTS.
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17
Q
  1. What does the LOGDET define?
A
  1. The standard passenger and equipment movement requirements for each UTC.
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18
Q
  1. What is the objective of MANFOR?
A
  1. To provide joint and AF planners with standardized force capabilities documenting manpower requirements for execution, operations and planning documents.
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19
Q
  1. Air Expeditionary Task Force force modules
A

205

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20
Q
  1. Name the seven initial capabilities contained within the Open the airbase force module.
A
  1. (1) Command and control.(2) Force protection.(3) Logistics.(4) Airfield operations.(5) Cargo and passenger handling.(6) Force accountability.(7) Finance and contracting, reception and bed down of additional forces.
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21
Q
  1. Provided there is no need for extensive operational landing strip preparation, how soon after arrival of forces should the Open the airbase force module reach IOC?
A
  1. Within 24 hours.
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22
Q
  1. When is the C2 force module estimated to be able to declare IOC?
A
  1. 16 hours from arrival at the deployed location.
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23
Q
  1. List the additional capabilities the Establish the airbase force module deploys that are excluded in preceding modules due to lack of immediate urgency.
A
  1. (a) Aerial port.(b) Infrastructure.(c) Site preparation.(d) POL.(e) Vehicle operations and maintenance.(f) Billeting.(g) Finance.(h) Contracting and utilities.(i) Force protection.(j) Emergency response.(k) Personnel accountability.(l) Munitions management.(m) Communications.
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24
Q
  1. How many subordinate force modules comprise the Generate the mission force module?
A
  1. Three
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25
Q
  1. Which subordinate force module contains aviation and direct aviation support?
A
  1. MUG.
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26
Q
  1. The Operate the airbase force module includes mission support forces necessary to achieve what capability level?
A
  1. FOC.
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27
Q
  1. In the Robust the airbase force module, how many days do support forces generally arrive after the deployed location is established?
A
  1. 30 days.
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28
Q
  1. Typical initial airbase missions
A

206

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29
Q
  1. What are the two Contingency Response Force mission sets?
A
  1. (1) Contingency response.(2) Mobility advisory missions.
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30
Q
  1. What is the deployable CRG’s primary mission?
A
  1. To open and/or operate airfields or airbases after seizure, or whenever needed to assess, open, and initially operate airbases in support of the Air Force component of the COCOM.
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31
Q
  1. What is the role of TDC?
A
  1. To support the efficient transfer of command and control, intelligence, logistics, and administrative data between fixed sites and deployed locations, multiple functional areas at each deployed location, and/or CONUS gateway locations and deployed locations.
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32
Q
  1. Which units are the largest users of TDC equipment?
A
  1. Combat Communications units.
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33
Q
  1. Which TDC package is established within 48 hours and supports 50-150 users in a café?
A
  1. Core Services.
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34
Q
  1. C4ISR platforms typical to cyberspace support career fields
A

207

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35
Q
  1. What two configurations can GTACS be deployed in and represents the assemblage of considerable resources?
A
  1. (1) CRC.(2) CRE.
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36
Q
  1. List the GTACS Battle Management elements.
A
  1. (a) AOC.(b) CRC.(c) CRE.(d) ASOC.(e) TACP.
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37
Q
  1. What is the focal point for planning, directing, and assessing air, space, and cyberspace operations to meet JFACC operational objectives and guidance?
A
  1. AOC.
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38
Q
  1. List the ground elements of the Theater Air Control System (TACS).
A
  1. (a) AOC.(b) CRC.(c) ASOC.(d) TACP.
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39
Q
  1. What is the ASOC’s overall mission?
A
  1. Provide tactical C2 of Close Air Support (CAS) assets to support Army, joint, and/or coalition ground force commanders.
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40
Q
  1. What is unique about an ASOS?
A
  1. It is comprised primarily of Air Force personnel and attached to various U.S. Army units.
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41
Q
  1. UASs were primarily developed for what purpose?
A
  1. For use in reconnaissance and intelligence gathering.
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42
Q
  1. List the common components all UASs have.
A
  1. (a) UA.(b) Payload.(c) Control element.(d) Communications.(e) Support element.
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43
Q
  1. Which UAS categories are typically employed through an operational squadron, and operated by qualified pilots?
A
  1. Category 4 and 5 (RPAs).
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44
Q
  1. Additional communications support roles
A

208

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45
Q
  1. What are EI units responsible for designing, engineering, and installing?
A
  1. The full range of cyberspace equipment and components typically found at a fixed site and other specialty systems unique to expeditionary forces.
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46
Q
  1. Which unit is assigned as the Engineering Installation Governance Structure Secretariat, and centrally manages and implements AF-wide cyberspace requirements and projects (not including ANG bases)?
A
  1. 38 CEIG.
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47
Q
  1. What is the timeframe Air Force installations have to disseminate emergency information after incident notification and verification?
A
  1. Immediately, but no longer than 10 minutes after incident notification and verification.
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48
Q
  1. Where is the AFN broadcast center located, and what services does it provide?
A
  1. Riverside, California; provides programming for military radio and television outlets overseas.
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49
Q
  1. Overview and Initiate phase of Project Management
A

209

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50
Q
  1. What MPTO defines project management as “the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?”
A
  1. MPTO 00–33A–1001.
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51
Q
  1. Name the five phases of project management.
A
  1. (1) Initiate.(2) Planning.(3) Execute.(4) Close.(5) Control.
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52
Q
  1. What are some items to consider when defining requirements?
A
  1. Current Infrastructure, Radio Frequencies, Training Security, Space Tools/Equipment, Electrical Power, and HVAC Man hours.
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53
Q
  1. What information is required when submitting Cyber Systems requirements?
A
  1. Requirement Description (Required Capability), Justification, Funding Availability, Mission Impact, Required Implementation Date. Priority.
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54
Q
  1. Plan phase
A

210

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55
Q
  1. What are some common actions during the planning phase?
A
  1. Requirement review/validation, Site Survey Development/Validation of Technical Solution and Costing, Identify logistic support requirements, Development of Project Support Agreement/Project Support Plan, Development of Project Package, Project material acquisition, accountability and storage, Allied support completion, Schedule development.
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56
Q
  1. What are the two types of site surveys?
A
  1. (1) Desktop.(2) On-site.
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57
Q
  1. What formally documents communications and information systems requirements and approval for base support?
A
  1. The Project Support Agreement.
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58
Q
  1. Execute phase
A

211

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59
Q
  1. Why is it important to remain involved in the execute phase?
A
  1. To minimize or eliminate any problems that may occur.
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60
Q
  1. Define deliverables.
A
  1. The desired outcome, product, or service of a project.
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61
Q
  1. What are the three types of change requests?
A
  1. (1) Corrective action.(2) Preventive action.(3) Defect repairs.
62
Q
  1. Close phase
A

212

63
Q
  1. What is the most important document to have signed during the close phase?
A
  1. The AFTO Form 747.
64
Q
  1. What is accomplished before a system or facility is turned over?
A
  1. Acceptance Inspection.
65
Q
  1. All IT systems require what?
A
  1. A security vulnerability assessment.
66
Q
  1. What are the two types of exceptions that can affect a system from meeting inspection criteria?
A
  1. Major and minor.
67
Q
  1. What must be used to formally transfer all real property to Base Civil Engineering?
A
  1. DD Form 1354.
68
Q
  1. Control phase
A

213

69
Q
  1. What phases does the control phase overlap?
A
  1. The Plan, Execute, and Close phases.
70
Q
  1. What is used during the control phase to organize project documentation?
A
  1. Project Folder.
71
Q
  1. Responsibilities
A

214

72
Q
  1. What is an Implementing Organization?
A
  1. Implements a technical solution to a base, or requiring organization, with funds from a lead command.
73
Q
  1. Who assists project managers with the technical aspects of a project?
A
  1. Project monitor.
74
Q
  1. Information Technology Infrastructure Library
A

215

75
Q
  1. What is the IT Infrastructure Library?
A
  1. A framework that provides structure and best practice guidelines for implementing and maintaining IT Service Management.
76
Q
  1. Name the five key stages of the ITIL Service life Cycle.
A
  1. (1) Service Strategy.(2) Service Design.(3) Service Transition.(4) Service Operation.(5) Continual Service Improvement
77
Q
  1. What is the goal of the Continual Service Improvement stage?
A
  1. To ensure that services are aligned with changes.
78
Q
  1. Information Technology/National Security System Architecture
A

216

79
Q
  1. Which AFI provides the roles and responsibilities required to ensure all architectures are built for purpose; built to quality standards; and enable analysis that can be used to support decision making and guide transformation?
A
  1. AFI 33–401.
80
Q
  1. Define federated architecture.
A
  1. It is a collection of information assets that accommodates the uniqueness and specific purpose of unlike architectures and allows them to remain autonomous while enabling the enterprise to benefit from their content.
81
Q
  1. What is the current online repository of IT standards that mandates the minimum set of standards and guidelines for the acquisition of all DOD systems that produce, use, or exchange information?
A
  1. GTG-F.
82
Q
  1. What is the Air Force’s authoritative source for enterprise standard IT products, computer configurations, platform and service profiles, technical solutions, and standard configurations of software and hardware?
A
  1. i-TRM.
83
Q
  1. Which Air Force unit provides oversight for the Cyberspace Systems Integrator?
A
  1. The 38th Engineering Squadron.
84
Q
  1. Installation records and work orders
A

217

85
Q
  1. Which publication governs the use of CIPS and applies to all 3D Air Force Specialties working on communications systems/equipment unless exempted by the appropriate career field functional managers?
A
  1. TO 00–33D–3003.
86
Q
  1. What is the approved automated information system for planning, installing, and managing the Air Force’s cyberspace infrastructure?
A
  1. CIPS.
87
Q
  1. Using the Requirements process flow chart from TO 00–33D–3003, what step takes place after validating a requirement?
A
  1. Create a TS&C.
88
Q
  1. What does a trouble ticket or work order that exceeds its scope become in CIPS?
A
  1. A requirement.
89
Q
  1. What is the integrated tool permitting users to create, track, and process work orders within CIPS at both the base and MAJCOM levels, while keeping work orders and infrastructure requirements as separate business objects?
A
  1. WOMS.
90
Q
  1. Name the AF enterprise application, not available with the Legacy CSIRs that provides real-time situational awareness and analytical tools consisting of interim installation records, engineering drawings, and reference drawings.
A
  1. The CVC.
91
Q
  1. What are the three parts of the CSIR?
A
  1. (1) Administrative records.(2) Drawing records.(3) Maintenance records.
92
Q
  1. Who serves as the focal point for processing data for updating CSIR drawings and for receiving new drawings?
A
  1. Base IT/NSS Installation Records Manager/CSIR Manager.
93
Q
  1. Processing information technology requirements and circuit requests
A

218

94
Q
  1. What system does a requesting agency use as the method for submitting requests?
A
  1. CIPS.
95
Q
  1. As a minimum who is required to review and validate technical solutions?
A
  1. Affected Work Centers, CSIs, Project Managers, and the base CSO.
96
Q
  1. Define special communication requirements.
A
  1. Requirements that need additional assistance from agencies outside of the normal communications squadron to develop the complete technical solution for the requirement.
97
Q
  1. What authorization is required to connect communications systems and equipment to one of the host country’s communications media?
A
  1. Connection Approval.
98
Q
  1. What are the three types of completion reports?
A
  1. (1) In-Effect Report.(2) Exception Report.(3) Delayed Service Report
99
Q
  1. Plans
A

219

100
Q
  1. What is the objective of concept planning?
A
  1. To develop rapidly expandable sound operational and support concepts.
101
Q
  1. Which type of plan is written using JOPES procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN without a TPFDD?
A
  1. Functional Plan.
102
Q
  1. Which plan outlines the details on how to respond to an emergency?
A
  1. Operations Plan.
103
Q
  1. Which plan covers events like an aircraft crash recovery, snow removal, or hurricane condition?
A
  1. Peacetime OPLAN.
104
Q
  1. Who is the communications squadron focal point for all plans?
A
  1. Plans Flight.
105
Q
  1. What attachment to an OPLAN covers all communications aspects required to support an operation?
A
  1. Annex K.
106
Q
  1. In most cases, which flight maintains administrative responsibilities to assist the OPR in the upkeep of any plans pertaining to the communications squadron?
A
  1. Plans Flight.
107
Q
  1. Which type of planning meeting identifies Civil Engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities and relocations of organizations?
A
  1. Facilities Utilization Board
108
Q
  1. Modification management
A

220

109
Q
  1. Which type of modification changes the configuration of an item in order to satisfy short-term operational mission requirements by adding, modifying, or removing hardware and/or software components or capabilities in a manner that provides an immediate operational benefit?
A
  1. T–1 Modification.
110
Q
  1. Which type of modification is a permanent modification that corrects materiel or other deficiencies that could endanger the safety or health of personnel, or cause the loss of, or extensive damage to systems or equipment?
A
  1. Safety Modification.
111
Q
  1. Which document normally initiates temporary modifications and permanent sustainment modifications for fielded systems and equipment?
A
  1. AF Form 1067, Modification Proposal.
112
Q
  1. When does the span of configuration control begin?
A
  1. Begins once the first configuration document is approved and base lined.
113
Q
  1. Agreements
A

221

114
Q
  1. What is the purpose of support agreements?
A
  1. Identify the specific support and responsibilities of the supplying and receiving activities.
115
Q
  1. What form are intra-service and inter-service support agreements documented on?
A
  1. DD Form 1144, Support Agreement.
116
Q
  1. What four categories of support does the DD Form 1144 document?
A
  1. (1) Intra-service agreements.(2) Inter-service agreements.(3) Intra-governmental agreements.(4) Other non-Federal activity agreements.
117
Q
  1. What type of memorandum defines general areas of conditional agreement between two or more parties?
A
  1. Memorandum of Agreement
118
Q
  1. Which instruction governs the preparation of international support agreements?
A
  1. AFI 51–701, Negotiating, Concluding, Recording and Maintaining International Agreements.
119
Q
  1. Who is responsible for developing and maintaining an index of all support agreements in the Communications Squadron?
A
  1. Plans section.
120
Q
  1. Establishing and managing a contract
A

222

121
Q
  1. What must you do if you suspect an existing contract is applicable for a technical solution?
A
  1. Contact the base Contracting Office for clarification and support.
122
Q
  1. Which law requires that any contract proposals written by the government must allow for “full and open competition”?
A
  1. CICA.
123
Q
  1. Which document outlines the processes, procedures, and restrictions applying to all government contracts?
A
  1. FAR.
124
Q
  1. Contract packages normally consist of what four parts?
A
  1. (1) The schedule.(2) Contract clauses.(3) List of documents, Exhibits and other attachments.(4) Representations and instructions
125
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a PWS?
A
  1. To detail the work requirements for projects and programs having deliverables and/or services performed.
126
Q
  1. What is the plan established to compare a contractor’s performance to the PWS called?
A
  1. QASP.
127
Q
  1. How often are contract reviews of the PWS and QASP required?
A
  1. Annually.
128
Q
  1. Types of contracts
A

223

129
Q
  1. Which type of contract covers situations when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?
A
  1. Time and Material.
130
Q
  1. Which type of contract is not subject to any adjustable fees?
A
  1. Firm Fixed Price.
131
Q
  1. Which contract is made when only one viable source exists and no other supplies or services will satisfy the requirement?
A
  1. Sole Source.
132
Q
  1. What is the transfer of control of target business activity and associated assets to a public or private sector entity called?
A
  1. Privatization.
133
Q
  1. Which type of contract is prepared for a specific quantity of supplies or services for a fixed period?
A

5 Indefinite Delivery.

134
Q
  1. Define blanket purchase agreement.
A
  1. A BPA is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply.
135
Q
  1. List an advantage of contracting COTS equipment
A
  1. Using COTS products allows the purchase of products to be cheaper and faster because the government does not have to fund or wait on designs.
136
Q
  1. Responsibilities
A

224

137
Q
  1. Who delegates responsibilities to the base contracting office to enter into legal negotiations and commit the government to pay for products or services?
A
  1. Installation Commander.
138
Q
  1. Who is responsible for training CORs on their duties, contract surveillance techniques, and standards of conduct within 90 days of appointment?
A
  1. Contracting Office.
139
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensuring CORs maintain proficiency in their functional areas?
A
  1. FD/FC.
140
Q
  1. Who is responsible for providing training to QA Personnel as well as the FC/FD?
A
  1. QAPC.
141
Q
  1. Name the functionally qualified person selected by the Functional Commander to evaluate and accept contract services.
A
  1. QAE.
142
Q
  1. Who is the single POC for the unit commander for monitoring all contracts?
A
  1. UCM.
143
Q
  1. Base civil engineering interface
A

225

144
Q
  1. Which work center acts as the unit focal point when interacting with BCE to provide design support to and/or obtain BCE support?
A
  1. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.
145
Q
  1. Which CE work center is the centralized area that all CE or equivalent agency work requests pass through?
A
  1. CE customer service desk.
146
Q
  1. Who plans all of the work for the various BCE work centers?
A
  1. BCE’s planning section.
147
Q
  1. Military construction program
A

226

148
Q
  1. Who reviews and validates major construction projects, then prioritizes it among other base facility requirements?
A
  1. Facilities Utilization Board.
149
Q
  1. In addition to authorization, what is required for a MILCON project to go from paper to breaking ground?
A
  1. Appropriations.
150
Q
  1. What is the threshold dollar amount for minor construction projects when using O&M funds?
A
  1. $1 million.
151
Q
  1. What meetings are conducted by BCE to review the drawings and specifications related to a MILCON project?
A
  1. Construction Design Reviews.
152
Q
  1. Name the law that governs our nation’s environmental concerns and ensures we carefully consider any undertakings having the ability to harm the environment or impose risks upon others.
A
  1. NEPA of 1969.

z3dx7x self-test (4 decks)

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