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questions1 Flashcards

1
Q

001. Qualifications and progression within Cyber specialties

A

1

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2
Q
  1. What are the Cyberspace Support specialist’s general responsibilities?
A
  1. Performing system analysis and design, programming, systems operation and maintenance, resource management and security management.
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3
Q
  1. What CompTIA certification fulfills the DODD 8570 requirement for IAT Level I only?
A
  1. Network+.
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4
Q

____ (1) Cyber Surety.

A

c. 3D0X3.

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5
Q

____ (2) Client Systems.

A

e. 3D1X1.

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6
Q

____ (3) Spectrum Operations

A

h. 3D1X4.

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7
Q

____ (4) Cyber Transport Ssytems.

A

f. 3D1X2.

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8
Q

____ (5) RF Transmission Systems.

A

g. 3D1X3.

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9
Q

____ (6) Cyber Systems Operations.

A

b. 3D0X2.

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10
Q

____ (7) Cable and Antenna Systems.

A

i. 3D1X7.

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11
Q

____ (8) Computer Systems Programming.

A

d. 3D0X4.

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12
Q

____ (9) Knowledge Operations Management.

A

a. 3D0X1.

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13
Q
  1. Which career Cyberspace Support career field(s) require IAT Level II certifications?
A
  1. 3D0X2, 3D0X3, and 3D1X2 .
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14
Q
  1. What career fields require personnel to be free from fear of heights and claustrophobia?
A
  1. Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7).
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15
Q
  1. What CFETP sections outline the required skills and progression for each assigned career field?
A
  1. Part I Sections B and C.
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16
Q
  1. For personnel not in retraining status what is the minimum number of months OJT are required for upgrade to the 5- and 7-skill levels?
A
  1. 12 Months.
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17
Q
  1. What function(s) of the unit’s operational mission does the Communications Focal Point directly support?
A
  1. Voice and data network systems, radio systems, video, and all other communications/cyber equipment/systems, while maintaining visibility of performance.
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18
Q
  1. What is the first organization that AFNET users contact when they experience issues with their government provided end-user equipment?
A
  1. ESD.
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19
Q
  1. Manpower and organization
A

2

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20
Q
  1. How is manpower sized?
A
  1. To reflect the minimum essential level to accomplish the required workload.
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21
Q
  1. Which document provides formulas to calculate target manning?
A
  1. AFMAN 38–208.
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22
Q
  1. Who provides the UMD to the organization?
A
  1. Local Mission Support Squadron’s Manpower and Organization office.
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23
Q
  1. Define unfunded positions.
A
  1. Approved manpower authorizations that have not been funded for fill by the Air Force.
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24
Q
  1. Define funded positions.
A
  1. Authorized manpower awarded to the unit and funded by the Air Force.
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25
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the UPMR?
A
  1. The UPMR is used to match personnel assigned within the unit to the position numbers listed on the UMD.
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26
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the PEC?
A
  1. It defines which pot of money will pay for a specific position.
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27
Q
  1. Who originates an ACR?
A
  1. The requesting unit.
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28
Q
  1. An OCR includes which actions?
A
  1. Unit activation, inactivation, redesignation, or variation to a policy, guidance, procedure or standard organization structure as depicted AFI 38–101.
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29
Q
  1. How does an OCR differ from an ACR?
A
  1. It does not add, modify or change existing authorizations; it adds or removes work centers or realigns flights or work centers within the unit.
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30
Q
  1. Career field management
A

3

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31
Q
  1. Which strategic level position is typically manned by CMSgts assigned to HAF and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields?
A
  1. AFCFM.
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32
Q
  1. Who possesses final authority to waive CFETP requirements?
A
  1. AFCFM.
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33
Q
  1. Who serves as the MAJCOM liaison for her/his respective AFCFM?
A
  1. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
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34
Q
  1. Under what circumstances is the STRT held in conjunction with the U&TW?
A
  1. When it is obvious that new requirements will not drive additional sources.
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35
Q
  1. What is the primary purpose of the STRT?
A
  1. For the AFCFM and functional leaders to determine and present training requirements to the AETC.
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36
Q
  1. Who attends the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A
  1. AFCFM (Co-chair), AETC/TPM (Co-chair), AETC/TM, AETC/Program Element Manager (PEM), and MFMs. Optional U&TW attendees include the AETC CDC writer and representatives from AFCDA, AETC Occupational Analysis Division, AFPC education, training, and classification, and the AETC instructional technology unit (ITU).
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37
Q
  1. What is the aim of the Occupational Survey?
A
  1. To facilitate decision-making on Air Force personnel and training programs by providing objective information about Air Force occupations.
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38
Q
  1. Who is the job survey distributed to?
A
  1. All eligible career field members.
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39
Q
  1. Managing documenting, and scheduling
A

4

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40
Q
  1. What AIS is used to track outages for computer and cyber network equipment?
A
  1. Remedy.
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41
Q
  1. What AIS is used to document actions on any item with an assigned SRD?
A
  1. IMDS.
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42
Q
  1. What is the ESR system currently used for reporting IMDS related equipment status?
A
  1. REMIS.
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43
Q
  1. Define partial mission capable.
A
  1. System or equipment functioning in such a way that it can perform at least one, but not all of its assigned missions or functions; system is impaired but usable.
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44
Q
  1. Define inactive equipment.
A
  1. Equipment not commissioned or installed to perform an operational mission or requirement.
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45
Q
  1. What is used to develop user-level master inspection schedules?
A
  1. Scheduled inspection intervals.
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46
Q
  1. What is an Authorized Service Interruption?
A
  1. Coordinated and planned outage for preventative maintenance inspections, configuration changes and optimizations that require an AFNet component/service to be unavailable for a specified length of time.
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47
Q
  1. Training
A

5

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48
Q
  1. What is the system officially used to document training?
A
  1. TBA.
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49
Q
  1. What four items must the MTP include?
A
  1. (1) Master Task List.(2) Current CFETP and applicable AFJQS.(3) Local JQS (if applicable).(4) Milestones for tasks and CDC completion.
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50
Q
  1. What types of tasks are identified in the Master Task List?
A
  1. Contingency/Wartime tasks, additional duties identified by the supervisor as certifiable tasks, and mandatory core tasks identified by the AFCFM.
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51
Q
  1. Who determines when the trainee is ready for task certification?
A
  1. The trainer.
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52
Q
  1. How is the initial evaluation documented?
A
  1. Document the completion of the evaluation with a journal entry on the TBA Website via the Air Force Portal.
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53
Q
  1. What must be done prior to conducting the initial evaluation on newly assigned personnel?
A
  1. The supervisor must assign individual training requirements to the trainee’s Individual Training Plan.
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54
Q
  1. Which two factors should supervisors include when providing trainee feedback?
A
  1. (1) Include what the trainee is doing correctly (positive feedback).(2) Provide areas for improvement (constructive feedback)
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55
Q
  1. Who are UTC Personnel Evaluations conducted on?
A
  1. All 3DXXX personnel assigned to UTC-based organizations whose primary mission is to deploy.
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56
Q
  1. Safety and risk management
A

6

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57
Q
  1. Define ORM.
A
  1. ORM is a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation.
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58
Q
  1. Name the four principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM.
A
  1. (1) Accept no unnecessary risk.(2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.(3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.(4) Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.
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59
Q
  1. Which document would you reference to learn about the ORM program?
A
  1. AFI 90–901, Operational Risk Management (ORM) Program.
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60
Q
  1. What is specifically tailored to address safety concerns of the work environment?
A
  1. A JST guide.
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61
Q
  1. Who provides job safety training to all newly assigned individuals?
A
  1. Supervisors.
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62
Q
  1. What must be exercised to ensure personnel follow all precautions and safety measures, including the proper use of PPE?
A
  1. Control over job tasks.
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63
Q
  1. What is the first step in Job Safety Analysis step?
A
  1. Document the activity: Assemble those involved in the activity and then, using the JSA worksheet, write down the tasks that make up the activity, step by step.
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64
Q
  1. What must be in place to ensure workers have the skills to complete the job and that there is a required level of supervision to ensure the tasks are completed as documented?
A
  1. Management processes.
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65
Q
  1. What will supervisors perform to check the day-to-day safety and health of an organization, work center, facility, and so forth?
A
  1. Spot inspections.
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66
Q
  1. Publications and directives
A

7

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67
Q
  1. What enables easy filing and indexing of TOs and provides a means for users to identify and establish distribution requirements?
A
  1. TO sequencing.
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68
Q
  1. What is the official Air Force system for managing TO libraries?
A
  1. ETIMS.
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69
Q

____ (1) Support equipment designed and manufactured for commercial use.

A

f. COTS Manual

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70
Q

____ (2) Excerpts from one or more basic TOs that organize and simplify instructions.

A

g. Abbreviated TO

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71
Q

____ (3) Used for modifying military systems and end items or performing one-time inspections.

A

a. TCTO

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72
Q

____ (4) Category 00 and are general in content and are not issued against specific military systems or end items.

A

b. MPTO

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73
Q

____ (5) Developed for other services or government departments and authorized for use by Air Force personnel.

A

i. Joint use publication

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74
Q

____ (6) Used in lieu of specific equipment TOs, and are categorized into three types: Category, System, and Equipment-series.

A

e. General TO

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75
Q

____ (7) Contain instructions for use in conjunction with data contained in their parent TOs, and are not stand-alone publications.

A

h. Supplemental TO

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76
Q

____ (8) Covers installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing or handling of Air Force military systems and end items.

A

c. SIPTO

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77
Q

____ (9) Include facility, system, subsystem, installation engineering and installation manuals, general engineering and planning manuals, and standard installation practices.

A

d. O&M TO

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78
Q
  1. What POC oversees TO requirements and distribution within an organization?
A
  1. The TODO.
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79
Q
  1. What are the duties of the TODO?
A
  1. Establish and maintain a TO Account in ETIMS, establish and maintain organization TODA for organization subaccounts, and maintain records of TOs required and on hand in organization physical distribution media TO libraries.
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80
Q
  1. When do work centers ensure LWCs, LJGs, LPSs, and LCLs are reviewed for currency?
A
  1. When source references change, or at least annually
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81
Q
  1. How are LWC Identification numbers developed?
A
  1. LWC, LCL, or LJG followed by originating organization, and the TO number or designator.
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82
Q
  1. What business sectors does the ANSI influence?
A
  1. Nearly every sector of business.
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83
Q
  1. Where does the Telecommunications Industry Association obtain its accreditation?
A
  1. From the ANSI.
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84
Q
  1. What standards does the ECIA develop?
A
  1. Interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI-designation of EIA standards.
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85
Q
  1. What are the negative effects of inadequate research when developing publications?
A
  1. Inadequate research could result in issuing more than one publication on the same subject, conflicting instructions, or publishing a nonessential or incomplete publication.
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86
Q
  1. List the required activities for creating a new publication.
A
  1. (1) Draft and collaborate with publications change manager.(2) Formal coordination.(3) Obtain certifying official’s endorsement.(4) Obtain approving official’s endorsement.(5) Submit to publications manager for final processing.
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87
Q
  1. What immediate result is expected after an AF TCNO is issued?
A
  1. Patching of AFIN or DoDIN systems to minimize or eliminate exploitation vulnerabilities.
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88
Q
  1. Authority and user responsibilities
A

8

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89
Q
  1. The USC is a compilation of which types of federal laws of the United States?
A
  1. General and permanent.
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90
Q
  1. What USC Title includes cyber-related topics, such as cyber security research and online shopper protection?
A
  1. USC Title 15, Commerce and Trade.
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91
Q
  1. What is meant by the term posse comitatus and what does it enforce?
A
  1. “Force of the country”; civil law when not expressly authorized by the Constitution or an act of Congress.
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92
Q
  1. Chapter 5 of what USC Title spells out the situations in which one can draw special pay or reenlistment bonuses?
A
  1. USC Title 37, Pay and Allowances of the Uniformed Services.
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93
Q
  1. What is the premise of the War Power Resolution?
A
  1. To clarify and expand on constitutional authority to enter the U.S. Armed Forces into hostilities.
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94
Q
  1. How does Air Force EIM enable mission capabilities?
A
  1. Through seamless integrated access to the right information anytime or anywhere.
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95
Q
  1. What is the primary purpose of a chat room?
A
  1. To share information via text with a group of individuals.
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96
Q
  1. What does the DCO portal do?
A
  1. Allows for registration, authentication and scheduling connection meetings and instant messaging sessions.
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97
Q
  1. What are the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites?
A
  1. Public and private.
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98
Q
  1. What is the difference between the two types of Air Force Web pages/sites?
A
  1. Public Webpages/sites are intended for viewing by the general public; private webpages/sites are intended for a limited audience.
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99
Q
  1. Who has the overall responsibility for publishing local policy and guidance defining authorized personal use of the internet?
A
  1. Wing commander.
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100
Q
  1. Define official use.
A
  1. Performance of work associated with your day-to-day responsibilities or performance of only official duties on official time.
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101
Q
  1. Name four situations that can be considered unethical but not necessarily illegal.
A
  1. (1) Personal conflict of interest.(2) Covered relationships.(3) Misuse of position.(4) Non-public information.
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102
Q
  1. Resource management
A

9

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103
Q
  1. What is the DoD internal methodology used to allocate resources to capabilities?
A
  1. The PPBE process.
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104
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the PPBE process?
A
  1. To allocate resources within the Department of Defense.
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105
Q
  1. Name three factors supervisors should consider for future operating costs when planning the work center budget.
A

(1) Will new equipment need to be purchased? If so, what is the total cost?(2) Which initial spares are required, and will they be locally funded?(3) Which items need to be added to bench stock and how much will they cost?(4) Are any special tools required? If so, what is the cost?(5) Is formal training required? If so, what are the temporary duty (TDY) costs?(6) Will extra trips to the site be necessary?

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106
Q
  1. What information can be used as a baseline for projecting next year’s operating costs?
A
  1. Cost information from supply reports.
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107
Q
  1. What does the MILCON program cover?
A
  1. All land acquisition; Acquiring and constructing facilities; Adding to, expanding, extending, converting, altering, or replacing existing facilities; Relocating facilities; Planning and Design; Construction overhead, supervision, and inspection; Equipment installed in and made a part of real property structures and improvements and real property installed equipment-RPIE.
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108
Q
  1. While congressional appropriations committees approve individual projects, what about the amounts appropriated?
A
  1. They may be less than their estimated cost.
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109
Q
  1. What is the main goal of the Government Purchase Card Program?
A
  1. To provide Air Force users a simplified, streamlined method of purchasing and paying for simple, low-dollar value, items of supply and service.
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110
Q
  1. What regulation provides in-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card Program?
A
  1. AFI 64–117.
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111
Q

____ (1) The Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC) Liaises between the Air Force organizations and the PCPMO and Communicates DoD and the Air Force policy to the field.

A

b. Level 2

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112
Q

____ (2) Commonly referred to as the Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC), and is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring at the installation level.

A

d. Level 4

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113
Q

____ (3) Approving Official (AO) approves/disapproves all purchases subsequent to reconciliation by the cardholder, accounts for funds, and conducts surveillance on cardholders within the AO’s account .

A

e. Level 5

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114
Q

____ (4) DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO) Establishes annual training documentation requirements and oversees the purchase card program.

A

a. Level 1

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115
Q

____ (5) The individual cardholder (CH) makes authorized transactions, and logs and reconciles transactions.

A

f. Level 6

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116
Q

____ (6) GPC program implemented and administered at the MAJCOM/Agency level.

A

c. Level 3

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117
Q
  1. What does the Air Force use as the electronic tool for managing its GPC program?
A
  1. PCOLS.
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118
Q
  1. When do wing or equivalent commanders submit shortfalls or reclamas?
A
  1. When a wing or tasked unit does not possess sufficient equipment or qualified personnel to support a UTC or the tasking will shut down critical elements of the home station mission.
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119
Q
  1. Define shortfall.
A
  1. The lack of forces, equipment, personnel, material or capability reflected as the difference between the resources identified as a plan requirement and those apportioned to a combatant commander for planning that would adversely affect the command’s ability to accomplish its mission
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120
Q
  1. List the conditions that will make a shortfall valid.
A
  1. The capability is not available at the unit and the wing or tasked unit has the capability and sufficient personnel to meet requirements, but deployment of personnel and/or equipment would cause a severe mission impact on the wing or unit.
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121
Q
  1. Recognition
A

10

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122
Q
  1. Which agency honors the 12 Outstanding Airmen at its annual convention in Washington D.C.?
A
  1. Air Force Association.
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123
Q
  1. If selected as one of the 12 Outstanding Airmen, what must the nominees agree to in a signed statement of intent?
A
  1. Nominees must sign a statement of intent agreeing to obtain retainability to serve for 12 months on the AFA Enlisted Advisory Council beginning on their 12 OAY induction date (September). Additionally, the statement of intent requires the member to agree not to apply for a commissioning program during the year of selection.
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124
Q
  1. What achievement(s) does the Lance P. Sijan USAF Leadership Award recognizes officers and enlisted leaders for?
A
  1. This award recognizes officers and enlisted leaders who exude the highest level of leadership in the performance of their duties and off duty conduct.
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125
Q
  1. Which document provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community?
A
  1. AFI 36–2845, Secretary of the Air Force, Chef of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer Special Trophies and Awards.
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126
Q
  1. How long must individuals be in their rank tier and duty AFSC to be nominated for the Information Dominance Award?
A
  1. Nominated individuals must have been in the rank tier and performed in the duty AFSC for at and for least 183 days during the award period of service
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127
Q
  1. Basic components
A

11

128
Q
  1. What does RAM mean?
A
  1. The term “random access” refers to the method of addressing memory. With random access, the CPU can address any memory location directly and read the data contained at that memory location.
129
Q
  1. What is the difference between ROM and RAM?
A
  1. ROM is a type of memory that normally can only be read, as opposed to RAM, which can be both read and written to. The data stored in ROM is always there, whether there is power or no power.
130
Q
  1. What is the special type of memory used to store the BIOS settings in a PC?
A
  1. CMOS memory.
131
Q
  1. What term is used for the speed enhancement resulting from a small amount of memory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the computer’s main memory?
A
  1. Cache.
132
Q
  1. What is the “trade name” that refers to the 40-pin interface and drive-controller architecture designed to implement the ATA standard?
A
  1. IDE.
133
Q
  1. Which connection enables data transfer speeds of 480 Mbps and can handle up to 127 peripherals at once?
A
  1. USB 2.0
134
Q
  1. How much data can be stored on a CD-R?
A
  1. Up to 700MB
135
Q
  1. Most high-volume printers can connect to a network directly using what internal device?
A
  1. Integrated NIC
136
Q
  1. Software
A

12

137
Q
  1. At the simplest level, state the two things that an operating system does.
A
  1. It manages hardware and software resources of the computer system, and provides a stable, consistent way for applications to deal with the hardware without having to know all of the details of the software.
138
Q
  1. Name an operating system’s six task categories.
A
  1. (1) Processor management.(2) Memory management.(3) Device management.(4) Storage management.(5) Application interface.(6) User interface.
139
Q
  1. Name the Microsoft Windows family of operating systems.
A
  1. Windows 98, Windows NT, Windows 2000 series, Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7 and Windows 8.
140
Q
  1. What is a domain?
A
  1. A collection of computers defined by the administrator of a Windows Server network that share a common directory/database
141
Q
  1. When did Bell Labs develop the UNIX operating system?
A
  1. In the early 1970s.
142
Q
  1. What do you call the UNIX program that you interact with directly from your terminal or workstation?
A
  1. The “shell.”
143
Q
  1. Name four common UNIX shells.
A
  1. (1) Bourne shell.(2) Korn Shell.(3) C shell.(4) Restricted shell.
144
Q
  1. Define partitions.
A
  1. Partitions are physical areas of disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems
145
Q
  1. When are partitions established?
A
  1. During system configuration.
146
Q
  1. In which UNIX directory are application programs contained?
A
  1. In the usr directory.
147
Q
  1. What is the firmware prompt called on Sun machines?
A
  1. ok (often called the O.K. prompt)
148
Q
  1. Applications are what type of programs?
A
  1. End-user programs.
149
Q
  1. Which application allows the creation of queries, forms, reports, and macros?
A
  1. Microsoft Access.
150
Q
  1. What program, available as a free download from Adobe’s website, allows you to view PDF files?
A
  1. Adobe Acrobat Reader.
151
Q
  1. Open Systems Interconnection reference model
A

13

152
Q
  1. Into what two groups can you divide the OSI model?
A
  1. Application (upper) layer and Data Transport (lower) layer.
153
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of the Data Transport layers of the OSI model?
A
  1. Define how data travels the physical media, through Internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine.
154
Q

____ (1) This layer divides into two sub layers: LLC and MAC.

A

f. Data Link.

155
Q

____ (2) This layer typically includes multiplexing, virtual circuit management, and error checking and recovery.

A

d. Transport.

156
Q

____ (3) This layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for network communications.

A

g. Physical.

157
Q

____ (4) A hub operates at this layer.

A

g. Physical.

158
Q

____ (5) Switches and bridges operate at this layer.

A

f. Data Link.

159
Q

____ (6) This layer provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data.

A

b. Presentation.

160
Q

____ (7) A router operates at this layer.

A

e. Network.

161
Q

____ (8) This layer establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions.

A

c. Session.

162
Q

____ (9) At this layer, common data compression and encryption schemes are used.

A

b. Presentation.

163
Q
  1. Department of Defense standards and protocols
A

14

164
Q
  1. Describe the DISN.
A
  1. DISN is a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements, and geographic needs of targeted end-user customers. The DISN offers a selection of integrated standards-based services to fulfill these connectivity needs.
165
Q
  1. What unclassified IP data service provides internet connectivity and supports e-mail and web services?
A
  1. SBU IP Data.
166
Q
  1. List the key features of VoSIP.
A
  1. (1) Provides an interface between the IP telephony and the circuit-switched network.(2) Provides a full range of supplemental user features available for IP telephony (e.g., call hold, call transfer, and abbreviated dialing.).(3) Provides a separate IP address space for voice communications(4) Provides firewalls at each VoSIP site and access control lists on all routers to ensure that only permitted traffic flows.(5) Provides secure voice communication up to and including Secret.
167
Q
  1. What service uses a number of different satellite services to provide warfighters with worldwide access and GIG connectivity for diversity, redundancy and availability?
A
  1. CSS.
168
Q
  1. Transport protocols
A

15

169
Q
  1. Transport protocols have two classifications based on the way data transports, name the two classifications.
A
  1. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.
170
Q
  1. What must occur between both ends before transfer of information in a connection-oriented environment?
A
  1. A connection must be established between both ends.
171
Q
  1. Define buffering.
A
  1. Temporary store of excess data bursts that remain in memory of network devices until processed.
172
Q
  1. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol
A

16

173
Q
  1. The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at one of what four layers?
A
  1. The Data Link layer, the Network layer (also known as the Internet layer in the TCP/IP model), the Transport layer or the Application layer.
174
Q
  1. The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network. What standards are these protocols based on?
A
  1. Project 802 standards.
175
Q
  1. What are the four most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer?
A
  1. (1) Internet Protocol (IP).(2) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).(3) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).(4) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
176
Q
  1. What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment?
A
  1. Source Port, Destination port, Sequence number, Acknowledgement number (ACK), TCP header length, Reserved, Flags (Control bits), Sliding window size, Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding, and Data.
177
Q
  1. In the context of TCP/IP, what is a packet also known as?
A
  1. An IP datagram.
178
Q
  1. What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address?
A
  1. Network number and network host.
179
Q
  1. Who assigns network numbers?
A
  1. Authorized representatives of IANA.
180
Q

____ (1) The first bit (0) identifies the address class and, together with the next seven bits, identifies the network number.

A

a. Class A.

181
Q

____ (2) There are about 2,097,152 networks, with 254 host on each network.

A

c. Class C.

182
Q

____ (3) Reserved for multicast addressing.

A

d. Class D.

183
Q

____ (4) What class address is 223.1.1.254?

A

c. Class C.

184
Q

____ (5) What class address is 9.10.254.111?

A

a. Class A.

185
Q

____ (6) The first four bits (1111) identify the address class.

A

e. Class E.

186
Q

____ (7) What class address is 154.224.32.3?

A

b. Class B.

187
Q

____ (8) There are about 16,384 networks, with 65,534 hosts on each network.

A

b. Class B.

188
Q
  1. What is the reserved IPv4 address for loop back?
A
  1. 127 in the network field, and .any number in the host field
189
Q
  1. What is the reserved IPv4 address for a limited broadcast?
A
  1. 255.255..
190
Q
  1. What is a subnet mask?
A
  1. A mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number.
191
Q
  1. What are the two methods of subnet masking?
A
  1. Classful and classless.
192
Q
  1. What are some benefits to subneting?
A
  1. Subnets ease administration, improve network performance, and security.
193
Q
  1. How long is an IPv6 address?
A
  1. 16 octets long, or 128 bits.
194
Q
  1. How is an IPv6 address expressed?
A
  1. In 16 byte fields using a colon hexadecimal format.
195
Q
  1. What are the two ways to shorten the expression of an IPv6 address?
A
  1. Leading zero compression and zero compression.
196
Q
  1. What is a unicast address?
A
  1. Unicast addresses identify a single interface. A packet sent to a unicast address delivers to the interface identified by that address.
197
Q
  1. What is a multicast address?
A
  1. Multicast addresses (FF00::/8) identify a group of interfaces belonging to different nodes. Multicast packets send to all interfaces identified by that address.
198
Q
  1. What is an Anycast address?
A
  1. Anycast addresses also identify a set of interfaces, but the packets deliver to and accept by the closest interface.
199
Q
  1. What are the three types of unicast address?
A
  1. (1) Link.(2) Site.(3) Global
200
Q
  1. What is the IPv6 loop back address?
A
  1. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1.
201
Q
  1. Internet protocol ports
A

17

202
Q
  1. What does a TCP/IP client use to request a particular service?
A
  1. Specific values called port numbers to request a particular service.
203
Q
  1. What is the range of well-known port numbers?
A
  1. 0 thru 1023.
204
Q
  1. What is the default port assignment for TELNET?
A
  1. Port 23.
205
Q
  1. What is the default port assignment for credit card transactions on e-commerce sites?
A
  1. Port 443-Secure Socket Layer.
206
Q
  1. Network types
A

18

207
Q
  1. What is the internet?
A
  1. A network of networks.
208
Q
  1. What is the name for networks that use the same software and protocols as the public internet, but exist as a portion of an entity’s private network?
A
  1. Intranets.
209
Q
  1. What term describes a group of computers and devices that share a common communication line and resources in a small geographical area?
A
  1. LAN.
210
Q
  1. What type of network interconnects several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines?
A
  1. MAN.
211
Q
  1. What is the name for a network connected between two cities?
A
  1. WAN.
212
Q
  1. Primary addressing in WLANs is achieved by using what type of address?
A
  1. MAC.
213
Q
  1. List the advantages to using WLAN.
A
  1. (1) Mobility.(2) Ease of installation.(3) Lower cost.
214
Q
  1. List each of the IEEE wireless standards.
A
  1. (1) 802.11b.(2) 802.11a.(3) 802.11g.(4) 802.11n.
215
Q
  1. The 802.11n standard operates at what frequency?
A
  1. 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz.
216
Q
  1. What network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
A
  1. VPN.
217
Q
  1. What type of configuration does the Air Force use for most VPN traffic?
A
  1. The gateway-to-gateway configuration.
218
Q
  1. Network topologies
A

19

219
Q
  1. What is a physical topology?
A
  1. A description of the layout of the network media that interconnects the devices on a network.
220
Q
  1. What is a logical topology?
A
  1. Defines the way in which devices communicate throughout the network.
221
Q
  1. What is the rule of thumb to distinguish physical from logical topologies?
A
  1. If you can see it and touch it, it is physical, if you cannot see it or touch it, it is logical.
222
Q
  1. Because a topology affects the network’s capabilities, what is the impact of choosing one topology over another?
A
  1. Equipment needs, equipment capabilities, network expansion, network management.
223
Q
  1. What are the advantages of a bus topology?
A
  1. Inexpensive to install, easy to expand, requires less cabling that other topologies, works well for small networks.
224
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of a bus topology?
A
  1. No longer used, cable breaks causes entire network outage, limited number of devices, troubleshooting is difficult, slower access time.
225
Q
  1. What are the advantages of a star topology?
A
  1. Easy network expansion, cable failure won’t interrupt the entire network, centralized management, easy to troubleshoot, faster network speeds, most common topology so equipment options are virtually unlimited.
226
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of a star topology?
A
  1. Requires more media than a ring or bus, failure of the central device can bring down the entire network, cost of installation.
227
Q
  1. What are the advantages of a ring topology?
A
  1. Data transmits at greater speed, no collisions, easy to troubleshoot, no terminators.
228
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of ring topology?
A
  1. Requires more cable than a bus network, cable break could bring the network down, difficult to add devices to active network, uncommon so equipment is not readily available.
229
Q
  1. What are the two most common hybrid topologies?
A
  1. (1) Star-bus.(2) Star-ring.
230
Q
  1. Modes of switching
A

20

231
Q
  1. What data transport method grew out of the need for a worldwide standard to allow interoperability of information, regardless of the information type or “end-system”?
A
  1. ATM.
232
Q
  1. How many bytes make up the ATM cell, header, and payload?
A
  1. 53 byte cell, 5 byte header, 48 byte payload.
233
Q
  1. ISDN channels are separated into two sub-channels, list and describe the sub-channels.
A
  1. Sub-channel B 56 Kbps or 64 Kbps and are used for both voice and data. Each B channel can carry a separate telephone call. The D-channel is a 16 Kbps use to carry call control (or supervisory) information. The information on the “D” channel tells the network switches what to do with the traffic on the “B” channels.
234
Q
  1. When the full bandwidth of a T1 line is not needed it can be divided in 64 Kbps increments known as what?
A
  1. Fractional T–1 (FT–1).
235
Q
  1. What Ethernet standard has supplanted Fast Ethernet in wired networks?
A
  1. Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE).
236
Q
  1. Modems, switches, bridges, and routers
A

21

237
Q
  1. Define modems.
A
  1. A modem (modulator-demodulator) is a device that modulates signals to encode digital information and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted information.
238
Q
  1. What are the two types of modems used?
A
  1. Dial-up and dedicated, also known as leased.
239
Q
  1. What is one of the principal functions of a CSU?
A
  1. Provides a barrier for electrical interference from either side of the unit.
240
Q
  1. What is the main function of a DSU?
A
  1. To adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer’s equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment, and vice versa.
241
Q
  1. What is the primary use for a bridge?
A
  1. To decrease network congestion but also propagate a signal like a repeater.
242
Q
  1. What do LAN switches provide between network devices?
A
  1. Switches provide collision-free, high-speed communication between network devices.
243
Q
  1. Can a switch connect LANs of different bandwidths? If so, give example.
A
  1. Yes; this is accomplished with buffering
244
Q
  1. What type of switching is required when a moving a frame from a low-speed LAN to a high-speed LAN?
A
  1. Store-and-forward switching.
245
Q
  1. What is the fundamental difference between Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching?
A
  1. The layer at which each forwarding decision is made.
246
Q
  1. Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model?
A
  1. Layer three (network) of the OSI Model.
247
Q
  1. What does a typical router contain?
A
  1. Internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output jacks for different types of network connectors (depending on the network type); and, usually, a management console interface.
248
Q
  1. Routers compare metrics to determine optimal routes; these methods differ depending on what?
A
  1. Design of the routing algorithm used.
249
Q
  1. What are routing protocols that manage traffic within an autonomous system called?
A
  1. IGP.
250
Q
  1. Name two methods for directing data on the network.
A
  1. Static or dynamic routing.
251
Q
  1. What is static routing?
A
  1. Static routing is a technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes.
252
Q
  1. What is dynamic routing?
A
  1. Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and compiles this info in a routing table.
253
Q
  1. Encryption devices
A

22

254
Q
  1. What are the two methods that encryption can be applied?
A
  1. Encryption can be applied on either a link-by-link basis or an end-to-end basis.
255
Q
  1. What is the most common telephone device used for voice encryption?
A
  1. STE.
256
Q
  1. Communication mediums
A

23

257
Q
  1. What are the most common types of all metallic cable used in networks?
A
  1. Twisted pair cable and coaxial cable.
258
Q
  1. Which cable type is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?
A
  1. Coaxial cable.
259
Q
  1. List and describe the four most common coax cable types.
A
  1. (1) RG–6, 75Ohms.(2) RG–58, 50Ohms.(3) RG–8, 50 Ohms.(4) RG–11, 50 Ohms.
260
Q
  1. What medium is the primary carrier for voice telecommunications?
A
  1. Twisted pair cable.
261
Q
  1. List and describe the categories of twisted pair cable.
A
  1. (1) CAT 1, 1 Mbps, voice only analog phone lines (not used for data communications).(2) CAT 3, 10 Mbps, Ethernet (10BaseT).(3) CAT 5, 100 Mbps, Ethernet (100BaseT).(4) CAT 5e, 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps), Ethernet (1000BaseT).(5) CAT 6 and 6a, 10 Gbps, 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE).
262
Q
  1. What three things do an optical communications system require to transport communications?.
A
  1. (1) A light source (transmitter).(2) A transmission medium (cable).(3) A sensor (receiver).
263
Q
  1. List the advantages of fiber optic systems over conventional cable systems.
A
  1. (1) Larger bandwidths.(2) Freedom from interference.(3) Low cost and lightweight.
264
Q
  1. Is fiber optic cable immune to EMI?
A
  1. Yes.
265
Q
  1. What is the most common wireless networking standard?
A
  1. 802.11.
266
Q
  1. Cyberspace Operations policy, structure, and missions
A

24

267
Q
  1. What three major considerations affect supporting cyber operations?
A
  1. (1) Policy.(2) Authority.(3) Law.
268
Q
  1. What three priorities drive the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace?
A
  1. (1) Prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure.(2) Reduce national vulnerability to cyber attacks.(3) Minimize damage and recover time from cyber attacks.
269
Q
  1. Can an Air National Guardsman execute a cyber-operation?
A
  1. A guardsman in Title 32 status may train for Title 10 missions but cannot execute them.
270
Q
  1. What is the primary Air Force command for cyberspace missions?
A
  1. AFSPC.
271
Q
  1. How does OCO intend to project power?
A
  1. By the application of force in and through cyberspace.
272
Q
  1. In DCO, what are reactive defenses?
A
  1. Measures taken to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or actions taken to terminate the ongoing intrusion.
273
Q
  1. Most exploitation activities evolve from what?
A
  1. Phishing.
274
Q
  1. On delegation authority, whose cyber tasking orders does the 624 OC relay to all Air Force units?
A
  1. USCYBERCOM.
275
Q
  1. What are the four agencies the I-NOSC relays cyber orders to?
A
  1. (1) MAJCOMs.(3) ES.(3) ACCCs.(4) Installation communications units.
276
Q
  1. Does the ATO reflect the integrated air, space, and cyberspace operations plan that supports a joint force commander’s campaign?
A
  1. Yes.
277
Q
  1. Cyberspace Operations capabilities
A

25

278
Q
  1. What is the stimulant that generates increased information superiority?
A
  1. Targeting, either independently or in conjunction with IO, an adversary’s culture, organization, or individual psychology.
279
Q
  1. What is key to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority?
A
  1. Careful planning.
280
Q
  1. How can CO affect an adversary’s informational and physical IO dimensions?
A
  1. Network-centric warfare.
281
Q
  1. What are the three capabilities of EW?
A
  1. (1) EA.(2) EP.(3) ES.
282
Q
  1. What was the original term used to describe MISO?
A
  1. PSYOP.
283
Q
  1. What distinct capability does PA bring to the mission?
A
  1. Counterpropaganda.
284
Q
  1. Can MILDEC intentionally target or mislead the news media, the U.S. public, or Congress?
A
  1. No.
285
Q
  1. What process does OPSEC incorporate to deny adversaries critical information about friendly forces?
A
  1. SM.
286
Q
  1. What is the function of military personnel conducting CMO?
A
  1. Aid the reestablishment or maintenance of stability within a region or host nation.
287
Q
  1. Can ISR capabilities be used to conduct complex effects assessment to support a combatant or component commander?
A
  1. No.
288
Q
  1. Cyberspace systems and security tools
A

26

289
Q
  1. What weapons system provides continuous monitoring and defense of AF unclassified and classified networks?
A
  1. The ACD.
290
Q
  1. What AF weapons system offers top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
A
  1. The AFINC weapon system.
291
Q
  1. What are the four sub-discipline areas of the AFINC?
A
  1. (1) Defense-in-Depth.(2) Proactive Defense.(3) Network Standardization.(4) Situational Awareness.
292
Q
  1. What is the mission of the CVA/Hunter?
A
  1. F2T2EA the APT.
293
Q
  1. How would you define SCADA?
A
  1. The term SCADA refers to centralized systems, which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas.
294
Q
  1. How are SCADA systems typically implemented?
A
  1. Through a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points.
295
Q
  1. Who must evaluate and certify all IT systems, including NSS, with external interfaces?
A
  1. The DISA JITC.
296
Q
  1. What TADIL is link 11?
A
  1. TADIL-A.
297
Q
  1. What TADIL is link 4A?
A
  1. TADIL-C.
298
Q
  1. What TADIL is link 16?
A
  1. TADIL-J.
299
Q
  1. Cyber security
A

27

300
Q
  1. What is a weakness in a computer system or network open to exploitation called?
A
  1. A vulnerability.
301
Q
  1. What security professional goal is a result of understanding that all risk cannot be removed?
A
  1. To eliminate or mitigate as many risks as possible.
302
Q
  1. What passive nature attack is the first step in a replay attack?
A
  1. MitM attack.
303
Q
  1. Due to cost and imperfections, what method should not be used as the sole form of authentication?
A
  1. Biometrics.
304
Q
  1. Although inexpensive in implementing, what systems have the major vulnerability of being prone to brute force attacks?
A
  1. Knowledge based.
305
Q
  1. What actions are included in the scope of end-to-end monitoring?
A
  1. Monitoring, measuring, performance analysis, and optimizing networks and network systems.
306
Q
  1. What is capacity planning?
A
  1. The long-trend analysis of network devices to identify future constraints with the results incorporated into future technical baselines.
307
Q
  1. Information Assurance and Communication Security
A

28

308
Q
  1. What is certification?
A
  1. The comprehensive evaluation and validation of an AF IS to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned IA controls based on standardized procedures.
309
Q
  1. What is accreditation?
A
  1. The formal declaration by an AO that the information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk.
310
Q
  1. When does the validation of computer requirements process begin?
A
  1. When the user identifies a mission need and requests CSO assistance with defining the requirement and developing a technical solution for that need.
311
Q
  1. When do requirements arise?
A
  1. When there is a deficiency in an existing operational capability, a need for a new capability, or an opportunity to replace or modernize an existing system with improved technology when operationally and economically practical.
312
Q
  1. What are the five phases in the DIACAP process?
A
  1. (1) Phase I, Initiate and plan IA and C&A.(2) Phase II, Implement and validate assigned IA controls.(3) Phase III, Make certification determination and accreditation decision.(4) Phase4 IV, Maintain authorization to operate and conduct reviews. (5) Phase V, Decommission.
313
Q
  1. What is a connection approval?
A
  1. The formal approval for an IS to connect to the AFIN and the acceptance of risk associated with the IS connection by the Air Force Enterprise AO or delegated individual.
314
Q
  1. What is an ATO?
A
  1. An approval granted by the lead AO or appointed AO to operate the system at an acceptable level of risk.
315
Q
  1. What is the temporary authorization to test a DOD IS in a specified operational information environment within the timeframe and under the conditions or constraints enumerated in the accreditation decision?
A
  1. IATT.
316
Q
  1. What is a specific fact about friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively, so as to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment?
A
  1. Critical information

z3dx7x self-test (4 decks)

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