Vol 4 Flashcards

1
Q

If a patient has made an attempt to resolve his or her problem and has failed in the past, this is recognized as a

A

Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

As a minimum, how many strengths and weaknesses should be identified for each patient?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered the very basic on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A

Physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is characterized by the need for friendship, love, and a sense of belonging?

A

Affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is often difficult for substance abuse/dependent individuals, or individuals with severe mental disorders?

A

Affiliation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is developed from feelings of independence, competence, self-respect, and recognition from others?

A

Self-esteem and love

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs represents an individual who has reached his or her maximum potential?

A

Self-actualizatiion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What need is not considered a deficiency need?

A

Self-esteem and love

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do short term goals provide for the patient?

A

Acute relief or feelings accomplishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What do long-term goals suggest for the patient?

A

Shows they are invested over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Every goal must have at least how many objectives?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Goals should not be

A

Optimistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which determinate of relapse is considered the most difficult and problematic?

A

Relational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the leading cause of relapse

A

Boredom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is well documented that treatment outcomes are based upon the patient’s

A

Motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Reconstructing a comprehensive detailing of the patient’s substance use history helps

A

Determine triggers that may lead to a relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During what stage of treatment does termination or discharge planning begin?

A

Initial Intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What action must occur to discourage contact outside the therapeutic relationship?

A

Create clear boundaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is considered the overall management strategy for treating people?

A

Treatment plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who should be devising the treatment plan for the patient?

A

Patient and counselor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is not one of the potential problems that should be addressed in the treatment plan?

A

Absenteeism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is not a purpose of assessment during the treatment process?

A

Translating goals into behavior indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must you use to measure treatment progress?

A

Exit outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is one of the most self-defeating beliefs for a beginning counselor?

A

We must be perfect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which is not one of the four specific areas that should be addressed in the therapeutic relationship between you and the patient?
Relational issue, ability to influence, change relationships in their lives
26
What is paramount to a patient's ability to identify options and alternatives in the face of adversity?
Employing sound insight and judgement
27
What refers to the cognitive capabilities or functions displayed by an individual?
Emotional intelligence
28
Which is not one of the common stages of counseling?
Termination of care
29
During this stage, the patient will gain insight into his or her primary problem and tentatively begin goal setting?
In-depth exploration
30
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as extreme contradictory qualities
Dichotomous thinking
31
Which cognitive distortion is best defined as always making a negative conclusion without supporting information?
Arbitrary inference
32
Which therapeutic approach forces the therapist to take a stand and often discloses his or her feelings regarding morality, responsibility, and accountability?
Reality therapy
33
What is not one of the Gestalt therapy's five layers of neurosis?
Lame
34
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as communication that is intentionally misleading, misunderstood, and inconsistent and often leaves the receiver with an impossible conclusion to an answer?
Disqualification
35
In strategic family therapy, what is defined as denying or invalidating hurtful or demeaning statements to protect the sender's self-image
Disconfirmation
36
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient encouraged to take control of his or her internal anxiety-provoking physiological responses?
Relaxation training
37
In what stage of behavior therapy is the patient walked through the least anxiety-provoking events to gradually increasing levels of events through imagery?
Desensitization proper
38
What group permits patients to join and finish at different times?
Open-ended
39
How many group participants can one facilitator effectively manage?
8 to 10
40
Which group usually is structured in nature and time-limited for a specific number of sessions, and typically has a closed membership?
Educational
41
What is always considered a primary concern when you discuss group participation?
Confidentiality
42
During which stage of the group process should you establish the basic ground rules for participation in the group?
Beginning
43
During which stage of group has the "birthing" process of merging personalities subsided?
Working and cohesion
44
During which stage of group will dependencies between group members and the facilitators emerge or group members will attempt to introduce new "bombshell" material?
Termination
45
Regarding group participation, which term would be used to describe to extremely shy patient?
Contraindication
46
What common problems tend to occur the longer group continues?
Drop-outs
47
Conflict can be beneficial if used as a tool in a group if it is used to to do all except?
Polarize group members
48
The group member who can easily become the target of an aggressive narcissist in the group is the
Schizoid patient
49
When you present a case for staffing, in what format do you provide the overview?
Subjective/Objective assessment Plan
50
What is not one of the core components of case management?
Recreational support
51
Who is the greatest influence in our lives besides family?
Peers
52
Who is responsible for conducting the biennial community needs assessment?
Integrated Delivery System
53
Who chairs the treatment team meetings?
ADAPT Program manager
54
How many duty days does the Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment Program manager have to make a treatment decision for a new referral to the ADAPT office?
15
55
How many visits for evaluation are civilian employees authorized free of charge at the base substance abuse clinic?
One
56
Which of the following agencies did the AF join forces with to conform to the DOD directive to establish standardized criteria for selection of personnel who serve in clinical roles as alcohol and drug abuse counselors?
International Certification Reciprocity Consortium/Alcohol and other Drugs of Abuse
57
How many continuing education units are required to retain certification during each three-year certification?
60
58
Which of the 12 core functions is described as the administrative and initial procedures for admission to a program?
Intake
59
Which of the 12 core functions is described as relating with in-house staff or outside professionals to assure comprehensive, quality care for the client?
Consultation
60
Who notifies the applicants if the results of the Certified Alcohol and Drug Abuse Counselor written examination?
Major Command
61
Understanding which of the following greatly impacts the quality of work or product which you will be evaluated by?
Job description
62
Which Air Force Instruction specifically outlines not only the education and certification requirements for the certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor, but also the required supervision?
AF1 44-119, Medical QualityOperations
63
The certified alcohol and drug abuse counselor's competency assessment must be performed how many times per month and documented in their training record?
2
64
What is not one of the critical success factors?
Provide sufficient staffing to provide care for all beneficiaries
65
What percentage of all formal mental health care is provided by primary care managers?
50