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CDCs > Vol 3 UREs > Flashcards

Vol 3 UREs Flashcards

1
Q

Which principle is not an EW tenet?

A

Command

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2
Q

What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

A

Detection

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3
Q

The major components of EW are

A

Electronic attack, support, and protection

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4
Q

The EW component used to locate intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition is called electronic _____

A

Support

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5
Q

To control an adversary’s C2 capabilities, C2W integrates:

A

Destruction, EW, military deception, OPSEC, and PSYOP

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6
Q

This best describes the degradation or interference with the enemy’s C2 capabilities

A

Disruption

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7
Q

Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

A

Physical attack

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8
Q

What support system provides detection and low-level aircraft control beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

A

AWACS

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9
Q

Normal SEAD targets include radars for:

A

ACQ, AAA, EW/GCI, and SAM

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10
Q

The division of EW that involves weapons using electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism is electronic _____

A

Attack

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11
Q

The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

A

AGM-88

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12
Q

What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

A

AGM-65

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13
Q

Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a non lethal platform is an example of

A

Manipulative deception

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14
Q

A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

A

Imitative deception

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15
Q

EMCON is important because it

A

Limits incidental or accidental emissions

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16
Q

The actions to locate intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy sources is best described as electronic _____

A

Support

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17
Q

The panoramic receiver is the heart of the electronic system because it detects

A

Electromagnetic energy

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18
Q

The pulse analyzer does not measure

A

Magnetic energy

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19
Q

The RC-135 aircraft provides theater commanders all of the following except how to

A

determine when a schedule of events will happen

Locate enemy forces, warn of threatening activity, determine the intentions of enemy forces

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20
Q

The major subdivision of electronic reconnaissance collects information pertaining to the patterns, codes, and sites used for communications

A

COMINT

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21
Q

The pulse analyzer does not analyze this component during manual radar analysis.

A

Frequency pulse

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22
Q

What order are the four radars in an air defense network used?

A

Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense

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23
Q

What type IADS radar can obtain the general location of an attacking force?

A

Early warning

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24
Q

What type IADS radar is a lethal threat to attacking aircraft?

A

Terminal defense

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25
Q

Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally ____

A

first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force

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26
Q

What three phases do SAM systems function in to target attacking aircraft?

A

Acquisition, target tracking, and command guidance

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27
Q

What SAM system tracking technique uses two radars?

A

Track-while-scan

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28
Q

What type of fuse is vulnerable to EW?

A

PRX

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29
Q

This is an important part of the C2 system

A

Computer

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30
Q

The AWACS is the most effective C2 addition to the basic air defense system because it adds air defense ______

A

System detection range

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31
Q

Which of these four metric frequency prefixes designate the smallest radar propagation quantity?

A

Pico

Nano, Mega, Giga

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32
Q

Which military frequency band designator, of the 4, denotes the highest frequency radar propagation range over the others?

A

G

C, E, F

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33
Q

Using radar propagation, how long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?

A

12.36 microseconds

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34
Q

When determining a radar’s azimuth, the wider the HBW,

A

the poorer the resolution

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35
Q

What three properties are common to both visible light and IR energy?

A

Absorption, reflection, refraction

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36
Q

The amount of IR energy is emitted by an object’s absolute temperature that is

A

directly proportional to its 4th power

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37
Q

In relation to land and water, thermal crossover means both objects ________

A

have the same temperature

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38
Q

Most IR missiles operate in the region of this range of microns

A

1 to 5

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39
Q

What type IR seeker system uses many detectors where each one detects a small portion of a scene?

A

Staring

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40
Q

What IRCM tactic is used to reduce an engine’s IR signature?

A

Introducing smoke into the engine exhaust

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41
Q

In what frequency region or spectrum do MAWSs detect energy?

A

Infrared

42
Q

What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?

A

Rapid identification of infrared missile threats

43
Q

What is one disadvantage of an active MAWS?

A

It can be tracked by passive detection

44
Q

The process of combining two signal frequencies in a nonlinear device and producing frequencies equal to the sum and the difference describes

A

Heterodyning

45
Q

What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies from the heterodyning process?

A

Tank

46
Q

What is the panoramic receiver operator allowed to do with expanded capability?

A

Separate signals that are close together on an RF band

47
Q

What feature of a panoramic receiver prevents the on-board transmitters’ output from displaying?

A

Receiver blanking

48
Q

What range of coverage does the RWR’s antennas provide?

A

360 degrees

49
Q

What component of the RWR identifies radar signals?

A

Signal processor

50
Q

The RWR does not display a signal’s

A

amplitude

51
Q

What RWR component selects the mode of operation?

A

Interface control unit

52
Q

All of the following are techniques used by geolocation receivers except _____

A

amplitude comparison

triangulation, interferometry, time of arrival

53
Q

Which geolocation technique involves an equation solving for the distance that the emitter is away from the receiver?

A

Time of arrival

54
Q

Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage is called

A

modulation

55
Q

The process where the carrier wave’s frequency and phase vary according to the signal wave’s amplitude and frequency variations is called this type of modulation.

A

Frequency

56
Q

What determines the amount of deviation from the carrier wave?

A

The modulation index

57
Q

The major disadvantage of using a waveguide is its

A

Size restrictions

58
Q

The main consideration for effective electronic jamming is

A

Sufficient power

59
Q

When a radio noise jammer provides radiated power output, the wider the bandwidth,

A

the lesser the power density

60
Q

The point where a radar’s return is stronger than the jamming signal is called the

A

Crossover point

61
Q

What type of noise jammer jams one frequency, then a second, then a third, for a predetermined period and at a rapid rate?

A

Sequential

62
Q

Which type noise jamming predicts when the next radar pulse arrives, and then transmits a signal?

A

Cover pulse

63
Q

This noise jamming technique causes jamming strobes to appear on the radarscope

A

TWS modulated

64
Q

What radar tracking circuit can deception jamming be used to deceive?

A

Velocity (or range/azimuth)

Phase, amplitude, frequency

65
Q

One advantage a deception jammer has over a noise jammer is that it requires

A

less power

66
Q

What type of deception jamming technique is related to a time delay?

A

Range

67
Q

What type of deception jamming uses the Doppler shift?

A

Velocity

68
Q

What type deception jamming technique is used at low altitude against missiles?

A

Terrain bounce

69
Q

From an applied signal, input pulses are collected in binary from, and then converted into decimal form for a digital readout. This describes the operation of a

A

frequency counter

70
Q

What piece of test equipment uses electromagnetic waves pulses to test cables?

A

Time domain reflectometer

71
Q

Using a TDR, the distance to the discontinuity of a cable is determined by the reflected

A

amplitude of the reflected pulse

72
Q

What is not a TDR precaution?

A

Do not select test cable propagation velocity constant

73
Q

Damage to the sampling gate or tunnel diode of a TDR indicates voltages were applied exceeding

A

5 V

74
Q

When determining distance from the TDR to the discontinuity, count the number of CRT divisions between the incident pulse’s

A

leading edge and the leading edge of the reflected pulse

75
Q

Which type discontinuity problem is indicated when a TDR display starts in the upper left corner of the screen, drops down at mid screen, and departs in the lower right screen?

A

A short

76
Q

A spectrum analyzer is a receiver with this type output

A

Cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker

77
Q

The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with this control

A

FREQUENCY SPAN

78
Q

The power sensor is used to establish the active frequency and power range within the design parameters of the

A

Power meter

79
Q

Each graticule marking division on the oscilloscope faceplate is

A

One centimeter square

80
Q

The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to these settings

A

TIME/DIV control

81
Q

What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool to determine if a circuit is open or closed?

A

Digital multi-meter

82
Q

How many pieces of test equipment are contained in the fiber optic test set?

A

2

83
Q

The maximum wavelength, in nm, the light source in a fiber optic test set can produce is

A

1550

84
Q

What class laser would you test using the MEON tester?

A

4

85
Q

What is the frequency range of the RSS/PLM-4?

A

0.5 to 18 GHz

86
Q

What RFLTS test is based on a ratio of power out of a UUT to the RFLTS power fed into the UUT?

A

Insertion loss

87
Q

When a fault is suspected in a RF transmission path, because of unacceptable insertion loss, you should perform

A

DTF measurements

88
Q

What type test equipment is used to check multiple aircraft chaff and flare dispensing systems?

A

CDT

89
Q

In a CMDS, the specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by

A

Coding plunger pins

90
Q

What CDT functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

A

fire

91
Q

How many sections make up a network analyzer?

A

4

92
Q

A network analyzer has this number of keys for standard data entry

A

10

93
Q

What type message describes in detail how an EWIR change affects an EWS?

A

RIM

94
Q

Which step is not a part of the EWIR process?

A

Determine the impact of the threat system

Determine the threat, reprogram the EW system’s software, field the change

95
Q

What is not part of the EWIR exercise?

A

Evaluate routine operational change request

Train people, smooth comms, threat readiness

96
Q

What type of directed exercise evaluates the entire EWIR process?

A

Air Force

97
Q

What is the Air Force electronic warfare reprogramming exercise called?

A

SERENE BYTE

98
Q

Which two primary reprogramming exercises will you probably be involved in as an EW technician?

A

SERENE BYTE and PACER WARE

99
Q

The CAPRE is powered by

A

An AC adapter and a lithium-ion rechargeable battery

100
Q

The CAPRE requires visual inspection of components how often?

A

Annually

CDCs (9 decks)

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