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CDC 2S071 > Vol 3 Unit 2 > Flashcards

Vol 3 Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered to be the framework in which the overall materiel storage space is developed?

A

Warehouse layout plan

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2
Q

When the physical layout of a storage facility is planned, the total or gross storage space is known as the

A

implementation point

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3
Q

What storage factor is used when fast-moving items of great demand are stored in easily accessible locations that requires as little handling as possible and slow moving items are stored in less convenient locations?

A

Item popularity

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4
Q

What storage factor increases the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location?

A

Item quantity

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5
Q

Which type of aisle runs the entire length of the warehouse?

A

Main

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6
Q

What is the basic resource of any supply and distribution operation?

A

Storage space

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7
Q

What is the practice of storing or withdrawing items in a way that causes a loss of storage
space called?

A

Honeycombing

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8
Q

At a minimum, how many inches of clearance space must be maintained around light or heating
fixtures in a storage space?

A

18

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9
Q

In a storage space, the total or maximum amount of weight that can be stored in a specific
amount of floor space is known as

A

Floor load limit

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10
Q

Which method of storage helps to ensure that the oldest items are issued before they become
outdated?

A

First in, first out

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11
Q

When storing materiel outside, what must be used to elevate the property above ground level to
provide adequate ventilation?

A

Dunnage

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12
Q

Which class of storage vault is used to store Top Secret materiel?

A

A

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13
Q

What class of storage vault is used to store Secret and Confidential materiel?

A

B

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14
Q

Items that require a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations are designated as

A

Sensitive items

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15
Q

The combination on padlocks for classified storage must be changed at least

A

Annually

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16
Q

Which Standard Form (SF) is used to secure vaults, secure rooms, and containers used for the storage of classified materiel?

A

SF 702

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17
Q

What individual or activity schedules and conducts a warehouse location validation for satellite
accounts?

A

Account storage personnel

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18
Q

At a minimum, how often must all warehouse locations be validated?

A

Annually

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19
Q

The ability to print warehouse location validation listings and process transactions associated
with location validation for bin rows, serviceable balances with no locations, and dead locations is
provided by

A

Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S)

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20
Q

How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation do warehouse personnel create the
warehouse validation listing?

A

10

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21
Q

What type of items must be opened to physically verify that the item in the container matches
the stock number on the outside property tag and bin label?

A

Controlled

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22
Q

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to delete a dead location?

A

FCS

23
Q

Failure to identify and move property that is located in the wrong warehouse location in a
timely manner contributes to out-of-balance conditions, erroneous stock records, and

A

Warehouse refusal

24
Q

Within what period of time must items listed on the serviceable balance - no location listing
(R36) be resolved?

A

5 duty days

25
Q

Warehouse personnel use the daily document register (D04) to verify successful processing for
transactions on warehouse location deletions, indicative data changes, unit of issue changes, and

A

controlled item changes

26
Q

What occurs when the warehouse location stated on an issue or shipment document is either
empty or does not contain enough items to fill the request?

A

Warehouse refusal

27
Q

Which freeze code is loaded to the item record due to a warehouse refusal?

A

I

28
Q

What flag must be entered in the master bench stock detail if the authorized level is not based
on consumption?

A

Minimum reserve authorization (MRA) or maximum authorized quantity (MAQ)

29
Q

At a minimum, how often are phase I reviews for bench stock additions, changes, and deletions
done?

A

Monthly

30
Q

Items recommended for bench stock are based on

A

past issues and due-out release actions

31
Q

At a minimum, standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization
(MRA) levels must be validated

A

Annually

32
Q

After the bench stock review, who does customer support provide copies of the organization bench stock listing (S04) to?

A

Shop supervisor and materiel control

33
Q

When does the S04 run an item number sequence?

A

After each semiannual review

34
Q

During a closed warehouse inventory, what type of issue transactions can be removed from the warehouse?

A

Emergency

35
Q

What type of inventory is conducted by line item on an as-required basis?

A

Special

36
Q

What freeze code identifies a special inventory?

A

I

37
Q

Which option is not an objective of inventory research?

A

Process requisitions when required

38
Q

Causative research will be conducted for all adjustments greater than

A

$1,000

39
Q

When researching a physical overage, how far back from the current date should you go to the last inventory adjustment?

A

12 months

40
Q

The type account code for an item to be considered for an automatic adjustment is

A

B

41
Q

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than

A

$100

42
Q

What phrase identifies automatic adjustments on the transaction register and the consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10) for complete inventory inputs?

A

AUTO-COMPL

43
Q

What type of inventory discrepancy occurs due to an accountable processing error?

A

Resolved discrepancy

44
Q

What product prints and deletes internally stored inventory adjustment records?

A

Consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10)

45
Q

What function is responsible for verifying certification and approval signatures are on the
original copy of the consolidated inventory adjustment document register (M10)?

A

Inventory

46
Q

What tool is used to gain effective asset control by identifying areas of current and potential high loss?

A

Inventory analysis

47
Q

What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to process a record reversal and correction transaction?

A

RVP

48
Q

What freeze code is assigned to item records requiring record reversal and correction?

A

Q

49
Q

What publication contains the formats for transactions and the menu screens used to process
record reversal and corrections (RVP)?

A

Air Force Handbook (AFH) 23-123

50
Q

Automated record reversal and correction (RVP) processing is limited to how many inputs at a time?

A

One

51
Q

What asset management record is displayed in the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) items not put away report?

A

STK

52
Q

In the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Asset Management database, to view records in more
detail, click on a hyperlinked

A

asset management ID number

53
Q

How many filter criteria sections are in the Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) Asset Management Items Not Put Away report?

A

Six

54
Q

What Enterprise Solution-Supply (ES-S) asset management report shows all items that have not been delivered to the customer?

A

Items not received

CDC 2S071 (9 decks)

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