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Soaring 461 > Vol 3 > Flashcards

Vol 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Vol 3 Title

A

Sailplane Operations Procedures

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2
Q

Vol 3 Chapter 1:

A

General Information

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3
Q

Vol 3 Chapter 2

A

Mission Planning

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4
Q

Vol 3 Chapter 3

A

Normal Operating Procedures

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5
Q

Vol 3 Chapter 4

A

Operating Restrictions

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6
Q

PIC

A

pilot in command

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7
Q

Syllabus recommended changes and waivers is authorized by whom?

A

MAJCOM A3

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8
Q

Actual flying time for pilots will not exceed how many hours per day?

A

8 hours

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9
Q

After how long must instruction cease and two qualified pilots are required?

A

5 hours

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10
Q

Flying restriction times do not apply to whom? Does the duty day still apply?

A

Cross-country training or competition sorties. Duty day restrictions still apply

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11
Q

The TG-16 is what kind of aircraft?

A

Trainer

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12
Q

Minimum aircrew clothing

A

Flight suit and flight boots

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13
Q

Minimum aircrew clothing at 40*F

A 
Approved flying jacket
ABU jacket if participating in ABU
winter weight gloves
watch or pile cap
thermal underwear
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14
Q

T/F: Aircrew will removed rings and scarves before aircrew duties

A

True

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15
Q

When will parachutes be worn?

A

Spins, aerobatic, cross country, and planned wave flights

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16
Q

Minimum oxygen pressure is?

A

50 psi

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17
Q

What does the PRICE check stand for?

A

Pressure, regulator, indicator, connections, emergency

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18
Q

How must the PRICE check be performed?

A

Every 30 mins

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19
Q

T/F: the PIC will be the most experienced pilot for the task, regardless of seat position

A

True

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20
Q

On subsequent flights during the same day with the same crew, what flight elements must be briefed?

A

Only those items which have changed from the previous flights

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21
Q

Ops Sup

A

Operations Supervisor

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22
Q

SDO

A

Standby Duty Officer

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23
Q

NOTAMS

A

Notice to Airmen

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24
Q

FCIF

A

Flight Crew Information Files

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25
Q

SRF

A

Squadron Read Files

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26
Q

SII

A

Special Interest Items

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27
Q

IP

A

Instructor Pilot

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28
Q

RM

A

Risk Management

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29
Q

Alternate missions will be more/less complex than the primary mission?

A

Less complex

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30
Q

What is the alternate mission for a pattern tow?

A

None

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31
Q

Can relevant mission items be briefed during flight if practical?

A

Yes

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32
Q

What 6 documents must be on board for flight?

A 
Aircraft weight and balance
Airworthiness certificate
Aircraft registration
AFTO Form 781F
Pilots Checklist
Unit developed pilot aid
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33
Q

Will students fly solo in aircraft requiring an operational check?

A

No

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34
Q

If the tail battery is removed for weight and balance, where must it be annotated?

A

Form 781 and it will be reinstalled immediately after flight

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35
Q

FOD

A

Foreign Object Damage

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36
Q

T/F: All loose items must be secured in the cockpit at all times

A

True

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37
Q

Assembly and disassembly can only be performed by whom?

A

Trained crew members

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38
Q

Who signs off the red X and the “Inspected by” block in the AFTO Form 781A?

A

The individual who performed the inspection

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39
Q

Who can inspect the aircraft if maintenance is unavailable?

A

Only rated pilots or civilian equivalent

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40
Q

Can a cadet sign the “inspected by” block of the AFTO Form 781A?

A

No

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41
Q

What does a red tag on the aircraft control stick indicate?

A

A nonairworthy condition. The form 781H must be updated to “red X” status

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42
Q

Who can remove a red tag when repairs are complete and the aircraft is released for flight?

A

Only authorized maintenance

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43
Q

Do interior and exterior inspections need to be accomplished for relights?

A

No

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44
Q

How much nose to tail separation is required when ground handling sailplanes?

A

10 feet minimum

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45
Q

When is less than 10 ft of ground nose to tail separation between sailplanes authorized?

A

When sailplanes are staged for a cross country launch grid or they are being hangared

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46
Q

When will airbrakes be open or unlocked and the upwind wing manned?

A

At all times except if in takeoff position

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47
Q

Can wings/fuselages be overlapped when ground handling? When hangaring?

A

Ground handle, no overlap

Can overlap to hangar

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48
Q

How long must drag lines for towing be?

A

At least as long as one half the wingspan of the sailplane

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49
Q

How many people are needed to ground handle sailplanes?

A

3 or more people, 2 minimum

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50
Q

The canopy must be…..when the cockpit is not occupied, unless the canopy is being guarded.

A

Closed and secured

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51
Q

How many people are required to move any sailplane with a main wheel dolly installed?

A

3

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52
Q

How many people are required to install or remove the tail dolly or wingtip wheel?

A

1 (2 recommended)

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53
Q

When being towed by a vehicle, how far away from other aircraft or obstruction must the sailplane be?

A

No closer than 10 feet

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54
Q

When winds exceed 25 knots, ground nose-to-tail separation between sailplanes will increase too?

A

At least one half the wingspan

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55
Q

When winds exceed 25 knots, how many people are required to move each sailplane?

A

3

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56
Q

When winds exceed 25 knots, how many people are required to man the sailplane when static?

A

2

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57
Q

When winds exceed 30 knots, all sailplanes will be…

A

Tied down or be hangared

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58
Q

How many people are required to move sailplanes when winds exceed 30 knots?

A

4 people minimum, preferred as many as possible

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59
Q

How many people are required to hangar sailplanes?

A

Minimum 2

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60
Q

Can the marshal approve pedestrians to cross between two toy planes with engines running?

A

No, never allowed

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61
Q

What signal does Skytrain give when aircraft are cleared to proceed along Taxiway hotel.

A

A siren

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62
Q

What is the minimum runway condition reading for unrestricted sailplane operations on the hard surface?

A

12(wet)

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63
Q

RCR

A

runway condition reading

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64
Q

Operations will be limited when the density altitude exceeds

A

10,000 feet

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65
Q

Tow operations will cease when a minimum altitude of ….cannot be achieved by….

A

200 feet AGL cannot be achieved by 1 nautical mile

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66
Q

NM

A

nautical mile

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67
Q

TOLD

A

Take Off Landing Data

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68
Q

Final must be established no lower than

A

200 feet AGL

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69
Q

AGL

A

Above ground level

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70
Q

Turn final no further than….from the departure end of the runway

A

1 NM

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71
Q

Maximum wind for take off for all sailplanes

A

25 knots

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72
Q

Gust factor limits for all sailplanes is

A

10 knots

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73
Q

Exercise extreme caution when the tailwind component exceeds

A

5 knots

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74
Q

The maximum crosswind limit for an initial solo’s takeoff and landing is

A

10 knots

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75
Q

The maximum headwind limit (including gusts) during takeoff for a planned opposite direction simulated rope break landing is

A

10 knots unless approved by the Ops Sup

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76
Q

Land the aircraft so as to maintain at least how much lateral separation from sailplanes or obstacles during landing and rollout?

A

one full wingspan of lateral separation

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77
Q

Solo students landing in the SPLA require at least how many feet of separation west of the west runway or other sailplanes?

A

100 feet of separation

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78
Q

Are AM251 students authorized in between landings?

A

No, unless safety dictates

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79
Q

The aircraft must be stopped how many feet behind other aircraft, object, or personnel?

A

at least 200 feet

80
Q

Is a tow rope considered an obstacle the plane must stop 200ft before of?

A

No, but avoid rolling over assembly hardware

81
Q

What is the only authorized method of sailpane launch?

A

Aerotow- by a tow rope attached to a tow plane

82
Q

Tow ropes must be how long?

A

200 feet +- 10

83
Q

Ropes that are missing a pigtail, excessively frayed, unraveled, or otherwise in poor condition will be

A

removed from service immediately

84
Q

Can rope runners grab the rope while it is being towed by the tow plane?

A

No, but they can guide it with their foot to prevent the rope from hitting obstacles, or can be picked up using a gaffe.

85
Q

How far must personnel/objects not involved with the launch of the sailplane in departure position be away?

A

Either behind the broad yellow line to the rear of the aircraft or 50 ft clear to the side of the aircraft.

86
Q

What is a takeoff accomplished without the utilization of a wing runner?

A

A wing low takeoff.

87
Q

Who can perform wing low takeoffs?

A

Any IP unless the Ops Sup/SDO directs “No wing low takeoffs”

88
Q

What altitude are standard area tows?

A

9000 MSL

89
Q

MSL

A

mean sea level

90
Q

How much separation is needed of nose-to-tail separation between sailplanes?

A

10 feet

91
Q

How many sailplanes are permitted to line up on the hard surface of runway 16R/34L?

A

5, but skytrain can waive it up to 8

92
Q

Sailplanes landing in the SPLA will land no closer than 100ft from the west runway, then stack west with a minimum of how many feet of separation from any other sailplane or obstacle in the landing area.

A

50 feet

93
Q

ATC

A

Air traffic control

94
Q

How much clearance does a sailplane need if making a landing in between?

A

one full wingspan on both sides, 3 wingspans total

95
Q

During an off field landing, maintain at least how much clearance from all structures on rollout?

A

100 ft

96
Q

During an off field landing, stop a minimum of how many feet from any other taxiway, road, or obstacles in the landing zone?

A

50 ft

97
Q

What happens if a sailplane does not stop between the EOR lines?

A

The runway will be closed to other landing traffic until the sailplane is moved between the EOR lines, clear of the runway hold short lines, or one wingspan clear of runway 16R/34L edge line.

98
Q

EOR

A

End of Runway

99
Q

What is the maximum pattern bank angle?

A

45*

100
Q

What is the minimum safety altitude for a 1 NM radius gate finish?

A

500 ft

101
Q

What is the minimum safety altitude for a 2NM radius gate finish?

A

800 ft

102
Q

Pilots will roll out on final at a minimum of how many feet?

A

200 ft

103
Q

AUTO is a VFR reporting point for what area?

A

North area

104
Q

PEN is a VFR reporting point for what area?

A

South area

105
Q

What will be the traffic pattern entry altitude for a normal pattern?

A

800 ft AGL (7300 MSL) +-100 ft

106
Q

What is the north entry point?

A

The three-way intersection of Pine Drive, Stadium Boulevard, and South Gate Boulevard

107
Q

What is the south entry point?

A

A small loop in a paved road north of the 10 Air Base Wing

108
Q

ABW

A

Air Base Wing

109
Q

Must skytrain be notified of an intentional low pattern?

A

Yes, “intentional low pattern” must be added to the one minute to AUTO/PEN call and downwind

110
Q

Must skytrain be notified of an unintentional low pattern?

A

Yes, “low pattern” must be added to the downwind call if pattern is entered below 700 feet

111
Q

What is the entry point for a south extended base recovery? What altitude should you arrive over the entry point?

A

South end of ice lake at 500 ft AGL (7000 MSL)

112
Q

What is the entry point for a north extended base recovery? What altitude should you arrive over the entry point?

A

The intersection of Community Center Drive and Stadium Boulevard at 500 ft AGL (7000 MSL)

113
Q

Must skytrain acknowledge the “Two minutes to extended base” radio call?

A

Yes

114
Q

Is more than one sailplane allowed in an acrobatic area at a time?

A

No, when the acrobatic areas are active all other aircraft will remain well clear.

115
Q

What is the altitude boundaries for the North Aerobatic Area?

A

9000ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

116
Q

What are the boundaries of the North Aerobatic Area?

A

Bounded by the Academy Club, Reservoir 3, through the cemetery to Stadium Boulevard, south along Stadium Boulevard to Academy Drive to the Academy Club

117
Q

What is the ground elevation of the North Aerobatic Area?

A

7,000 ft MSL

118
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for the West Aerobatic Area?

A

9000 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

119
Q

What are the boundaries of the West Aerobatic Area?

A

It is a rectangle bounded by the east-west running ridgeline with the green water tank (south border) to the Pine Valley Child Development Center (Northeast Corner) and the water filtration plant )west border). Remain north of the Peregrine Estates subdivision.

120
Q

What is the ground elevation for the West Aerobatic Area?

A

7000 ft MSL

121
Q

What two areas is the East Aerobatic Area divided into?

A

East Alpha and East Bravo

122
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for East Alpha aerobatic area?

A

8000ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

123
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for East Bravo aerobatic area?

A

8,100 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

124
Q

Aircraft in East Bravo will not fly lower than how many feet?

A

9000 ft MSL

125
Q

What is the ground elevation for the East Aerobatic Area?

A

6,500 ft

126
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for the Athletic Field Aerobatic Area?

A

8,600 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

127
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for the Stadium Aerobatic Area?

A

8,200 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

128
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for the Prep School Aerobatic Area?

A

8,500 ft MSL to 12,500 ft MSL

129
Q

What is the minimum altitude for a high speed pass?

A

500 ft

130
Q

What altitude must spins be initiated above?

A

3,500 feet AGL

131
Q

What altitude must spins be recovered by?

A

No lower than 3000 ft AGL except for competition spins which may recover as low as 2,000 ft AGL

132
Q

What altitude must spin prevents be recovered by?

A

2,000 ft AGL

133
Q

Spiral dives must be recovered by what altitude?

A

1,500 ft AGL

134
Q

Nose high stalls, turning stalls, and landing attitude stalls must be recovered by what altitude?

A

1,500 ft AGL

135
Q

All aerobatics must be completed above?

A

1,200 ft AGL

136
Q

Complete slow flight above what altitude?

A

1000 ft AGL

137
Q

The stall indication airspeed for slow flight must be determined by what altitude?

A

1,500 ft AGL

138
Q

Thermalling must be completed no lower than what altitude?

A

500 ft AGL

139
Q

What is the minimum altitude for Intentional slack lines?

A

1,000 ft AGL

140
Q

What is the minimum altitude for box-the-wash?

A

1,000 ft AGL

141
Q

What minimum altitude must be maintained during ridge soaring or flight over mountain ranges?

A

500 ft AGL

142
Q

All slips must be recovered by what altitude?

A

100 ft AGL

143
Q

Are aircraft allowed to fly further west than the western boundary?

A

No, unless on tow above 10,000 ft MSL. This restriction does not apply to oxygen, wave, or cross-country flights.

144
Q

AMU

A

Acceleration Monitoring Unit

145
Q

IF lightning or thunderstorms are reported within 10 NM of the are of operation, units will ensure that aircraft are…

A

Not exposed to hail, lightning, wind shear, or microbursts

146
Q

Units will terminate operations when lightning is within how many NM?

A

5NM

147
Q

When the wind chill index is below 32* F, time is limited outside a heated environment to how long?

A

30 mins

148
Q

Sailplane operations will cease when the chill index is below what temperature?

A

0*F

149
Q

The chill index can be waved to what temperature by the FTS/CC or FTS/SDO?

A

-19*F

150
Q

All operations will cease when the chill index is at or below what temperature?

A

-20*F

151
Q

VMC

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions

152
Q

Is flight into areas of known or forecast icing conditions authorized?

A

No, prohibited

153
Q

IS flight into areas of forecast sever turbulence authorized?

A

Only with OG Commander approval. If sever turbulence is reported, cease operations in the affected area.

154
Q

Pilots will report severe sink conditions to the unit supervisors or air traffic control. What are severe sink conditions?

A

Greater than 10 knots at normal glide speeds

155
Q

What four maneuvers will not be accomplished unless an instructor pilot is at a set of controls?

A

Intentional slack lines, spins, intentional low patterns, and simulated rope break

156
Q

What are the boundaries of the local soaring flying area?

A

Palmer lake, rampart reservoir, the town of cascade, and southwest along highway 24 to the intersection with S. 31st street, north to Glen Eyrie Reservoir, northeast to the intersection of S. Rockrimmon Blvd and I-25, north along the railroad tracks immediately west of I-25 to the town of monument and back to palmer lake.

157
Q

What are the altitude boundaries for the local flying area?

A

Surface to 17,500 ft MSL

158
Q

What Alert Area covers USAFA property?

A

A-260

159
Q

What class airspace is the USAFA airfield? How far does it extend?

A

Class D airspace with a 3 mile radius from the tower.

160
Q

What altitude does the class D airspace extend too?

A

Surface to 8,800 MSL

161
Q

What airway crosses through the alert area? At what altitude must aircraft operating through the alert area use caution on this airway?

A

Victory Airway, V-108 at 10,400

162
Q

What is the No Transgression Zone used for?

A

Tows and Emergencies. The NTZ affords tow pilots an area to tow through while making normal area tows, and also provides a area for sailplanes to recover during emergencies and severe sink conditions.

163
Q

What is the altitude box for the No transgression zone?

A

Surface to 8000 MSL

164
Q

Where do the majority of soaring activities take place? To what altitude?

A

West of the railroad tracks, south of North Gate Boulevard, east of the Front Range, and north of the North Gravel Pit. Remain below 12,500 ft MSL

165
Q

When parachuting airspace is active, conditions permitting, and above 8,000 ft MSL, gliders and tow panes should remain at least how far west of the western border of the parachuting airspace?

A

At least 1/2 NM

166
Q

NTZ

A

No Transgression Zone

167
Q

What glide ratio are the circles of safety based on? How much margin of safety does this provide?

A

17:1 with clam winds, provides a 2:1 margin of safety

168
Q

The circles of safety provide a minimum of how much terrain clearance above the points on the circles (but not necessarily all terrain in the area?)

A

1000 ft AGL

169
Q

What is the 8200 circle of safety?

A

An arc defined by the Blue Townhome Tennis Courts, Mt Saint Francis, USAFA hospital, and USAFA Cemetery

170
Q

What is the 7800 circle of safety?

A

An arc defined by the Santa Fe Red Roods, the Pine Valley Baseball Fields, and Falcon Stadium

171
Q

What are the lateral boundaries of the parachuting Style Zone?

A

The Same as the no transgression zone (South entry point, north entry point, NCO club, stables)

172
Q

What are the boundaries of the No Transgression Zone?

A

North entry point, south entry point, NCO Club, and stables

173
Q

What is the altitude block for the Style Zone?

A

9,500-17,500 ft MSL

174
Q

If the Remotely Piloted Aircraft area is active, aircraft must remain at least how far above the RPA airspace?

A

At least 1000 ft

175
Q

What is the RPA runway name?

A

Aardvark

176
Q

Can sailplanes fly prior to official sunrise?

A

No

177
Q

How much time before official sunset must sail planes be in the traffic pattern?

A

5 minutes prior to official sunset

178
Q

When must all sailplanes be landed by?

A

Sailplanes must land no later than official sunset

179
Q

May pilots practice compound or multiple simulated emergencies in flight or initiate simulated emergencies below 300 ft?

A

No

180
Q

All opposite direction landings in the SPLA will land where?

A

Far west (Lane 4) and clear visually for other aircraft

181
Q

G awareness exercise will be accomplished before every sortie when they plan or are likely to maneuver above how many Gs?

A

Four Gs

182
Q

What is a G awareness exercise?

A

A smooth pull to at least four Gs

183
Q

If a discrepancy exists between the front and rear cockpit G meters after cross checking between cockpits , which meter will the pilots use?

A

The most conservative (highest indicated G) display

184
Q

Initial solo students use what call sign?

A

Flash XX

185
Q

When releasing from tow, when must skytrain be notified?

A

If releasing from tow outside of +-300 feet from requested altitude

186
Q

Skytrain must be notified when ascending and descending through which altitude barriers?

A

12,500 ft MSL, 14,000 MSL (with PRICE check complete), and 15,500 ft MSL in the local flying area

187
Q

How often must contact with skytrain be made above altitudes of 12,500 ft MSL?

A

Every 30 minutes

188
Q

When should the last aerotow of the day be launched?

A

No later than approximately 25 mins prior to official sunset or scheduled closing time.

189
Q

When should the last pattern tow of the day be launched?

A

No later than approximately 10 minutes prior to sunset or scheduled closing time?

190
Q

When should all sailplanes be hangarded?

A

No later than 15 minutes after official sunset.

191
Q

How many AM-251/AM-461 sorties may be in the air at one time?

A

No more than 8. Other sorties or continuation sorties are not included in this restriction

192
Q

What should be done on downwind to indicate a radio out?

A

Rock the wings

193
Q

Define severe sink

A

Any sever sink rate over 10 knots down on the vertical speed indicator (VSI) or equal to 1000 ft per minute decent rate, while flying near Min Lift over Drag

194
Q

What is normal decent rate at pattern airspeed?

A

Approximately 150 ft per minute, or 1.5 knots down on the VSI

195
Q

What are three recommended USAFA emergency landing fields?

A

Officers Club landing field, Cadet Parade field, Aardvark

Soaring 461 (3 decks)

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