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Soaring 461 > Dash 1 > Flashcards

Dash 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Dash 1 title/purpose

A

Operational supplement/flight manual

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2
Q

Section VI title

A

Flight Characteristics

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3
Q

Warning: At speeds above Va, full control inputs will only be applied…

A

slowly and smoothly

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4
Q

Warning: At Vne exceeding what fraction of full deflection range will damage the aircraft? Avoid what kind of movements?

A

1/3 full deflection. Avoid sudden and abrupt movements

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5
Q

Warning: Do not exceed what airspeed in strong turbulence?

A

Vra

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6
Q

Va

A

Maneuvering airspeed

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7
Q

Vne

A

Velocity never to exceed

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8
Q

Vra

A

rough airspeed

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9
Q

Vt

A

max aerotow airspeed)

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10
Q

Warning: Airbrakes should not be opened above what airspeed

A

Vne

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11
Q

Warning: at speeds above Va extend the airbrakes gradually, allowing approximately how many seconds from closed to full extension?

A

2 seconds

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12
Q

Caution: when exceeding how many degrees nose low, it is possible to exceed what airspeed with airbrakes open?

A

45* nose low, exceed Vne

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13
Q

Full stalls are characterized by:

A

Nose drop (G-break) and possible wing drop

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14
Q

A natural stall warning occurs….above the stall speed and consists of a light airframe buffet.

A

2-4 KIAS

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15
Q

When airbrakes are extended, stall speed increases by how much?

A

2-4 KIAS

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16
Q

Caution: During stalls with airbrakes deployed, the airframe buffet from the airbrakes may mask what?

A

The natural stall warning indications

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17
Q

What is the altitude loss from stalls?

A

80-160 ft

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18
Q

Stall recovery is accomplished by …. (3 Rs)

A

Relax back stick pressure, Roll wings level, recover

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19
Q

Why does the airspeed indicator reading oscillate during a stalled condition?

A

Because of turbulent air influencing the nose-mounted pitot tube.

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20
Q

Caution: not all stalls experience a clean nose or wing drop, excessive….shown on the variometer may also indicate a stalled condition

A

sink

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21
Q

Spin entry is signified by

A

nose and wing drop and autorotation

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22
Q

Spins are characterized by:

A

low wind noise, autorotation, low G forces, and slower speeds

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23
Q

What is the altitude loss per rotation for an upright spin?

A

approx. 320 ft

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24
Q

What is the altitude loss per rotation for an inverted spin?

A

approx. 580 ft

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25
Q

Nearly all spins range from ….seconds per turn, with a steep altitude of …. degrees nose low.

A

3-6 seconds, 60-80* nose lose

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26
Q

What do airbrakes do to the yawing motion if extended during a spin entry.

A

Slow or reduce yawing motion

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27
Q

When control inputs are neutralized, the aircraft should stop spinning in how many turns?

A

One turn or less

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28
Q

When a flight manual spin recovery technique is used, recover occurs usually in how many turns?

A

half a turn, or 180* or less

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29
Q

What is the average altitude lost during a flight manual recovery?

A

600 ft

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30
Q

If controls are held neutral for recovery instead of a flight manual recovery, what is the average altitude lost during recovery ?

A

700 ft (100 ft more than flight manual recovery)

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31
Q

If the flight manual recovery is completed improperly (forward stick before opposite rudder) what is the average altitude lost during recovery?

A

830 ft

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32
Q

Warning: Should controls be released in an attempt to recover from a spin?

A

No, they may float to a pro-spin position and it may not be recoverable from the spin. This is not the same as neutralizing the controls.

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33
Q

Spins that degrade into a dive, spiral dive, or stop spinning altogether in less than 3 full turns with pro-spin controls held are defined as what kind of spin?

A

Incipient spins

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34
Q

What are the three spin modes?

A

Upright, inverted smooth, and inverted oscillatory

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35
Q

Caution: Why do Airspeed indications become erroneous at high yaw angles of a spin?

A

Because the static vents on the sides of the fuselage are bypassed asymmetrically

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36
Q

The TG-16A is more prone to enter a spin in the ….CG positions than …. CG positions.

A

More prone in far aft CG positions than forward or mid CG positions.

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37
Q

Warning: If proper turn coordination is not exercised near a stall, a spin may occur with only what inputs?

A

Stick inputs (Such as a stud doing an uncoordinated nose high stall and falling into a spin)

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38
Q

Warning: A three second spin and subsequent recovery to level flight, started below approximately 800 ft may result in?

A

Ground impact

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39
Q

Spiral Dives are recovered by:

A

easing the control stick forward and applying opposite rudder and aileron until the aircrafts bank angle is 45* or less. Then smoothly increase back stick pressure and recover to level flight.

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40
Q

Spiral dives are characterized by:

A

greater G forces, greater wind noises, and the aircraft turning into a tightening spiral

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41
Q

During a spin, if airspeed increases through 60 KIAS, the aircraft may have transitioned into what?

A

A spiral dive

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42
Q

Warning: Since the aircraft will accelerate into a spiral dive quickly due to weight and efficiency, when pulling out of the dive what must be observed to avoid possible over-G and structural damage?

A

The permissible control surface deflections at Va and Vne

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43
Q

Warning: If airbrakes are applied abruptly at speeds above Va, what will occur?

A

Instantaneous over-G and structural damage. Smooth application of airbrakes will minimize this possibility.

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44
Q

TAS

A

true air speed

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45
Q

IAS

A

indicated air speed

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46
Q

At high altitude flight, true airspeed …. versus indicated airspeed. This difference does not affect the structural integrity or load factors, but to avoid any risk of flutter, the …IAS must not be exceeded.

A

increases, Vne

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47
Q

Caution: The TG-16A is a high performance sailplane that exhibits a potential for high speed increase in a dive, especially when….

A

inverted

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48
Q

Caution: Aerobatics should only be executed by who? Or only after aerobatics have been ….. on other sailplane types.

A

Experienced pilots, mastered

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49
Q

Caution: Do not make abrupt full control inputs above what speed?

A

Va (100 KIAS)

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50
Q

Caution: At speeds between Va and Vne, reduce control inputs linearly to what deflection at Vne?

A

1/3 maximum deflection

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51
Q

Dash 1 Section I title?

A

Description and Operation

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52
Q

Dash 1 Section II title?

A

Normal Procedures

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53
Q

Dash 1 Section III title?

A

Emergency Procedures

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54
Q

Dash 1 Section IV title?

A

Crew Duties (not applicable)

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55
Q

Dash 1 Section V title?

A

Operating Limitations

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56
Q

Dash 1 Section VI title?

A

Flight Characteristics

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57
Q

Dash 1 Section VII title?

A

All Weather Operations

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58
Q

What does a black line in the margin of a paragraph mean?

A

Signifies text changes

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59
Q

What does a miniature hand indicate?

A

Changes to illustrations

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60
Q

What constitutes operating procedures, techniques, etc. which could result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed?

A

Warnings

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61
Q

What constitutes operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed?

A

Caution

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62
Q

What constitutes an operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize?

A

Notes

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63
Q

What terms are used to express that requirements are binding and mandatory?

A

Shall or Will

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64
Q

What term is used to express a non-mandatory desire or preferred method of accomplishment and shall be construed as a non-mandatory provision?

A

Should

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65
Q

What term is used to express an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment and shall be construed as a non-mandatory provision. not used to express possibility (might)

A

May

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66
Q

What is the civilian designation of the TG-16A?

A

DG-1001 Club

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67
Q

What two categories is the TG-16A certified in?

A

Both “Utility” and “Aerobatic” Categories

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68
Q

What is the TG-16A constructed of?

A

Glass and Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic (GFRP/CFRP)

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69
Q

Caution: Excessive pressure on the GFRP/CFRP may cause permanent denting and damage to the aircraft. Avoid having what kind of objects come in contact with the aircraft?

A

Sharp, metal, or pointed

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70
Q

What kind of airbrakes is the TG-16A equipped with?

A

Equipped with double story Schempp-Hirth type airbrakes on the upper wing surface

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71
Q

How is the hydraulic main wheel drum bake actuated?

A

By full extension of the airbrake handle

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72
Q

Warning: Does the minimum load on the front seat need to be observed?

A

Yes

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73
Q

Warning: Incorrect loading could cause an out of CG condition that could result in what?

A

Unrecoverable flight condition

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74
Q

Length of the TG-16A

A

28.12 ft

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75
Q

Wing span of TG-16A

A

59.06 ft

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76
Q

Height of TG-16A

A

6 ft

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77
Q

Wing area of TG-16A

A

179.97 sq ft

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78
Q

Aspect ratio of TG-16A

A

19.4

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79
Q

Mean Aerodynamic Chord length of TG-16A

A

3.14 ft

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80
Q

Wing loading of TG-16A

A

5.08-7.72 lb/ft^2

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81
Q

Max aerobatic weight

A

1389 lbs

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82
Q

Max utility weight

A

1433 lbs

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83
Q

Empty weight

A

906 lbs

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84
Q

Glide ratio (Typical gear retracted)

A

40:1

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85
Q

The flight control surfaces are actuated by control sticks and rudder pedals through what kind of systems?

A

Push rod and cable systems

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86
Q

Aileron and elevator control is accomplished through what kind of flight control system?

A

Push rods connected to each control stick

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87
Q

Rudder control is accomplished through what kind of flight control system?

A

Cables connected to each set of rudder pedals.

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88
Q

The elevator trim system …. aerodynamic pitch forces felt on the control stick.

A

reduces

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89
Q

Warning: the rear cockpit control stick may be removed by qualified maintenance personnel. What must be secured prior to flight?

A

The mounting screw

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90
Q

How can the front cockpit rudder pedals be adjusted?

A

By pulling on the black adjustment knob on the lower right hand side of the instrument panel.

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91
Q

Are rear cockpit pedals adjustable?

A

No, but the seat bottom has an adjustment strap that can be used to raise the seat pan to a higher position, changing leg position.

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92
Q

Warning: Proper rudder pedal adjustment should be checked prior to takeoff to ensure what?

A

Unimpeded rudder travel

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93
Q

How do you trim the aircraft?

A

By squeezing and then releasing the green lever at the base of the control stick, which trims the aircraft to the position of the stick.

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94
Q

Where is the green trim indicator knob located?

A

On the left side of the cockpit under the airbrake handle.

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95
Q

T/F For small trim adjustments, squeeze the trim lever and then pull the green trim indicator in the direction of desired trim.

A

True

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96
Q

What two types of turbulator tape are included with the TG-16A?

A

Dimple tape, and zigzag tape.

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97
Q

What is the function of turbulator tape?

A

To improve boundary layer separation.

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98
Q

Where is dimple turbulator tape located?

A

Below the main wings.

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99
Q

Where is zigzag turbulator tape located?

A

On the vertical and horizontal stabilizers

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100
Q

Warning: Can the aircraft fly if turublator tape is missing or separating from the aircraft?

A

No

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101
Q

What is the function of gap tape?

A

To prevent foreign objects from entering/binding the flight controls at the connecting point.

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102
Q

Warning: Can the aircraft fly if gap tape is separating from the wing or aileron? Why?

A

No, flight control masking may occur

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103
Q

What is the purpose of sealing tape?

A

To seal the caps in the wing root and wingtips in order to reduce drag and seal the wings from wind noise

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104
Q

Can the aircraft fly without sealing tape?

A

Yes

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105
Q

Note: Is it normal for the fiberglass top panel on the airbrake to flutter at certain airspeeds when open?

A

Yes

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106
Q

Note: By how much is stall speed increased with fully open airbrakes?

A

2-4 KIAS

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107
Q

What is the primary use of airbrakes?

A

Glide path control

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108
Q

What are other functions of the airbrakes besides glidepath control?

A

Rapid descents, ground rollout control, maintain airspeed within limits, and to recover from or prevent large slacklines during aerotow

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109
Q

What is the safety system installed in the airbrake lever to prevent inadvertent airbrake deployment while in-flight?

A

Piggot Hook

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110
Q

Warning: Does the sailplane have “terminal” airbrakes? What does this mean?

A

No, it doesn’t have terminal airbrakes meaning it is possible to exceed Vne with airbrakes fully extended with a nose down pitch greater than 45*.

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111
Q

Warning: Should airbrakes be opened above Vne?

A

No, there is a possibility of structural damage due to higher aerodynamic forces and G-loads.

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112
Q

Warning: What should the pilot do in order to prevent inadvertent opening of the airbrakes and an instantaneous over G of the aircraft at high speeds?

A

Guard the airbrake handle

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113
Q

Caution: Why shouldn’t airbrakes be deployed abruptly?

A

Opening airbrakes quickly may result in excessively high wing loads and abrupt air braking due to high airbrake efficiency. Airbrakes should be extended gradually.

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114
Q

Caution: What happens to G-limits when airbrakes are open?

A

They are reduced.

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115
Q

Caution: How should a recovery from a dive with airbrakes extended be accomplished?

A

Smoothly

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116
Q

Note: Deceleration forces are noticeable when extending the airbrakes. Above Va, airbrakes should be extended gradually, taking ….seconds from closed to full extension.

A

2 seconds

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117
Q

Note: The front cockpit pilot must be aware not to block the airbrake handle with their left leg/knee.

A

just a note :)

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118
Q

What are three ways to release the tow rope from the aircraft?

A

Tow release mechanism, yellow tow release knob, and CG tow release

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119
Q

What is the tow release mechanism?

A

The tow release mechanism activates the safety tow hook in the nose of the aircraft to release the tow rope from the aircraft.

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120
Q

Where is the yellow tow release knob?

A

Located on the left of the control pedestal, pulling will activate the release mechanism.

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121
Q

Where is the CG tow release?

A

Installed front of the main wheel

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122
Q

Warning: When is CG tow release authorized?

A

Only using winch and auto-launching. Should never be used for aerotow launch.

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123
Q

A spring mounted fixed main wheel with a manualy operated hydraulic drum brake describes what gear?

A

The main gear

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124
Q

How is the main wheel drum brake activated?

A

By full extension of the airbrake handle

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125
Q

Where is the hydraulic reservoir located?

A

On the left side of the fuselage behind the rear cockpit seat above the wing spar.

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126
Q

Caution: When should landing with full airbrakes be avoided?

A

To prevent inadvertent or unexpected wheel brake actuation immediately upon touchdown.

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127
Q

What kind of safety harness is used in the TG-16A?

A

5 point safety harness

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128
Q

Does the front seat pan adjust?

A

No, but has the option of installing an adjustable booster seat for shorter pilots.

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129
Q

Does the rear seat pan adjust?

A

Yes, mounted by front hinges and adjustable for sitting height by an adjustment strap.

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130
Q

Are the seatbelts anchored to the seat pans?

A

No, they are anchored to the aircraft.

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131
Q

Caution: Why should FOD be checked during the preflight of the rear seat?

A

Objects left under the seat pan could cause damage to the seat after it has been occupied.

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132
Q

What are the canopies made of?

A

Plexiglass

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133
Q

What color is the Canopy Release Handle? Where is it located?

A

Red and White and located on the left side of the cockpit.

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134
Q

What color is the Canopy Emergency Release Handle? Where is it located?

A

Red, and located on the right side of the canopy.

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135
Q

Should the canopy be opened using the Sliding Canopy Window?

A

No

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136
Q

What system holds each canopy open?

A

A hydraulic strut

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137
Q

The rear canopy is also guarded from fully opening by what?

A

A cable attached to the fuselage.

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138
Q

Warning: Ensure that the canopy rail is clear of straps, fingers, cables, or other objects to prevent damage to equipment or personal injury.

A

:)

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139
Q

Caution: Must the canopy be guarded when open?

A

Yes

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140
Q

Caution: How should you open the canopy in high winds?

A

Hold tightly to the canopy when opening in high wind conditions to keep it from opening abruptly. A rapid opening could cause the canopy to depart the aircraft or cause serious damage.

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141
Q

Caution: How should the aircraft be stored outside at high temperatures?

A

Install the canopy cover to prevent excessive heat build up and warping.

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142
Q

Caution: Should the aircraft be ground handled with the canopy open?

A

No, unless the canopy is held securely.

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143
Q

Caution: Why should the canopies be guarded when getting into the aircraft?

A

To prevent them from bouncing when the plane settles on its nose wheel

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144
Q

Caution: If the rear canopy cable is disconnected, will the rear hydraulic strut prevent the canopy from fully opening?

A

No

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145
Q

Caution: When closing the canopy, in order to prevent damage to the canopy sill and locking pins, the canopy release handle should be in what position?

A

Full open position

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146
Q

Caution: Should the canopy be lifted by the window opening?

A

No. This could cause cracking at the window screws.

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147
Q

Where is the baggage compartment located?

A

Behind the rear cockpit seat.

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148
Q

How much does the rear cockpit seat hold?

A

Up to 33 lbs

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149
Q

What is the hole with red tape located by the left shoulder of each cockpit seat used for?

A

It is an attachment point if zero-delay parachutes are used

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150
Q

VFR

A

Visual Flight Rules

151
Q

Each crew position is equipped with which VFR instruments?

A

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, G meter, G-logger, a magnetic compass, and a pneumatic variometer.

152
Q

What is the airspeed indicator measured in?

A

KIAS

153
Q

What is he altimeter measured in?

A

Feet

154
Q

What does the green arc on the airspeed indicator mean?

A

Defines the normal operating range

155
Q

What does the yellow arc on the airspeed indicator mean?

A

Defines a speed range at which maneuvers must be conducted with caution and only in smooth air

156
Q

What does the red line on the airspeed indicator mean?

A

Identifies the maximum speed for all operations up to 10,000 ft pressure altitude.

157
Q

What does the yellow triangle identify on the airspeed indicator?

A

The manufacturer recommended approach speed at inflight maximum weight

158
Q

What does the smallest pointer indicate on the altimeter?

A

each 10,000 feet of altitude

159
Q

What does the middle pointer indicate on the altimeter?

A

Each 1,000 feet of altitude

160
Q

What does the largest pointer indicate on the altimeter?

A

Each 100 feet of altitude. Serves as a precise readout of values less than 100 feet

161
Q

Do the front and rear altimeters operate independent of each other?

A

Yes

162
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

A barometric pressure set knob inserts the desired altimeter setting in inches of Hg (mercury).

163
Q

What is the normal G range of the G-meter?

A

-5 to +10 normal G

164
Q

What do the three G-meter needles indicate?

A

One indicates positive Gs, one indicates negative Gs, and one indicates present existing G loads.

165
Q

How do you reset the G meter?

A

With the push-to-reset knob on the lower left portion of the G-meter which resets the needles to the one G position.

166
Q

The G-meter has red radial lines at what limits?

A

+7 and -5 G for aircraft limitations when flown within the aerobatic category restrictions

167
Q

Note: Do the G-forces obtained during landing indicate an over-G’ed condition?

A

No. The G-meter is sensitive during landing, and may not indicate loads experienced by the aircraft during flight.

168
Q

Are the G-meter readings after landing reliable?

A

No, the G-meter must be checked during flight.

169
Q

What should be done to the G-meter prior to flight?

A

Must be reset

170
Q

What does the G-logger record?

A

Take off and landing time, maximum positive and negative G loadings, altitude, and airspeed.

171
Q

What do over +7 and below -5 G conditions indicate?

A

An over-G condition

172
Q

When pressing the G-logger for 2 seconds, what indicates an Over-G condition?

A

3 short, 3 long, 3 short beeps

173
Q

When pressing the G-logger for 2 seconds, what does a single beep indicate?

A

The plane has not sustained an Over-G condition

174
Q

Can the G logger be reset by the pilot?

A

No

175
Q

How many flights of data can the G-logger record?

A

40,000 flights

176
Q

How can the data from the G-logger be downloaded?

A

With the data port to the right of the button

177
Q

The magnetic, liquid filled and free floating compass is only reliable when?

A

In straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight.

178
Q

What does the pneumatic variometer measure (layman’s terms)?

A

lift and sink

179
Q

What are the two main components of the navigation system?

A

A direct digital variometer and a navigation display unit

180
Q

What does the Cambridge 302 Direct Digital Variometer have sensors for?

A

Altitude, airspeed, acceleration, and temperature

181
Q

What shape is the Cambridge 302 DDV?

A

Circle

182
Q

How do you turn the 302 DDV on? Turn it off?

A

Press the control knob located at lower left 7 o’clock position of instrument. Turn it off by holding it for 3 seconds.

183
Q

How do you get to the home screen on the 302 DDV?

A

Quickly press the control knob twice

184
Q

The 302 DDV shows GPS status by the number of horizontal bars at the right of the home screen. What does one bar mean?

A

GPS receiver working, no satellites detected

185
Q

The 302 DDV shows GPS status by the number of horizontal bars at the right of the home screen. What does two bars mean?

A

satellites detected, no 3D fix for receiver

186
Q

The 302 DDV shows GPS status by the number of horizontal bars at the right of the home screen. What does three bars mean?

A

GPS reception is ok for flight logging

187
Q

How many screens does the 302 DDV have?

A

11

188
Q

What shape is the Cambridge 303 Navigation Display Unit?

A

Rectangular

189
Q

How do you turn the 303 on? Off?

A

Press the On key. Hold for more than 3 seconds to turn it off.

190
Q

How do you return to the 303 home screen?

A

Press the Go key several times.

191
Q

How do you show elapsed flight time?

A

Press the Go key from the home screen

192
Q

What do the UP/DOWN keys from the 303 home screen do?

A

Scroll through 6 screens showing wind, glide altitude, and glider performance data

193
Q

What do the LEFT/RIGHT keys do?

A

Take you to screens left or right of the home screen. Screens to the right are for selecting navigation points. Screens to the left show miscellaneous data.

194
Q

What does the pitot-static system consist of?

A

A total, static, compensated pressure circuit

195
Q

How does the pitot-static system work?

A

It provides pressure to operate the airspeed indicators, altimeters, pneumatic variometers, and 302 DDV.

196
Q

Where is the pitot tube located?

A

In the aircraft nose adjacent to the tow hook mechanism

197
Q

Where is the total energy muliti-probe located?

A

On the upper leading edge of the vertical stabilizer

198
Q

Where are the two static ports?

A

On each side of the fuselage nose

199
Q

What do the static ports do?

A

Provide static pressure or the flight instruments

200
Q

The compensated pressure for the total energy vertical speed indicator is taken by what system?

A

The total energy probe (pressure transducer)

201
Q

Warning: Why should aircraft not fly in snow or visible moisture when icing conditions are present?

A

The TG-16A has no pitot heat

202
Q

Warning: Partially or completely clogged pitot tube may give erratic or zero readings on what instruments?

A

airspeed indicator and variometer

203
Q

Warning: Partially or completely clogged static ports may give erratic or zero readings on what instruments?

A

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and variometers

204
Q

Warning: Partially or completely clogged total energy probe may give erratic readings on what instruments?

A

On the vertical speed indicator, and/or the variometers may be unreadable.

205
Q

Warning: Are the front and rear 302 displays independent of one another?

A

No, the rear cockpit 302 display is only an electronic repeater of he front variometer.

206
Q

What kind of battery does the glider electrical system consist of?

A

A 12 volt, 12 ampere-hour lead acid battery located in the tail fin. An additional 12 volt, 12 ampere-hour battery is installed in the baggage compartment.

207
Q

Non-smoke aircraft use one three position switch to turn on the battery. What does each position indicate?

A

Up to “internal” selects the baggage compartment battery. Down to “Extern” selects the fin battery. Center position turns main power off.

208
Q

What is the maximum charging voltage the battery can hold?

A

14.4 volt

209
Q

What kind of radio is the sailplane equipped with?

A

A Becker AR 4201 VHF transceiver.

210
Q

What is the radio frequency range?

A

118.00 MHz to 136.975 MHz in 25 kHz increments (760 channels)

211
Q

How do you turn the radio on?

A

Rotate the On/Off switch knob clockwise

212
Q

What is the upper left button “SQL”?

A

It is the on/off for squelch and should normally be on

213
Q

How do you change the radio frequency?

A

Use the lower right hand knob, and adjust the MHz with the outer ring and kHz with the inner rig of the frequency selector switch.

214
Q

How many memory cells does the radio hold?

A

99, meaning it can store one frequency each

215
Q

Are the frequencies stored in the radio memory cells non-volatile? What does this mean?

A

Yes, they are non-volatile meaning they are not erased when the radio is turned off

216
Q

What search and rescue device is installed in the TG-16A?

A

A KANNAD 406 AF-COMPACT ELT Main Unit. Designed for emergency use to aid Search and Rescue Teams in locating a crash site

217
Q

How is the ELT activated?

A

Either automatically when the crash occurs (shock sensor) or manually (switch on the transmitter or on a Remote Control Panel)

218
Q

What two frequencies is the ELT designed to transmit on?

A

121.5 and 406 MHz

219
Q

Once activated, the transmitter operates continuously on what frequency with an output power of 100 mW?

A

121.5 MHz

220
Q

During operations, a digital message is transmitted on 406.028 MHz every … seconds?

A

50

221
Q

What is the output power on 406 MHz?

A

5 W

222
Q

The ELT switch has 3 positions, what are they?

A

Arm(left), Off (center), On (right)

223
Q

The ELT has 4 different modes. What are they?

A

Off, self test, armed, on

224
Q

What does the ELT in the “off” mode do?

A

No part of the ELT is energized. This mode should only be selected when the ELT is removed from the aircraft or when the plane is parked for a long period of maintenance.

225
Q

What does the ELT in “Self test” mode do?

A

A temporary mode (15 seconds max) in which the ELT checks the main characteristics of the transmitter (battery voltage, programming) and enables digital communication with programming and test equipment.

226
Q

What does the ELT “armed” mode do?

A

This mode is mandatory during flight, and should remain in the arm position except when the aircraft is parked for a long period of maintenance.

227
Q

What does the ELT “on” mode do?

A

Automatically when a crash occurs. When this mode is selected, the ELT starts transmitting after 50 seconds on 406 (one 406 MHz burst every 50 seconds) and on 121.5 (continuous transmission between each 406 MHz burst). The red visual indicator flashes and the buzzer operates.

228
Q

In case of accidental activation of the ELT, what should you do?

A

The ELT can be rest by switching it to “OFF” or by switching to “RESET” on an optional remote control panel when connected.

229
Q

What is the duration of the 121.5 ELT transmission?

A

Over 48 hours at -20*C. The 406 transmissions continue beyond 48 hours.

230
Q

Warning: Do not fly the airplane unless the Canopy Emergency Release Handle is not in what position?

A

Forward/Flush with the cockpit sidewall.

231
Q

How do you engage the parking brake?

A

By locking open the airbrakes

232
Q

Caution: Can you lift the airbrakes from the top airbrake panel?

A

No.

233
Q

Warning: Can you fly if gap tape is separating from the wing/aileron?

A

No

234
Q

Caution: Can you lift the aircraft from the horizontal stabilizer?

A

No

235
Q

As a minimum, how many people are required for ground handling unless being towed with proper tail and wing dolly equipment.

A

2 minimum

236
Q

Caution: Can you move the sailplane by pulling or pushing on the wingtips?

A

No. However, if the mail wheel dolly is installed it is permissible to push or pull in line with the span of the wing.

237
Q

Caution: When moving the aircraft over unprepared surfaces, what should be done to the elevator to prevent damage?

A

It should be secured

238
Q

What are the four challenge and response items in the Before Takeoff Checklist?

A

Ballast- “Checked”
Straps- “Secure”
Canopies- “Closed and Locked”
Airbrakes- “Closed and Locked”

239
Q

Caution: T/F, the rear headrest may break off if too much downward force is applied.

A

True

240
Q

Caution: It is important not to over control the rudder during the control check in order to avoid what?

A

Hitting the rudder stops

241
Q

If solo, what must be done to the rear cockpit?

A

The rear seat cushions and straps must be secure and clear of the controls.

242
Q

What is KAFA field elevation?

A

6500 ft MSL

243
Q

Warning: What may happen if the airbrakes are not closed and locked before hooking up to the tow rope?

A

It may lead to inadvertent opening of the airbrakes during takeoff with significant degradation in climbout performance. During launches with high density altitude conditions, inadvertent opening may make safe takeoff and climbout impossible.

244
Q

Warning: When can you hook the tow rope up to an empty sailplane?

A

Never

245
Q

Liftoff should occur no earlier than what speed KIAS?

A

No earlier than 43 KIAS

246
Q

The upwind wing should be …. into a high crosswind during takeoff to aid in directional control while using rudder to maintain centerline until liftoff.

A

lowered

247
Q

Warning: Should a sailplane use a rapid climb rate on initial takeoff?

A

No, it may exceed the tow plane elevator authority and force the nose of the towplane into the ground.

248
Q

Warning: Should a sailplane use a steep tow climb angle on takeoff

A

No, it can cause a loss of sight of the towplane due to the gliders angle of attack.

249
Q

Warning: At any time a rapid climb occurs on takeoff or sight of the tow plane has been lost, what should you do?

A

Release from the tow and turn away from the tow plane’s last known position.

250
Q

PIO

A

pilot induced oscillations

251
Q

Warning: When is the aircraft more susceptible to pilot induce oscillations?

A

With an aft CG location.

252
Q

Warning: How do you recover from PIO during takeoff?

A

Initially freeze the stick slightly aft of neutral until the PIO subsides then use stick inputs as needed

253
Q

What is the challenge and response items in the before landing checklist?

A

Straps- “Secure”

254
Q

Warning: When heavy rain or ice may affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the sailplane, increase approach speed by how much?

A

A minimum of 5 KIAS

255
Q

What is the before takeoff checklist?

A 
CBSITCAL
controls
ballast "Checked"
straps "Secure"
instruments
trim
canopies "Closed and Locked"
Airbrakes "Closed and locked"
Lookout
256
Q

What is the before landing checklist?

A 
SCWAAAG
Straps "Secure"
Clear
Winds
Airspeed
Aimpoint
Airbrakes
G-meter
257
Q

Does a straight ahead slip require full rudder?

A

No

258
Q

How do you accomplish a slip?

A

Use full aileron and then rudder as required to maintain ground track. Recover by neutralizing ailerons first

259
Q

Warning: Are the airspeed indications in a slip reliable?

A

No, so to avoid stall/spins, always maintain known pitch settings for pattern airspeeds

260
Q

Warning: How do you correct a rudder that may remain fully deflected in a slip even when pedal forces are removed?

A

Apply 15-20 lbs of force on the opposite rudder pedal to return the rudder to neutral.

261
Q

Warning: What may happen if immediate and correct control inputs are not made during recover from stalls or spins at traffic pattern altitude?

A

Recovery may be impossible, ground impact

262
Q

Warning: Why is exceeding 45* of bank in the pattern dangerous?

A

It places the aircraft dangerously close to a stall

263
Q

What are the three parts of a pattern?

A

Downwind, base, and final

264
Q

What is a normal downwind altitude?

A

800 ft AGL

265
Q

On final approach, how much airbrake deflection should be used?

A

1/4 to 1/2 (quarter to a half) airbrake deflection

266
Q

When should airbrakes be “frozen”

A

50 ft. Keep them constant, “frozen” through the flare

267
Q

Caution: Rapidly opening or closing the airbrakes in a flare may cause the airplane to do what?

A

It may cause a sudden balloon or increased sink rate.

268
Q

Caution: Using greater than 1/2 airbrake extension during round out, flare and touchdown increases decent rate, and may result in ….

A

hard landings and aircraft damage

269
Q

Caution: Why should landing with full airbrakes be avoided?

A

In order to prevent inadvertent or unexpected wheel brake actuation immediately upon touchdown.

270
Q

Note: Insufficient airbrakes on approach results in what?

A

Increased pitch sensitivity and PIO

271
Q

Note: When do the most predictable and controllable landings occur?

A

With airbrakes stabilized between 1/4 and 1/2 extension throughout the round out, flare, and touch down

272
Q

What altitude should you begin the round out?

A

10-15 ft AGL

273
Q

What altitude should you flare?

A

2-5 ft AGL

274
Q

When landing, what wheels should touch down first, and in what order?

A

The main and tail wheels should touchdown simultaneously. It is permissible for the tail wheel to touch down slightly before the main wheel.

275
Q

In order to avoid long ground roll, touch down at normal touchdown speed, which is…

A

45 KIAS

276
Q

Caution: What should be done in the event of a porpoise of PIO during landing?

A

Initially freeze the stick slightly aft of neutral and maintain the airbrake setting, then use airbrakes and stick inputs as required to safely complete the landing

277
Q

Warning: What may happen if the pilot fails to align the longitudinal axis of the aircraft with the ground track before touchdown?

A

It may result in a ground loop or damage to the main wheel assembly.

278
Q

Should you touch down in a crab in cross wind conditions?

A

No

279
Q

If landing into a crosswind, what should you do.

A

Do not crab, use wing low on final instead and use the rudder to maintain runway centerline.

280
Q

A ground loop in a fiberglass aircraft may result in what?

A

It can snap off the tail assembly due to excessive side loads

281
Q

During crosswinds, if the rudder is unable to provide the minimum required amount of directional control force as the aircraft slows, what should be done to help maintain directional control and compete the landing roll out safely?

A

The tail wheel should be placed on the ground

282
Q

When is rudder authority lost in a crosswind?

A

Approximately 30 knots for higher crosswinds

283
Q

Caution: Why should caution be sued when reducing airbrakes after touchdown?

A

The increase lift on the wing can cause the sailplane to become airborne again

284
Q

Caution: Why should any brake application be accomplished smoothly?

A

Abrupt use of the wheel brake at any speed can result in a nose-over condition.

285
Q

Caution: What may happen if the tail wheel is rapidly lowered at high speeds?

A

The aircraft may become airborne again

286
Q

Caution: Where should hard landings, or excessive G loading on landing or in flight be written up?

A

In the AFTO 781

287
Q

What airspeed should a no airbrakes landing be executed at?

A

near 40 KIAS

288
Q

Caution: During a no airbrakes landing why should a shorter than normal aimpoint be chosen?

A

In order to stop in the available landing area and avoid overshooting it. May require a max performance landing.

289
Q

What is the ideal touchdown speed for a maximum performance landing?

A

40 KIAS

290
Q

How do you execute a max performance landing?

A

Start with a minimum flare to touchdown at approx. 40 KIAS on the main and tail wheels simultaneously. Upon touchdown, immediately open full airbrakes to engage wheel brake for max energy dissipation. Nose wheel may touchdown, as long as a 2-point attitude is maintained. Slowly release wheel brae pressure just prior to stopping

291
Q

Note: When does max energy dissipation occur during a max performance landing?

A

During the beginning of the ground roll due to the wheel brake being most effective at higher ground speeds.

292
Q

Caution: Secure the canopy when opening in high wind conditions to prevent it from flying up abruptly. A rapid opening could result in

A

The canopy departing the sailplane and causing serious damage

293
Q

Caution: should the sailplane be ground handled with the canopy open?

A

No, unless it is guarded

294
Q

After a solo flight, should you move the sailplane out of the way of other aircraft alone?

A

No, do not attempt to move the sailplane alone, wait for assistance.

295
Q

Caution: During high wind conditions as a solo, remain in the cockpit with radio on until assistance arrives. If needed, point the aircraft… with airbrakes…and maintain proper cross wind control inputs.

A

into the wind, fully extended

296
Q

What is a mooring hook? Where is it located?

A

They are tie downs: removable screw type rings that may be attached on the underneath midpoint of each wing.

297
Q

When are gust locks required?

A

For extended tie down periods or in high wind conditions

298
Q

Caution: T/F, more sailplanes are damaged on the ground by the wind than in flying incidents.

A

True

299
Q

Caution T/F, damage to sailplanes usually occurs when sailplanes are left unsecured or with inadequate tie-downs.

A

True

300
Q

Caution: Should airbrakes be left extended/open during periods of rain?

A

No

301
Q

How can the wings be secured?

A

With wing cuffs, through the wingtip wheels, and/or the provided wing mounted mooring rings.

302
Q

What materials can be used for tie down?

A

Straps, ropes or chains

303
Q

What will be used to tie down the fuselage?

A

A textile strap just forward of the vertical stabilizer

304
Q

What are chocks used for?

A

Preventing main gear movement

305
Q

Note: Ensure tie down materials do not damage what?

A

The GFRP/CFRP. Use padding as necessary

306
Q

How should the plane be tied down in sheltered areas?

A

Chock main wheel, remove tail dolly, then use wing stands if wings overlap

307
Q

How should the plane be tied down in unsheltered areas?

A

Face into prevailing wind if possible, tie down wings and tail, chock main wheel.

308
Q

When using buckle tie down chains to secure the wing, attach the hook end of the chain to where? Attach the crank end to where?

A

The base of the tie-down, to the sail plane ring

309
Q

How much do the large ballast plates weigh?

A

5.3 lbs

310
Q

How much does the seat ballast weigh?

A

24 lbs

311
Q

What is the maximum ballast capacity?

A

26.5 lbs

312
Q

The green indicating light on the top right of the front instrument panel will flash how many times when tail ballast is installed?

A

It will flash the number of times correlating to the number of units installed in the tail fin.

313
Q

One large ballast plate is equal to how many units of weight?

A

2 units of weight (2 small ballast plates)

314
Q

How much do the small ballast plates weight?

A

2.65 lbs

315
Q

One small ballast plate is equal to how many units of weight?

A

1 unit of weight

316
Q

When re-inserting the plexiglass from the tail fin ballast window, the red lines must be…

A

aligned

317
Q

Warning: failure to remove/install trip ballast when required may result in an excessive forward or aft CG.

A

Ensure CG is verified prior to flight.

318
Q

Warning: If the green indicating light is constantly blinking, what does that indicate?

A

Incorrect seating of the plexiglass window of the fin ballast box.

319
Q

Caution: Can small ballast plates be placed in large spaces?

A

No only place small plates in the small spaces.

320
Q

Caution: What should be checked when changing trim ballast in order to ensure correct indication of ballast on the instrument panel?

A

Check the condition and correct gluing of the foam rubber rings in the ballast box in the find. Without these rings a correct indication is not possible on the instrument panel.

321
Q

Note: What may happen if the tail fin ballast box is not exposed to sufficient light?

A

The green indicating light in the cockpit may not indicate properly.

322
Q

What charger should be used to charge the batteries to their fullest capacity.

A

A charger with 14.4 volt maximum charging voltage is necessary (do not use charges that only charge up to 13.8 volts)

323
Q

What are the tire pressures (PSI) for the main wheel, nose wheel and tail wheel?

A

36 psi nose, 36 psi main, 38 psi tail. (tail wheel is actually closer to 50psi)

324
Q

What are the three basic steps that apply to all emergencies?

A
  1. Maintain aircraft control
  2. Analyze the situation and take proper action
  3. Land as soon as conditions permit
325
Q

What is the abort 5 step emergency procedure? (no-boldface)

A
  1. Release-pull twice
  2. Glide- Establish (if airborne)
  3. Airbrakes - As required
  4. Brake- As required
  5. Steer- As required to avoid obstacles
326
Q

During an abort, should you try to bring the aircraft to a sudden halt or depart the runway?

A

No, use as much of the remaining runway as needed to bring aircraft to a halt. If needed, depart the runway only to avoid hitting a tow plane or obstacle.

327
Q

Rope Break boldface

A

Glide-Establish

Release- Pull Twice

328
Q

Warning: what happens if a rope break occurs below 150 ft AGL?

A

Land straight ahead, turning only to avoid obstacles

329
Q

Warning: if a rope break occurs above 150 ft AGL, what landing option becomes available?

A

A 180* turn back to the takeoff runway/field

330
Q

Warning: during a rope break, to avoid stall/spin situations what should be maintained?

A

Maintain known pitch attitudes for pattern airspeeds.

331
Q

If permissible, during a rope break, crewmembers should ensure that at a minimum, what is checked? What checklist should be completed?

A

Check that seatbelts are tightened. The before landing checklist should be completed.

332
Q

Warning: During a sailplane release failure, the tow will release from the rope. What airspeed should be flown?

A

The calculated pattern airspeed. Avoid flying at a faster airspeed that will reduce the rope angle and thus the distance between the rope and the elevator

333
Q

What happens if neither the sailplane nor tow plane can release?

A

Coordinate to return to the pattern. Once in the pattern, drop to the low tow position using airbrakes as required. Touchdown first behind the towplane. Once the towplane lands, apply airbrakes/wheel brakes to avoid overrunning the tow plane.

334
Q

Upright Spin Recovery Boldface

A

Ailerons-neutral
Rudder- full opposite direction of spin and hold
Stick- steadily forward until spinning stops
Controls- neutral and recover from dive

335
Q

Entering a spin requires what two factors?

A

Combination of a stall and yaw

336
Q

During the stick-steadily forward until spinning stops Spin Boldface, a smooth positive forward motion from full aft to stick full forward should take how many seconds?

A

2 seconds

337
Q

Warning: if the combination of cockpit noise, pitch attitude, rotation rates, and airspeed indicator becomes disorienting during a spin, what should be done?

A

The controls should be returned to neutral and the aircraft should recover

338
Q

Caution: To prevent unintentional spins, do not….

A

stall the aircraft

339
Q

Caution: If recovery from the ensuing dive after a spin is delayed, what might happen?

A

And overspeed and/or over-G condition may result

340
Q

Caution: If airspeed increases to approximately 60 KIAS in a spin, it has become a…

A

Spiral dive, and the spiral dive recovery should be executed

341
Q

Note: Although neutralizing the controls should recover the aircraft in a spin, what method is preferable?

A

The flight manual recovery, as it will ensure minimum altitude loss

342
Q

How are inverted spins entered?

A

With a negative (push) stall and any yaw on the aircraft.

343
Q

The aircraft can be easily recovered from an inverted spin by…

A

releasing the controls

344
Q

How much altitude is lost during inverted recoveries?

A

Exceed 1,000 ft

345
Q

2 step inverted spin recovery procedure (no boldface)

A
  1. Stick- Release Forward Pressure

2. Controls- Neutral And Recover From Dive

346
Q

3 step Spiral Dive Recovery procedure

A
  1. Relax back stick pressure
  2. Roll to a bank angle of less than 45* using coordinated ailerons and rudder as required
  3. Recover to normal flight altitude and airspeed
347
Q

Warning: During a spiral dive, avoid abrupt full control movements above Va because this may result in

A

over-G or structural damage

348
Q

Warning: Do not exceed what airspeed in any operation? Do not use more than how much control deflection at this speed?

A

Vne, 1/3

349
Q

Caution: What limits can be exceed during recovery from a spiral dive?

A

Airspeed and/or G-limits

350
Q

Caution: To avoid aircraft damage due to over speed, use airbrakes if approaching Vne

A

:)

351
Q

4 Step Fire/Smoke and Fumes emergency procedure (no boldface)

A
  1. Vents- Open (in order to clear smoke/fumes from cockpit)
  2. Battery Switch- Off
  3. Land as soon as possible
  4. Refer to Landing With Radio Failure checklist
352
Q

2 step uncommanded airbrake deployment emergency procedure (no boldface)

A
  1. Place airbrake handle in the full forward position

2. Use structural damage/controllability check procedures as required

353
Q

When should the structural damage/ controllability check be performed?

A

Whenver structural damage is suspected: airborne collision, bird strike, over-G, uncommanded airbrake deployment etc.

354
Q

If on tow during a bird strike, one should release or remain on tow?

A

Remain on tow in order to gain altitude prior to performing structural damage controllability check.

355
Q

Vmca

A

minimum controllable airspeed

356
Q

Warning: Should airbrakes be depoyed if structural damage is located in the wings near the location of the airbrakes?

A

No, never

357
Q

Warning: If structural damage is evident, what is the minimum airspeed?

A

Do not slow below pattern airspeed, or to a point where more than half of the total aileron, elevator, or rudder input is required to maintain aircraft control

358
Q

What airspeed should you fly with structural damage?

A

Either pattern airspeed or 10 KIAS above Vmca (minimum controllable airspeed)

359
Q

A no airbrakes pattern will have a much longer….and…

A

flare and ground roll

360
Q

During a structural damage emergency, plan to touch down at no less than what airspeed?

A

Vmca, unless Vmca is less than pattern airspeed, then touchdown prior to Vmca

361
Q

After sustaining structural damage, and perform a no airbrakes landing, when can you use airbrakes?

A

Only after touchdown

362
Q

When should bailout procedures be initiated?

A

If out of control and descending through 2,000 ft AGL

363
Q

Warning: Delaying bailout in an situation below 2000 ft AGL greatly reduces….

A

chance of survivability

364
Q

8 step Bailout emergency procedure no boldface

A
  1. Airspeed-Reduce
  2. Front canopy- jettison
  3. Rear canopy -jettison after front canopy is clear
  4. Straps- release 5 point harness
  5. Bailout- Accomplish
  6. DRing- Pull
  7. Steer away from obstacles
  8. prepare for/execute parachute landing
365
Q

Warning: If the canopy does not separate from its hinges, what side should you bailout?

A

Left side

366
Q

Warning: If bailout is accomplished during a spin, what side should you bailout?

A

Opposite direction of the spin

367
Q

Caution: During a force landing, if the field slopes, it is best to land…even with a tailwind.

A

Uphill

368
Q

4 step electrical failure emergency procedure (no boldface)

A
  1. Battery Switch-On
  2. Battery selector switch- select other battery
  3. Refer to landing with radio failure
  4. land as soon as practical
369
Q

During a radio failure, What are the first 3 things that should be checked?

A

Power, frequency, and volume

370
Q

4 step radio failure emergency procedure no boldface

A
  1. Power, Frequency Volume -check
  2. Battery switch - Select other battery
  3. If on aerotow, use radio-out signals
  4. Refer to landing with radio failure checklist
371
Q

Radio out: how do you signal for tow to speed up?

A

Aircraft rocks wings in position

372
Q

Radio out: how do you signal for tow to slow down?

A

Aircraft fishtails in position

373
Q

Radio out: How does towplane pilot signal he wants aircraft to release?

A

Towplane rocks wings

374
Q

Radio out: how does towplane signal tow pilot cannot release?

A

Towplane pilot fishtails aircraft

Soaring 461 (3 decks)

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