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CDC 4A051 > Vol 3 > Flashcards

Vol 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The four major interrelated systems affecting the development of joint operational plans include the National Security Council System…

A

Joint Strategic Planning System, Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System, and Joint Operations Planning and Execution System

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2
Q

What is an on-going process that enables senior leadership to evaluate other ways to achieve the best mix of force, requirements, and support within fiscal constraints?

A

Planning, Programming, and Budgeting Execution (PPBE) System

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3
Q

What is the tactical use of aircraft or forces in a desired area of operation, and is the actual use of forces within a combat zone or an objective area?

A

Employment

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4
Q

What is the command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command?

A

Operational control

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5
Q

In order to effectively support the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF), when do functional areas revalidate the tempo band alignment of their respective capability areas and realign forces, if necessary?

A

Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle

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6
Q

What is the timeframe of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) life cycle?

A

24 months

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7
Q

What is the Air Force’s war planning system?

A

DCAPES

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8
Q

What system’s objective is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution process?

A

DCAPES

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9
Q

According to the DOD, a unit task code is developed and assigned by the…

A

Joint Chiefs of Staff

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10
Q

What is a standard manpower listing published to identify the manpower tasked to deploy in support of specific unit task codes (UTC)?

A

Manpower Deployment Roster

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11
Q

What is the three tier rating system in the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

A

Red, yellow, green

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a minimum requirement to update the Air and Space Expedition Force reporting tool (ART)?

A

Daily

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13
Q

Who is responsible for assessing the “mission ready” status of their unit, assigned unit type codes (UTC), and assigned personnel?

A

Unit Commander

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14
Q

Who assigns the unit’s mission and goals in the Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)?

A

Secretary of Defense (SECDEF)

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15
Q

What is an internal management tool used by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, Unified Commands, and Combat Support Agencies?

A

Status of Resources and Training System report (SORTS)

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16
Q

What C-level states the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake the full wartime mission for which it is organized or designed?

A

C-1

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17
Q

Units must update the Status of Resources (SORT) monthly, no later than what day of the month?

A

15th

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18
Q

What is the official system of record for management of expeditionary medical personnel and resources for the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS)?

A

MRDSS-ULTRA

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19
Q

Who must approve user accounts before he Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS) Help Desk creates accounts?

A

Major Command (MAJCOM) or higher headquarters

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20
Q

In the Medical Readiness Decision Support System (MRDSS), what tool is designed to manage the Air Force Medical Service (AFMS) readiness resources?

A

Medical Resource Letter

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21
Q

What plan is the medical unit commander’s plan, establishing procedures for the unit’s expeditionary missions identified in the designed operational capability (DOC) statement and emergency response missions identified in the Comprehensive Emergency Management Plan (CEMP)?

A

MCRP

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22
Q

What triage category would include injures that need immediate medical or surgical attention to save a life?

A

Immediate

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23
Q

Once the minutes are approved, who should they be submitted to?

A

MAJCOM readiness office

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24
Q

When unit personnel are processed through the personnel deployment function (PDF), who is responsible for their accountability?

A

Personnel deployment function

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25
At minimum, who attends the deployment order briefing?
The unit deployment manager (UDM)
26
Who does the unit deployment manager (UDM) notify for remedial actions when unit task codes (UTC) cannot be supported due to changes in manpower or equipment?
Installation deployment office (IDO)
27
Once you have navigated to the Training Overview Page, what do you select to update an individual's training information?
Find individual's record
28
What part of the deployment folder is for major command (MAJCOM) / installation / wing / unit requirements?
Part 5
29
All of the following should be on the in-processing checklist, except...
Give the member their mobility folder
30
The medical control center is also known as the...
Unit Control Center
31
The alert notification and recall system used through the Air Force is referred to as what kind of system?
Pyramid alerting system
32
Who's function is it to oversee the mission operation of the installation?
Crisis action team (CAT)
33
Who has overall authority and responsibility for conduction all incident activities including development of strategies and tactics and distribution of resources at the incident site?
Incident Commander (IC)
34
On a military map, what color illustrates the relief features, such as vertical elevation of the terrain on a map as seen from above?
Brown
35
On a military map, what color represents main roads, built-up areas, and special features?
Red
36
On a grid coordinate of 2.5/E.4, the 2 represents the...
vertical grid line
37
What time frame should an event log cover?
24-hour period
38
What is the first step in completing a checklist?
Evaluate the scenario
39
What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points within the battlefield, from the battlefield to the initial point of treatment, and then to subsequent points of treatment within the combat zone?
Forward
40
What phase of aeromedical evacuation (AE) provides airlift for patients between points of treatment outside the combat zone, within a theater of operations?
Theater
41
Who approves the activation or inactivation of a designed aeromedical staging facility (ASF) or the partial curtailment of the mission assigned to an ASF?
AF Chief of Staff
42
The primary USAF aircraft's supporting intratheater aeromedical evacuation (AE) are all of the following, except the...
UH 60 Q Medevac Black Hawk Helicopter
43
What patient movement requirement center (PMRC) is located at Scott AFB?
TPMRC-A
44
MedEvac typically is associated with what type of aircraft?
Rotary Wing
45
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evaluated as soon as possible and within maximum of one hour?
I-Urgent
46
What priority is assigned to a patient who should be evacuated within 24 hours?
III-Routine
47
An air ambulance (AA) is typically conserved for what priority patient?
I-Urgent
48
What information system does Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J) transfer so it can be viewed by authorized healthcare providers all over the world?
TMDS
49
What capability is not available in the Theater Medical Information Program-Joint (TMIP-J)?
Notification status
50
A patient requiring the use of restraining apparatus, sedation, and close supervision at all times should be classified as...
Severe psychiatric litter patient
51
Patients requiring rest during a long aeromedical evacuation (AE) flight because of recent surgery should be classified as...
Ambulatory
52
What classification is given to medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation system?
6A
53
What classification is given to non-medical attendants flying in the aeromedical evacuation system?
6B
54
In the aeromedical evacuation system, the originating physician's responsibility for a patient ends when...
the patient is under the direct care of the accepting physician at the destination MTF.
55
Which individual is also a focal point that Theater Patient Movement Requirements Centers (TPMRC) personnel can contact for questions concerning a patient's movement?
Patient movement technician
56
The name of the attending physician entered on the AF Form 3899 is the...
physician who is treating the patient at the originating MTF.
57
All of the following needs to be prepared for the flight, expect for which items?
Attending physician
58
It's important to check the Mission Document for the flight in order to...
make sure everyone is entered in on the appropriate flight.
58
Who will notify you of special administrative requirements your patients may require for the flight?
Patient movement center
59
What does the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) code written to the left of the red cross on the DD Form 600, Patient's Baggage Tag represent?
The facility where and aeromedical evacuation patient will remain overnight awaiting (AE) movement to the final destination.
60
Who's responsibility is it to ensure the DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation tag, includes all essential patient information?
The attending physician
61
The dimensions of stowed baggage for aeromedical evacuation patients must not exceed...
72 inches in any direction or 100 inches overall (length+width+height)
62
Which item listen below is not part of the anti-hijacking search?
Allow boarding to individuals refusing anti-hijacking inspection
63
All of the following are authorized litters for aeromedical evacuation, except the...
Air Force decontamination litter
64
When a patient is in remain overnight (RON) status, on which form should the evacuation, treatment, and medication be documented?
DD Form 602, Patient Evacuation tag
65
What is the primary purpose of a release certificate, which is assigned by the patient when he or she desires to be released from the aeromedical evacuation system of his or her own free will?
Releases the US Government, it's agents and employees from all responsibility, liability, and resulting damage.
66
What services is/are involved with the Integrated Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
Air Force, Army, Navy, and Marine COrps
67
In general, Airmen are not eligible for disability due to all of the following reasons, except...
Airmen pending honorable discharge.
68
All of the following are examples of trigger events, except for...
PCS cancellation for administrative actions
69
What type of condition is not eligible for referral to the Disability Evaluation System (DES)?
Unift
70
What is a report of an Airman's injury or illness, based on evaluation by a medical professional, that describes specific physical activities or functions that are recommended for the airmen to avoid allowing recovery or reducing risk of further injury?
Functional (or physical) restriction
71
An AF Form 469 and AF Form 422 are good for a maximum of how many days?
365 days
72
An Airmen should be referred to the deployment availability working group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?
90 days
73
Who from the following list is not required to attend the deployment availability working group (DAWG)?
Medical Group COmmander
74
What is an authorized disposition the deployment availability working group (DAWG) can make?
Case dismissal
75
Once AFPC/DPANM (Medical Retention Standards Branch) reviews an initial review in lieu of (RILO), how do they notify the physical evaluation board liaison officer (OEBLO) of the determination?
AFPC/FL4
76
Who appoints the medical evaluation board (MEB) clerk and the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO), and by what means is the PEBLO tasked?
Military treatment facility commander, published orders
77
Which of the following is a responsibility of the medical evaluation board (MEB) clerk?
Schedule cases for board hearings
78
Which of the following is a responsibility of the physical evaluation board liaison officer (PEBLO)?
Counseling members of NOK on the physical evaluation board (PEB) findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356, Findings and Recommended Disposition of USAF Physical Evaluation Board.
79
Before the integrated disability evaluation system (IDES) process existed, how long would the average medical evaluation board (MEB) take from case imitation to Veteran's Administration (VA) rating?
3 years
80
Who is the non-clinical benefits adviser to the member while going through the integrated disability evaluation system (IDEA)?
VA-MSC
81
The veterans tracking application...
is a web enabled tool.
82
The veterans tracking application...
is hosted on the veteran's information portal (VIP)
83
When the providing care manager (PCM), or referring provider, reviews the compensation and pension (C&P) results, and does not note any inconsistencies, what should the PCM do?
Endorse the NARSUM, stating it is current and complete
84
A medical board can be convened to determine an individual's mental competence for pay records purpose when the member...
has a specific psychiatric illness or illnesses.
85
Who designates the military training facility (MTF) to conduct a medical evaluation board (MED) on a general officer?
HA AFPC/DPANM
86
Who can be voting members on the medical evaluation board (MEB)?
Physicians
87
Who appoints medical evaluation board (MEB) members, and by what means are they tasked?
Military Treatment Facility commander, appointing orders
88
Under normal conditions, how many board members are required for a medical evaluation board (MEB)?
3
89
Who has review and approval authority over the AF Form 618, Medical Board Report?
MTF Commander or their designee
90
After the evacuee has been informed of the MEB finding, how many days does the memeber have to request an impartial review?
Five duty days
91
If the impartial review finds that the review does not support the MEB findings, the reviewer should contact the...
MEB president concurrently with notification to the member
92
Although assignment limitation codes are valid indefinitely, how ofter should the codes be reviewed?
At least annually, unless otherwise specified by the Medical Retention Standards Branch (DPANM)
93
What assignment limitation code (ALC) is for members who should not be deployed or assigned away from specialty medical capability required to manage their unique medical condition?
ALC-C3
94
A member may be permanently retired when the member has...
a disabling condition that is determined to be stable.
95
What is the maximum amount of time a member is authorized to be on Temporary Disabled Retirement List (TDRL)?
5 years
96
Who appoints an officer to serve as Patient Squadron commander?
MTF/CC
97
How long or when does the Wounded Warrior Program work with the service member and the medical team to devlop a comprehensive recovery plan?
It provides lifetime support
98
Recovery care coordinator (RCC) and Wounded Warrior advocates are typically assigned to seriously wouldned, ill, or injured service members whose medical conditions are expected to last at least how many days?
180 days

CDC 4A051 (2 decks)

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