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CDC 4A051 > Vol 2 > Flashcards

Vol 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and…

A

Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments

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2
Q

Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

A

Drug and Alcohol

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3
Q

Which is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

A

Written consent from husband

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4
Q

If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

A

only release information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

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5
Q

An individual’s medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific organizations when…

A

reproducing the information would be a burden or is contrary to existing laws.

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6
Q

CHCS allows MTF personnel to track patient care and…

A

related administrative activities.

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7
Q

What two purposes does the user record serve?

A

Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.

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8
Q

Which is not and input used for accessing help in CHCS?

A

??OLUM

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9
Q

To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in CHCS?

A

Accomplish a “patient lookup”

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10
Q

What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a fileman access code?

A

Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.

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11
Q

Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient’s name during CHCS registration?

A

lastname(comma)firstname(space)middleinitial

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12
Q

A perpetual link exists between CHCS and DEERS to accomplish what?

A

Verify the patient’s eligibility for care

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13
Q

What information does CHCS record when using the check-in record option?

A

Date and time of record being returned.

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14
Q

Which CHCS component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?

A

Template

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15
Q

What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider’s schedule in CHCS?

A

Profile first, template second, and schedule last.

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16
Q

What CHCS option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel scheduled timeslots for specific days within any provider’s schedule?

A

maintain/cancel schedule

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17
Q

The schedule hold duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) defines how much times will elapse before…

A

the system automatically releases frozen slots

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18
Q

Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?

A

Front cover, in the patient identification block.

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19
Q

If a sponsor with 2 children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child’s family member prefix (FMP) will be…

A

03

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20
Q

If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s FMP will be…

A

31

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21
Q

Which number is blocked on the right hand side of AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose SSN is 987-65-4321?

A

1

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22
Q

Where is allergy information displayed on a patient’s health record?

A

Under the patient identification block of the record jacket

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23
Q

What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification dovumation?

A

Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.

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24
Q

Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A?

A

Section 1

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25
In which section of the AF Form 2100A is the DD Form 2005 - Privacy Act Statement - filed?
Section 3
26
Which section of the AF Form 2100A are living wills (self-determination act forms) filed?
Section 4
27
Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?
On SF 600, Health Record - Chronological Record of Medical Care
28
Outpatient records are the property of the...
United States Government
29
Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing system?
Terminal digit, color coded, and blocked filing system
30
A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system, makes it easier to...
identify a misfiled record.
31
If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to chance the location of the record on AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?
Outpatient records personnel
32
How often are active duty records inventoried?
At least once a year.
33
When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?
End of each calender year
34
What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?
Military record tracking, retirement, and retrieval users guide (MRTR2)
35
What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?
Primary care optimization team
36
If for some reason the sponsor's medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a...
letter of non-availability
37
When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?
The dependent
38
For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?
Stillbirths
39
The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?
Terminal digit (by sponsor's social security number)
40
Who prepares AF Form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?
Inpatient records section technician
41
A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record-Narrative Summary, for...
inpatients recieved by transfer for further treatment.
42
Final progress notes of SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except...
patients treated at a tactical MTF.
43
How are fetal monitor strips filed?
In SSN terminal digit order, the same as inpatient records
44
An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 1998 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 1999 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is...
eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004
45
Routine care is usually not provided to patients with questionable eligibility until the...
patient's eligibility is determined.
46
Which patient would still receive routine medical care, even if they failed a DEERS eligibility check?
A patient issued an identification card within the last 120 days
47
After the risk assessment, what determines if a patient with questionable eligibility is treated in the MTF?
If there is a possibility of risk to the Air Force or patient.
48
What is the final step of completing the quarters notification form?
Update the member's duty status in the Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)
49
A secretary of the Air Force designee letter must contain the effective date, period covered, and...
determination as to whether the Air Force is providing aeromedical evacuation.
50
When can patient's request for a renewal of their secretary of the Air Force designee status?
Continued care is still necessary
51
when an abused family member applies for Secretary of the Air Force designee status after the sponsor was discharged from the service, the approval authority is the...
Medical Group Commander
52
Generally, how are the applications for designee status submitted?
Through the Command Surgeon General's office to HQ USAF / SGMA
53
Which of the following is not part of the mission of the Special Needs Identification and Assignment Coordination (SNIAC) process?
Locates provides and establishes the consults for care
54
For sponsors on unaccompanied assignments, a family member clearance screening is accomplished by the...
MTF in closest proximity to the family.
55
Which agency uses LOD determinations to determine eligibility for disability compensation and hospital benefits?
Department of Veteran Affairs
56
Which agency uses LOD determinations to evaluate the eligibility of an Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) cadet for compensation for injuries sustained while training?
Department of Labor
57
The 3 types of LOD determinations are informal, formal, and...
adminstrative.
58
The interim LOD for Reserve members is valid for no more than how many days?
90
59
If the Staff Judge Advocate (SJA) determines an administrative LOD is more appropriate after and AF Form 348 has been completed, the SJA will return the AF Form 348 through the Military Personnel Flight (MPF) /DFMPEP to the...
LOD-MFP
60
The only individual who has the authority to deny a request for reinvestigation of LOD findings is the...
approval authority
61
Who is held financially accountable for care regardless of where it is delivered?
MTF Commander
62
Who pays for claims for network care by MTF enrolled patients?
MCSC
63
Which office is the "one stop shop" where patients go to process specialty referrals requested by their PCM?
Referral Management Center
64
A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered...
an emergency room death.
65
For which patient would an Air Force Commander at the nearest MTF accept administrative responsibility?
Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.
66
Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence...
until the facility is closed down.
67
When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560?
Attending physician
68
Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?
Admissions clerk
69
Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (current organization) of AF Form 560?
AD E6 OSI Agent
70
Use the inter-ward transfer CHCS function to...
move a patient from one unit to another within the MTF.
71
CHCS reports designed for a specific purpose by MTF personnel are called...
AD HOC reports
72
A CHCS admission notification letter is generated each time...
and active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.
73
The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of...
admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and inter-ward transfers.
74
Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?
Patient suspense file.
75
What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?
Patient suspense file
76
When a military patient is admitted to a MTF, the patient's unit commander should be notified by...
admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.
77
When must notifications to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a MTF?
By 0600 hours Eastern time following admissions
78
An inventory of patient's valuables is conducted...
monthly
79
Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?
Senior Airmen Hill, pharmacy technician
80
When a patient's clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the...
disposition office
81
In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient's hospitalization?
Block 38, Diagnosis - Procedures
82
When a patient's physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is...
very seriously ill.
83
When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on...
AF Form 3066, Doctor's Orders
84
Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?
AF Form 570
85
When a patient's physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for travel of the patient's next to kin (NOK) for...
SI and VSI active duty military patients
86
When must the MTF release a deceased patient's remains to mortuary personnel?
Within 24 hours after death.
87
The minimum identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient's name, family member prefix (FMP), sponsor's SSN, register number, and the...
Name of the MTF
88
When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical exam?
Within 24 hours after admission.
89
Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician's instructions to the nursing staff?
AF Form 3066
90
A provider's verbal or telephone orders may be taken by...
a registered nurse only
91
Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are...
administratively discharged from the hospital.
92
To monitor patient absences use...
a patient sign-out register.
93
If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is...
forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.
94
Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by the ...
patient's unit commander.
95
Who may authorize a patient disposition?
Dentist
96
What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your MTF?
local policy.
97
Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as...
current procedural technology.
98
What are 3 key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes?
History, examination, and medical decision making.
99
What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?
Current procedural terminology.
100
How many years do category III codes remain in the current procedural terminology manual?
Five
101
All codes in the international classification of diseases, 10th revision, clinical modification are...
alphanumeric
102
According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th revision, what does a code beginning with the letter E mean?
external causes of injury

CDC 4A051 (2 decks)

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