Vol 2 Exam Questions (3) [227-242]

Question 1

66. (227) A patient who is alive when he or she reaches the hospital, but dies prior to admission is considered

a. an emergency room death.
b. a carded for record only.
c. a dead on arrival.
d. an outpatient.

Answer 1

a. an emergency room death.
.

Question 2

67. (227) For which patient would an Air Force commander at the nearest medical treatment facility (MTF) accept administrative responsibility?

a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.
b. Temporary Duty Retirement Listing (TDRL) patient admitted to a civilianfacility.
c. A retired Master Sergeant when referred to a civilian facility in the local area.
d. A civilian emergency care patient admitted to the Air ForceMTF.

Answer 2

a. Active duty Staff Sergeant admitted to a nearby civilian hospital while on leave status.

Question 3

68. (227) Patient register numbers are assigned in numerical sequence

a. until the facility is closed down.
b. on a calendar year basis.
c. based on local policy.
d. on a fiscal year basis.

Answer 3

a. until the facility is closed down.

Question 4

69. (228) When patients are admitted from the clinic, who completes the circled items of an AF Form 560?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.
b. Admissions technician.
c. Attending physician.
d. Head nurse.

Answer 4

c. Attending physician.

Question 5

70. (228) Who completes the remaining blocks of the AF Form 560 once the health care provider has completed his or her entries?

a. NCOIC, Admissions and Dispositions office.
b. Admitting physician.
c. Admissions clerk.
d. Charge nurse.

Answer 5

c. Admissions clerk.

Question 6

74. (229) A Composite Health Care System (CHCS) admission notification letter is generated each time

a. a patient with private insurance is admitted to the military treatment facility(MTF).
b. an active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.
c. an SI/VSI or III patient admitted to the MTF.
d. an 0–6 or above is admitted to the MTF.

Answer 6

b. an active duty patient is admitted to the MTF.

Question 7

71. (228) Which entry is not acceptable for block 21 (Current Organization) of AF Form 560?

a. Son, USAF E7 (Ret).
b. Civilian emergency.
c. AD E6 OSI Agent.
d. Wife, AD AF 0–3.

Answer 7

c. AD E6 OSI Agent.

Question 7

72. (229) Use the interward transfer Composite Health Care System (CHCS) function to

a. move a patient from one unit to another within the military treatment facility (MTF).
b. update a remaining overnight (RON) patient’s location.
c. move a patient from one MTF to another MTF.
d. correct a previous ward assignment error.

Answer 7

a. move a patient from one unit to another within the military treatment facility (MTF).

Question 8

73. (229) Composite Health Care System (CHCS) reports designed for a specific purpose by military treatment facility (MTF) personnel are called

a. special reports.
b. AD HOC reports.
c. customized reports.
d. Patient Administration Directory (PAD) reports.

Answer 8

b. AD HOC reports.

Question 9

77. (230) What serves as a working site for all documents, communications, or administrative actions affecting a patient?

a. Inpatient record.
b. Patient control file.
c. Patient suspense file.
d. Master index of patients.

Answer 9

c. Patient suspense file.

Question 10

75. (229) The admissions and dispositions report is a daily report of

a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.
b. all transactions taking place in the admissions and dispositions (A&D) office.
c. admissions, dispositions, and newborns only.
d. admissions and dispositions only.

Answer 10

a. admissions, dispositions, change of status, newborns, and interward transfers.

Question 11

76. (230) Which of the following is not included in the admission package that accompanies a patient to the inpatient unit?

a. AF Form 560.
b. AF Form 577.
c. The outpatient record.
d. Patient suspense file.

Answer 11

d. Patient suspense file.

Question 12

78. (231) When a military patient is admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF), the patient’s unit commander should be notified by

a. admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.
b. electronic message or telephone.
c. admission notification letter only.
d. telephone only.

Answer 12

a. admission notification letter and telephone or priority message.

Question 13

79. (231) When must notification to HQ AF/SGXO be accomplished for active duty flag officers admitted to a military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. Immediately, following admission.
b. When requested by the flag officer.
c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.
d. When expected hospital stay is more than seven days.

Answer 13

c. By 0600 hours eastern standard time following admission.

Question 14

82. (233) When a patient’s clearance is complete, the AF Form 577, Patient Clearance Record, is turned into the

a. medical service account office.
b. disposition office.
c. clinical records.
d. inpatient unit.

Answer 14

b. disposition office.

Question 15

80. (232) An inventory of patient valuables is conducted

a. annually.
b. quarterly.
c. monthly.
d. daily.

Answer 15

c. monthly.

Question 15

81. (232) Which of the following individuals would not be eligible to perform an inventory of patient valuables?

a. Staff Sergeant Jones, NCOIC, outpatient records.
b. Captain Smith, director, medical logistics.
c. Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician.
d. Mrs. Lee (GS–6), DBMS’ secretary.

Answer 15

c. Senior Airman Hill, pharmacy technician.

Question 15

85. (234) When a health care provider makes the decision to report a patient in a casualty status, he or she makes the appropriate entry on

a. AF Form 1403, Roster of Seriously Ill/Very Seriously Ill.
b. the Composite Health Care System (CHCS).
c. AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders.
d. SF 509, Progress Notes.

Answer 15

c. AF Form 3066, Doctor’s Orders.

Question 16

83. (233) In which block of AF Form 560, Authorization and Treatment Statement, does the health care provider identify the surgical procedures performed during a patient’s hospitalization?

a. Block 33, Primary admission diagnosis.
b. Block 38, Diagnoses–Procedures.
c. Block 40, Administrative data.
d. Block 41, Disposition.

Answer 16

b. Block 38, Diagnoses–Procedures.

Question 17

84. (234) When a patient’s physical condition is so severe that there is imminent danger to life, the patient category reported is

a. Incapacitating illness or injury.
b. Very seriously ill.
c. Seriously ill.
d. Critically ill.

Answer 17

b. Very seriously ill.

Question 18

87. (234) When a patient’s physician determines it medically advisable, each military branch may pay for the travel of the patient’s next of kin (NOK) for

a. terminally ill family members of active duty personnel.
b. SI, VSI, and III active duty military patients.
c. SI and VSI active duty military patients.
d. all military patients.

Answer 18

c. SI and VSI active duty military patients.

Question 19

86. (234) Which form is used to document dates and times of casualty status notifications made to outside organizations and individuals?

a. AF Form 1403.
b. AF Form 560.
c. AF Form 570.
d. SF 509.

Answer 19

c. AF Form 570.

Question 20

88. (235) When must the military treatment facility (MTF) release a deceased patient’s remains to mortuary personnel?

a. Within 24 hours after death.
b. After a complete and thorough investigation has been conducted.
c. When approved by the medical group commander or a designated representative.
d. When approved by the wing commander or a designated representative.

Answer 20

a. Within 24 hours after death.

Question 21

89. (236) The minimum identification required on forms placed in the inpatient record includes the patient’s name, family member prefix (FMP), sponsor’s social security number, register number, and the

a. name of the military treatment facility (MTF).
b. name of the attending physician.
c. patient’s social security number.
d. inpatient unit.

Answer 21

a. name of the military treatment facility (MTF).

Question 22

90. (236) When must the attending physician accomplish the medical history and physical examination?

a. Prior to admission to the inpatient unit.
b. Within 24 hours after admission.
c. Within 7 days of admission.
d. Prior to discharge.

Answer 22

b. Within 24 hours after admission.

Question 22

91. (236) Which inpatient record form is used to transmit the physician’s instructions to the nursing staff?

a. SF 506.
b. SF 509.
c. SF 539.
d. AF Form 3066.

Answer 22

d. AF Form 3066.

Question 23

92. (236) A provider’s verbal or telephone orders may be taken by

a. the unit inpatient records technician (UIRT) or nurse only.
b. a nurse or medical technician only.
c. anyone assigned to the ward.
d. a registered nurse only.

Answer 23

d. a registered nurse only.

Question 24

93. (237) Nonmilitary patients who leave the hospital without authorization are

a. considered to be on “pass” until they return to theward.
b. administratively discharged from the hospital.
c. reported to the sponsor’s commander.
d. considered AWOL.

Answer 24

b. administratively discharged from the hospital.

Question 25

94. (237) To monitor patient absences, use

a. updates on the inpatient unit nursing status board.
b. AF Form 569, Patient’s Absence Record.
c. notes on the AF Form 560.
d. a patient sign-out register.

Answer 25

d. a patient sign-out register.

Question 26

95. (237) If convalescent leave is directed, the inpatient record is

a. maintained on the ward until the patient returns to the ward or is discharged.
b. forwarded to the clinic for reference during follow-up outpatient visits.
c. forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.
d. forwarded to the inpatient records section for coding and filing.

Answer 26

c. forwarded to the disposition office and filed in the suspense file.

Question 27

98. (238) What will dictate the clearance process for patients being discharged from your military treatment facility (MTF)?

a. DOD policy.
b. Local policy.
c. Air Force policy.
d. Military personnel flight (MPF) policy.

Answer 27

b. Local policy.

Question 27

96. (237) Recommended convalescent leave must be approved by the

a. medical squadron section commander.
b. attending physician’s supervisor.
c. patient’s unit commander.
d. MDG/CC.

Answer 27

c. patient’s unit commander.

Question 28

97. (238) Of the following, who may authorize a patient disposition?

a. Dentist.
b. Registered nurse.
c. Physician assistant.
d. Medical service corps officer.

Answer 28

a. Dentist.

Question 29

99. (239) Level 1 Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) are commonly referred to as

a. common procedure terminology.
b. common patient terminology.
c. current procedural terminology.
d. current patient terminology.

Answer 29

c. current procedural terminology.

Question 30

100. (239) What are the three key elements in selecting the appropriate complexity of the evaluation and management (E&M) codes?

a. History, test, and medical decision making.
b. History, physical, and decision making.
c. History, lab, and decision making.
d. History, examination, and medical decision making.

Answer 30

b. History, physical, and decision making.

Question 31

101. (240) What code set describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to communicate uniform information?

a. Military Health Service System.
b. Current Procedural Terminology.
c. Evaluation and Management Codes.
d. International Classification of Diseases.

Answer 31

b. Current Procedural Terminology.

Question 32

102. (240) How many years do category III codes remain in the Current Procedural Terminology Manual?

a. One
b. Three.
c. Five.
d. Seven.

Answer 32

c. Five.

Question 33

103. (241) All codes in the International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision, Clinical Modification are:

a. alphanumeric.
b. numeric.
c. alpha.
d. either alpha or numeric.

Answer 33

a. alphanumeric.

Question 34

104. (242) According to the International Classification of Diseases, 9th Revision, Clinical Modification, what does a code beginning with the letter “E” mean?

a. There is no specific code in the classification system.
b. External causes of injury.
c. Type of examination.
d. Echovirus.

Answer 34

b. External causes of injury.