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CDC Vol 2 EXAM > Vol 2 Exam Questions (1) [201-218] > Flashcards

Vol 2 Exam Questions (1) [201-218] Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (201) Medical personnel must comply with the Privacy Act, Freedom of Information Act, Health Insurance Portablility and Accountability Act, Drug Abuse Offense and Treatment Act, and

a. Insurance Claims Amendments.
b. Disability of Americans Amendments.
c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.
d. Medical Release of Information Amendments.

A

c. Comprehensive Alcohol Abuse Amendments.

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2
Q
  1. (201) Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information?

a. Drug and alcohol.
b. Adoptions and abortions.
c. Sexual assault and abuse.
d. Child molestation and endangerment.

A

a. Drug and alcohol.

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3
Q
  1. (202) Which of the following is a valid consent authorizing the release of a dependent husband’s medical record information to an insurance company?

a. No consent necessary for member’s own insurance company.
b. Verbal consent from the husband.
c. Written consent from husband.
d. Verbal consent from wife.

A

c. Written consent from husband.

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4
Q
  1. (204) What two purposes does the user record serve?

a. Allows access to the system and lets the system know who you are.
b. Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system.
c. Allows you access to the system and establishes how you can use the system.
d. Establishes how you can use the system and ensures your actions are noted by the system audit mechanism.

A

b. Lets the system know who you are and how you can use the system

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4
Q
  1. (204) Which of the following is not an input used for accessing help in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. ???.
b. OLUM.
c. ??OLUM.
d. ?OPTION.

A

c. ??OLUM.

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4
Q
  1. (204) The Composite Health Care System (CHCS) allows military treatment facility (MTF) personnel to track patient care and

a. ICDM–9 (automated coding).
b. related administrative activities.
c. AF Forms 542, Subsistence Stock Records.
d. War Reserve Material (WRM) requirements.

A

b. related administrative activities.

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5
Q
  1. (203) If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,

a. only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA).
b. release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK).
c. send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or his designee
d. only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

A

d. only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations.

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5
Q
  1. (203) An individual’s medical record information is not released to medical research or scientific organizations when

a. the information concerns patients treated in a medical treatment facility (MTF) within the past five-years.
b. reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.
c. the patient does not want his or her records released.
d. the request concerns active duty members.

A

b. reproducing the information would be a burden or it is contrary to existing laws.

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6
Q
  1. (205) To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the Composite Health Care System?

a. Accomplish a “Patient lookup”.
b. Access On Line User’s Manual by entering ??OLUM.
c. Create medical record using post registration options.
d. Compare patient documentation with a Defense Enrollment Eligibility System (DEERS)RIP from military personnel flight (MPF).

A

a. Accomplish a “Patient lookup”.

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6
Q
  1. (205) What mini-registration task requires the user to possess a Fileman access code?

a. Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.
b. Making a system inquiry concerning upcoming appointments.
c. Updating a home address for an active duty member.
d. Running (printing) a pull list.

A

a. Registering a spouse whose sponsor has already been registered.

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7
Q
  1. (205) Which example shows the correct way to enter a patient’s name during Composite Health Care System (CHCS) Registration?

a. Lastname(space)(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).
b. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial(period).
c. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial.
d. Lastname(space)First Initial.

A

c. Lastname(comma)Firstname(space)Middle Initial.

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8
Q
  1. (206) What information does the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) record when using the check-in record option?

a. Clinic returning record.
b. Provider who checked-out the record.
c. Date and time of record being returned.
d. Highlights records charged-out more than 72-hours.

A

c. Date and time of record being returned.

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8
Q
  1. (207) Which Composite Health Care System (CHCS) component is a pattern of timeslots that is specific to a provider but is not linked to any particular date?

a. Capacity appointment slots.
b. Template.
c. Schedule.
d. Profile.

A

b. Template.

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9
Q
  1. (205) A perpetual link exists between the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) and the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) to accomplish what task?

a. Verify the patient’s eligibility for care.
b. Ensure the patient’s CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data.
c. Provide a tool for commander’s to keep abreast of unit’s manning strength.
d. Provides interface for military personnel flight (MPF) to update active duty information.

A

a. Verify the patient’s eligibility for care.

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10
Q
  1. (207) What is the proper sequence for setting up a provider’s schedule in the Composite Health Care System (CHCS)?

a. Profile first, template second, and schedule last.
b. Template first, profile second, and schedule last.
c. Schedule first, template second, and profile last.
d. Schedule first, profile second, and template last.

A

a. Profile first, template second, and schedule last.

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11
Q
  1. (208) What Composite Health Care System (CHCS) option makes it simple for the user to add, delete, and cancel schedule timeslots for specific days within any provider’s schedule?

a. Maintain/Cancel Schedule.
b. Cancellation by Facility.
c. Freeze/Release Schedule.
d. Modify/Add/Delete Schedule.

A

a. Maintain/Cancel Schedule

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11
Q
  1. (208) The schedule hold duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) defines how much time will elapse before

a. the system automatically freezes slots.
b. the system automatically releases frozen slots.
c. the appointment technician can manually freeze slots.
d. the appointment technician can manually release frozen slots.

A

b. the system automatically releases frozen slots.

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12
Q
  1. (209) Where is the medical records tracking (MRT) label placed on the AF Form 2100 or 2100A?

a. Back cover, in the status box in the center of the record jacket.
b. Front cover, in the patient identification block.
c. Back cover, in the lower right hand corner.
d. Front cover, in the lower left hand corner.

A

b. Front cover, in the patient identification block.

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13
Q
  1. (209) If a sponsor with two children (ages 5 and 8) marries an individual with one child (age 10), the step child’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 01.
b. 03.
c. 60.
d. 90.

A

b. 03.

14
Q
  1. (209) If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse’s family member prefix (FMP) will be

a. 20.
b. 21.
c. 30.
d. 31.

A

d. 31.

15
Q
  1. (209) Where is allergy information displayed on a patient’s health record?

a. Below the “Food Handler” line on the bottom left hand corner of the record jacket.
b. Above the patient’s name, in the patient identification block.
c. Anywhere on the front cover of the record jacket in red ink.
d. Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.

A

d. Under the patient identification block of the record jacket.

16
Q
  1. (209) Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the AF Form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number is 987–65–4321?

a. 4.
b. 3.
c. 2.
d. 1.

A

d. 1.

17
Q
  1. (210) What should outpatient records personnel do with medical paperwork missing the required minimum identification documentation?

a. Place the documentation in the research file.
b. Annotate the correct identification to save time.
c. Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.
d. Annotate identification and then call clinic personnel to brief proper requirements.

A

c. Return documents to the originating clinic for proper completion.

18
Q
  1. (210) Copies of inpatient care documents are filed in what section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient?

a. Section 1.
b. Section 2.
c. Section 3.
d. Section 4.

A

a. Section 1.

19
Q
  1. (210) In which section of the AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement filed?

a. Section 1.
b. Section 2.
c. Section 3.
d. Section 4.

A

c. Section 3.

20
Q
  1. (210) Which section of AF Form 2100A, Health Record–Outpatient, are living wills (Self- Determination Act forms) filed?

a. Section 1.
b. Section 2.
c. Section 3.
d. Section 4.

A

d. Section 4.

21
Q
  1. (210) Where is the withdrawal of material from an outpatient medical record to an inpatient record recorded?

a. No notation is required, as long as it is returned to the outpatient record.
b. On SF 600, Health Record—Chronological Record of Medical Care.
c. On AF Form 1480, Summary of Care, in the outpatient record.
d. In the inpatient record.

A

b. On SF 600, Health Record—Chronological Record of Medical Care.

22
Q
  1. (211) Outpatient records are the property of the

a. United States Government.
b. medical treatment facility.
c. records custodian.
d. patient.

A

a. United States Government.

23
Q
  1. (211) Which statement best describes the outpatient records filing system?

a. Tertiary number, color-coded and blocked filing system.
b. Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system.
c. Tertiary number filing system.
d. Terminal digit filing.

A

b. Terminal digit, color-coded and blocked filing system.

24
Q
  1. (211) A properly developed and maintained terminal digit (color-coded and blocked) filing system makes it easier to

a. group records according to primary borrower.
b. file the forms in an outpatient record.
c. identify a misfiled record.
d. distribute the workload.

A

c. identify a misfiled record.

25
Q
  1. (212) If a record must be transferred from one clinic to another, whose responsibility is it to change the location of the record on the AF Form 250, Health Record Charge Out Request?

a. The clinic that originally transferred the record.
b. The clinic receiving the transferred record.
c. Outpatient records personnel.
d. The patient.

A

c. Outpatient records personnel.

26
Q
  1. (213) How often are active duty records inventoried?

a. Never, if the facility has CHCS.
b. At least semiannually.
c. Whenever necessary.
d. At least once a year.

A

d. At least once a year.

27
Q
  1. (213) When are outpatient records for nonmilitary, dependents, and retired military members retired?

a. End of each calendar year.
b. End of each fiscal year.
c. Semiannually.
d. Quarterly.

A

a. End of each calendar year.

28
Q
  1. (213) What reference provides step-by-step instructions for completing records retirement?

a. Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2).
b. AFI 37–138, Records Disposition Policies and Procedures.
c. AFMAN 37–139, Records Disposition Schedule.
d. Records retirement list.

A

a. Military Record Tracking, Retirement, and Retrieval Users Guide (MRTR2

29
Q
  1. (214) What type of team are active duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical in-processing briefing?

a. TRICARE team.
b. Alternative care team.
c. Health care optimization team.
d. Primary care optimization team.

A

d. Primary care optimization team.

30
Q
  1. (214) When you in-process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?

a. Acute care manager.
b. Health care manager.
c. Primary care manager.
d. Family practice manager.

A

c. Primary care manager.

31
Q
  1. (215) If for some reason the sponsor’s medical record is not present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a

a. letter of non-availability.
b. letter of justification.
c. letter of reason.
d. waiver letter.

A

a. letter of non-availability.

32
Q
  1. (215) When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age of 18, who must fill out the DD Form 2138, Request for Transfer of Outpatient Record, for the dependent?

a. The sponsor.
b. The dependent.
c. The gaining unit.
d. The primary care manager.

A

b. The dependent.

33
Q
  1. (216) For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record?

a. Active duty personnel admitted to a non-Federal hospital.
b. Patients admitted and dispositioned on the same day.
c. Patients admitted to a tactical medical facility.
d. Stillbirths.

A

d. Stillbirths.

34
Q
  1. (216) The AF Form 788 (series), Inpatient Record, is filed using which filing system?

a. Terminal digit (by patient’s inpatient register number).
b. Terminal digit (by sponsor’s social security number).
c. Numerically, by inpatient unit.
d. Alphabetically, by inpatient unit.

A

b. Terminal digit (by sponsor’s social security number).

35
Q
  1. (216) Who prepares AF form 788 (series) folders for filing inpatient documentation?

a. Unit inpatient records technician.
b. Inpatient records section technician.
c. Admission and disposition technician.
d. Military personnel flight (MPF) personnel during basic military training.

A

b. Inpatient records section technician.

36
Q
  1. (217) A concise clinical summary is dictated and typed on SF 502, Medical Record—Narrative Summary, for

a. all inpatients unless treated by a tactical medical treatment facility.
b. patients remaining in the hospital as bed occupants for 48 hours or less.
c. inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.
d. cases involving communicable diseases.

A

c. inpatients received by transfer for further treatment.

37
Q
  1. (217) Final progress notes on SF 509 may be substituted for narrative summaries for all of the following patients except

a. patients with minor problems requiring less than a 48-hour stay.
b. uncomplicated obstetrical deliveries.
c. patients treated at a tactical military treatment facility (MTF).
d. normal newborn infants.

A

c. patients treated at a tactical military treatment facility (MTF).

38
Q
  1. (218) How are fetal monitor strips filed?

a. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with outpatient medical records.
b. In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records.
c. In SSN terminal digit order interfiled with inpatient records.
d. In alphabetical order.

A

b. In SSN terminal digit order the same as inpatient records.

39
Q
  1. (218) An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff Sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and dispositioned on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is

a. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001.
b. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003.
c. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.
d. never retired as long as the patient remains on active duty.

A

c. eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004.

CDC Vol 2 EXAM (3 decks)

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