Vol 2-2 Flashcards

1
Q

After the unit CC makes his or her recommendation on a voluntary discharge, where does the CC send the case file?

A

to the separation authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The first thing an airmen wishing to leave active AF service must do is submit

A

an request on VMPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What must a cc ensure before recommending any type of involuntary discharge?

A

all rehabilitation requirements have been met and discharge for cause is not warranted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the minimum number of days that an airman must serve on continuous active duty before a cc is not allowed to recommend an entry-level involuntary discharge?

A

180 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The first step in a discharge notification is when the member…

A

received the written discharge notification letter of the reason(s) for discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

After an airman acknowledged receipt of a notification for discharge, what is the airman’s next action?

A

report to medical group for examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At the beginning of a discharge board hearing, the hearing is initially convened

A

by entering a copy of the special order into evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Once opening statements have been made, who first presents evidence in an administrative discharge board proceeding?

A

recorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When acting as an assistant to the recorder in an administrative discharge board proceeding, you need to

A

be under the direct supervision of an attorney at all times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when a squadron cc believes he or she has an officer that should be discharged, the cc’s first step is to

A

evaluate the information and consult the SJA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Before the show-cause authority (SCA) makes a determination in an officer discharge case, he or she must

A

ensure the SJA completes a legal review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When an airman loses authorization for shipment of household goods as a consequence of an administrative demotion action, the demotion act

A

is delayed and completed by the gaining CC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

within what maximum number of working days must an airmen submit an appeal to a demotion action to MPS?

A

3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is considered to be the least severe form of administrative discipline?

A

Record of individual counseling (RIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For an enlisted member, which punishment makes an article 15 a mandatory unfavorable information file entry (UIF)?

  1. FF of $200 for one month
  2. 60 day restriction
  3. 25 days extra duty
  4. 30 days correctional custody
A
  1. 60 days restriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Within what max period of time after assuming command, does a cc have to review assigned personnel’s UIF?

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who is the decision authority if an Article 15 UCMJ is not to be filed in the officer selection record?

A

member’s CC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When an officer has not met the requirement for exemplary conduct or is not mentally, physically, morally, or professionally qualified to perform the duties of the next higher grade, it is in the best interest of the AF to determine

A

if the member is not qualified for promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For the Drug Demand Reduction Program, an audit of collection procedures at a geographically separated unit (GSU) is required at least

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To ensure mission readiness, who may add requirements for mobilization and deployment related to legal assistance?

A

NAF SJA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the base volunteer coordinator calls your office wanting to discuss placement of a legal service volunteer, you would refer them to the

A

wing SJA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first step when checking a client’s eligibility for legal assistance services?

A

check the client’s military identification card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In determining eligibility of legal assistance you find the client has hired a civilian attorney, what is your immediate response?

A

refer the client to his or her civilian attorney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which buttons should you select after you have entered or verified a client’s info for his or her legal assistance appointment in WebLIONS?

A

either LEGAL ASSISTANCE or DOCUMENTS/NOTARIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which WebLIONS report lists all legal assistance activities, grades and services of clients served, and services broken down by subject?
annual report
26
Besides USAF, what other identifier should be included on a military notary raised seal or inked stamp to ensure notarized documents are accepted as authentic?
Judge Advocate
27
Once a client provides you with his or her ticket number, to access his or her will and advance medical directive worksheet, you log into
AF legal assistance administrative website
28
When is the final report for tax filing due?
December
29
The importance of preparing a will is stressed under which area of the preventive law program?
mobilization and deployment preparation
30
What catergory is not part of USAF LAWS? 1. reports 2. online survey 3. legal info 4. legal worksheets
1. reports
31
If you are conducting a properly authorized, systematic, detailed examination to uncover facts and determine the truth of a matter, then you are performing an
investigation
32
A conscientious objector who sincerely objects to participation as combatant in war in any form, but whose convictions or beliefs permit him or her to serve in a noncombatant status is classified as
Class 1-A-0
33
Under Article 138, UCMJ, if a complaint is properly submitted and the cC refuses to redress, the next option for the member is to submit the complaint
directly to the officer exercising GCMCA jurisdiction
34
If congress request a release of information that must be disclosed only with the consent of the SAF, then the info is
classified
35
An accident investigation board's accident report must be completed within what maximum number of calendar days after receipt of the completed Part 1, safety investigation board report (SIB)?
30
36
Who normally fulfills the duties of a recorder for an accident investigation board (AIB)?
paralegal
37
What is a request for information regarding government records called
FOIA request
38
What type of request is for information regarding records that pertain to an individual?
privacy act request
39
Which officer or individual is the release authority for official unclassified info in private litigation cases?
SJA
40
What is the first step in the line of duty (LOD) determination process?
medical officer's review
41
Which form is used to record and present facts in support of a determination of financial liability and adjust property control record?
DD form 200, Financial liability investigation of property loss
42
Who is responsible for the custody, care, and safekeeping of AF property and can be held financially liable for failure to exercise this obligation?
property custodian
43
What is the first step in assembling a magistrate court file?
obtain a defendant's federal magistrate court consent form
44
In federal magistrate court case, immediately following arraignment on a petty offense where the defendant pleads guilty, the magistrate will
impose a sentence
45
If an officer member of a tenant unit is being administratively discharges, then the jurisdiction for the member and the discharge belongs to the
tenant unit
46
The contract dispute obligated the contractor to
continue performance pending final resolution of a dispute
47
once a person fills out the office of government ethics (OGE) form 450, the executive branch confidential financial disclosure report, the next step in the filing process is to
sign the report and send it to the person's supervisor for review
48
In a merit systems protection baord (MSPB), what max number of days from the effective date of the adverse action does a complaintant have to file an appeal with the MSPB?
30
49
What statute requires administrative or criminal sanctions for the misuse of appropriated funds?
Anti-deficiency act
50
When may an officer or employee accept voluntary services exceeding those authorized by law?
in emergencies involving the safety of human life or protection of property
51
In a general order is issued by a US combatant cc in a multinational force, then the general order applies to
deployed us personnel
52
What type of system has secure voice and data equipment designed for use on an advanced digital communication network?
secure and terminal equipment (STE)
53
when the authority of an international agreement falls under the MAJCOM, to whom must it be submitted for concurrence
MAJCOM SJA
54
Which type of Status of forces agreement (SOFA) is accomplished through an exchange of diplomatic notes?
administrative and technical staff
55
Who appointment military legal advisors?
local SJAs
56
which report is a statistical summary of all cases involving foreign jurisdiction over US personnel?
annual foreign criminal jurisdiction report
57
who is the highest foreign ranking officer assigned to a joint force commander at the unified, subunified, and joint task force levels?
commander, air force forces
58
What is the role of legal support in air and space operations as defined by the AF doctrine document annex 3-84, legal support?
analyze and evaluate circumstances
59
If a CC requests supplemental rules of engagement (ROE), then the request must be classified at least
confidential
60
What type of document may contain late-breaking, airframe specific, or individual target specific, Rules of Engagement (ROE) restriction
Air tasking order
61
air force chaplains are considered
noncombatants
62
whcih permanent courts tries persons accused of the most serious crimes of international concern?
international criminal court
63
which agency coordinates and implements plans for the protection and evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad?
department of state
64
Who is responsible for preparing the emergency action plans (EAP) to evacuate us citizens from a foreign country?
Us ambassador
65
Which operation is a diplomatic process aimed at establishing a cease fire or an otherwise peaceful settlement of conflict
peacemaking
66
What is the first step in considering local purchasing for supplies and services?
what type of contract to use
67
who retains sole responsibility for response to off installation foreign incidents
host nation
68
what provides the framework for organizing the efforts of federal, state, local, and private organizations for national security
National strategy for homeland security