Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a bulletin?

A

Bulletins incorporate changes that are normally temporary in nature. They may be issued to inform crews of short term procedures, or to describe transitional procedures during the implementation period. While effective, bulletins supersede any related information in the manual.

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2
Q

What are some of the duties and responsibilities of the First Officer?

A

Assist the captain in preparing the flight plan, and familiarize himself/herself with the weather, NOTAMS, aircraft status, and other pertinent factors for the flight.
All papers collected and brought to AC.
Responsible for compliance and regulations.
Advise captain of any open write ups.
Obtain all fuel information for flight.
Perform all interior and exterior AC inspections.

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3
Q

Can Frontier mechanics sit in the flight deck jumpseat for travel?

A

Yes, but Frontier mechanics must be “on-duty” in order to access the flight deck jumpseats.

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4
Q

Who must fill out the ACM AUTHORIZATION FORM?

A

All persons (except FAA Inspectors) requesting access to the flight deck or cabin jumpseats.

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5
Q

The captain is the final authority over flight deck access and shall have the right to deny access to any person, without exercising their emergency authority, with the exception of?

A

FAA carrier inspector.
DOD evaluator.
U.S. Secret service agent.
A representative of NTSB.

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6
Q

What are the Alcohol Limits for flight crew?

A

Federal regulations prohibit pilots from acting as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:
• Within eight hours after consuming any alcoholic beverage;
• While under the influence of alcohol;
• While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen; or
• While using any drug that affects a person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety.

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7
Q

When must the pilots don and use the O2 masks?

A

Cabin Pressure Altitude above 10,000ft.

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8
Q

Is landing at night without runway lights permitted?

A

No. Runway lights must be available and operational for all night operations.

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9
Q

Is operation of the aircraft (movement under its own power) permitted on any surface if braking action is NIL?

A

No. NOTE: If a surface is reported as NIL rather than CLSD, Frontier Airlines prohibits the operation (movement under its own power) of its aircraft over any portion of a ramp, taxiway, or runway that is considered to be Braking Action NIL (BRAN).

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10
Q

When do “Braking Action Advisories” go into effect?

A

When tower controllers receive runway braking action reports which include the terms poor or nil OR
• Whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions

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11
Q

Are intoxicated persons allowed to board the aircraft?

A

NO. A person who appears to be intoxicated shall be denied boarding.

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12
Q

Is the flight crew permitted to stow baggage for passengers in the flight deck?

A

At the captain’s discretion, he/she may accept and secure baggage on the flight deck from any individual who is eligible to access a jumpseat as an ACM (e.g., working/non-working crewmembers of Frontier or other airlines).

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13
Q

Does Frontier Airlines carry HAZMAT for commercial transportation?

A

No

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14
Q

How are dangerous goods that requiring flight crew notification communicated to the flight crew?

A

Either on appropriate forms or via the Weight and Balance Worksheet.

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15
Q

When are radio reports always required?

A

Deviation from ATC clearance or response to TA or RA.
When vacating any previous altitude for new assigned altitude.
Unable to climb or decent at least 500fpm.
Approach has been missed.
Change in average TAS by 5% or 10 knots.
The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared.
When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
Whenever encountering a meteorological condition or an irregularity in a ground or navigational facility.
Any malfunction, in controlled airspace, of navigational, approach, or communication equipment.

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16
Q

When are position reports required while not in radar contact?

A

When passing a compulsory reporting point and the aircraft is not in radar contact.
Whenever requested by ATC.
FINAL APPROACH FIX inbound.
ETA Error.

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17
Q

What would you do if you lost weather radar enroute?

A

The flight may continue to its planned destination provided thunderstorms or hazardous weather conditions can be avoided visually.

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18
Q

What are the requirements to fly into “Special Airports”?

A

Frontier may not use a flight crew in operations to or from an airport that requires special airport qualification unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months:
• The captain or first officer has made an entry to that airport, including a takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crewmember; or
• The captain has qualified by using pictorial means (Jeppesen Airport Qualification charts) for that airport.

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19
Q

When is First Officer flying restricted (FO High Mins)?

A

Less than 100 Hours: If a first officer has less than 100 hours (includes OE) flight time as second in command in operations under 14 CFR 121 at Frontier Airlines in the type airplane being flown, and the captain is not a check airman, the captain must make all takeoffs and landings in the following situations:
• Low-level windshear advisories or alerts are in effect, or another aircraft has reported windshear for a particular runway;
• The crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 kts;
• The airport is a special airport (see Special Airports);
• The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 ft (RVR is controlling over visibility);
• The visibility in the latest weather report is at or below 3/4 mile;
• The runway to be used is wet, slippery, or contaminated (see Section 20.36 Runway Conditions);
• The braking action on the runway to be used is less than “good;” • Any other conditions where the captain deems it prudent.

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20
Q

What are the First Officer’s minimums for takeoff?

A

At all times It is recommended that captains perform the takeoff when the reported visibility is equal to or less than 1/2 mile or RVR 1800 (when RVR is reported).

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21
Q

If the flight crew diverts and then finishes their sequence of flights, does the diversion add a segment to our total segments for the day?

A

No A diversion segment does not reduce an FDP. An FDP is based on scheduled segments, e.g., A crewmember’s FDP begins at 0600 and they are scheduled for 4 segments. The FDP is limited to 12 hours. If the crewmember diverts, the diversion is not considered a scheduled segment, and the FDP limit will remain at 12 hours instead of reducing to 11.5 hours.

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22
Q

May a flight be continued, if before takeoff, you know you will exceed flight time limits?

A

No

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23
Q

Is domicile time used when calculating flight time and duty limits?

A

Yes. Flight crews will use the local time of their domicile when beginning a flight segment for the purpose of calculating flight time and duty limits from Table 10.50.1 and Table 10.50.2 unless directed otherwise by Dispatch or Crew Scheduling.

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24
Q

Are flight time extensions permitted prior to takeoff?

A

No Prior to Takeoff Flight time extensions are not permitted prior to takeoff. A pilot may not depart, nor may the Company dispatch, a flight with a known condition that would extend the flight time to the point a flight time limit would be exceeded.

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25
Q

Are flight duty period extensions permitted prior to takeoff?

A

Yes. If unforeseen operational circumstances arise, flight duty period extensions may occur with the concurrence of the crewmember, the pilot in command, and the Company. An extension of more than 30 minutes is permitted only once between required 30-hour rest periods. Prior to Takeoff: A flight duty period extension of up to two hours may occur if the following conditions can be met. • Only one extension greater than 30 minutes may occur between required 30-hour rest periods. • The extension may not cause the crewmember to exceed a cumulative FDP limit.

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26
Q

Are flight duty period extensions permitted after takeoff?

A

Yes. After Takeoff A flight duty period may be extended to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.

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27
Q

Each crewmember must be provided with a minimum of _____ consecutive hours of rest (free of all Company assigned duty) within the past 168 consecutive hour period. (This equates to a rolling week)?

A

30 hours

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28
Q

How many hours of rest is required between flight duty or reserve availability periods? How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity is required?

A

Each pilot must be provided with a minimum of 10 hours of rest between flight duty or reserve availability periods. The 10 hours of rest must include 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity.

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29
Q

If captain or first officer lost his/her EFB, may that crewmember borrow a fellow crewmembers EFB to conduct a flight?

A

Yes. The EFB Program does not restrict the practice of borrowing an EFB from a fellow crewmember.

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30
Q

Explain how you would handle an EFB failure before departure, during taxi, or between legs of a trip.

A

Reference the EFB FAILURE flow chart located in FOM VOL. I, Section 10.70 pg. 12

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31
Q

When is the PIC the (ISC) In Flight Security coordinator?

A

Cabin doors shut to cabin doors open.

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32
Q

Must we land at the nearest suitable airport for in inflight engine shutdown?

A

In the event of an inflight engine shutdown for an emergency or to prevent damage, the PIC will report the shutdown to the appropriate ATC ground facility. The PIC must land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. If the PIC lands at an airport other than the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, he or she shall (upon completing the trip) send a written report to the Director of Operations stating the reasons for determining that the selection of an airport, other than the nearest suitable airport, was as safe a course of action as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

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33
Q

Should crew briefings to flight attendants take place near passengers?

A

No. Due to the sensitive nature of material possibly discussed in a briefing (security procedures, maintenance items, etc.), crew briefings should not take place in the gate area or near passengers. The crew room is an ideal location for crew briefings. Briefings may also take place on the aircraft or in the loading bridge prior to passenger boarding.

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34
Q

Must all flight attendants be on board and remain on board during passenger boarding and deboarding?

A

Yes

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35
Q

Are Pilot crewmembers permitted to stand in for a required flight attendant during passenger boarding and deboarding?

A

No

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36
Q

Can Pilot crewmembers in uniform stand in for a flight attendant on a through-flight situation?

A

Yes. On through flights, at least one-half the required complement of flight attendants, rounded down for A319 and A321 aircraft, must remain on the parked aircraft whenever passengers remain onboard. One crewmember must be positioned at the front of the cabin, not on the flight deck, and be clearly visible to passengers. A second crewmember, when required, shall be positioned near the aft exit doors. Pilot crewmembers in uniform may stand in for a flight attendant only in this through-flight situation. This equates to 1 flight attendant for A319s and 2 flight attendants for A320/321s that must remain on the parked aircraft whenever passengers remain onboard.

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37
Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?

A

The CRO. Although the captain retains final authority to refuse transportation, the recommendation of the CRO must be carefully considered. The reasons for denying boarding to a disabled passenger must be clearly documented.

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38
Q

Who is required to board passengers with disability or those passengers who require assistance?

A

CSA’s or contract vendors.

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39
Q

Must a passenger provide a physician’s statement stating the use of a POC is necessary? Must the Captain be notified?

A

Yes and Yes. Also, the captain must be informed of the contents of the physician’s statement (normally by the “A” flight attendant) including the magnitude and nature of the passenger’s oxygen needs.

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40
Q

When are flight crews required to report for duty?

A

1 hour prior to departure in domicile and international.
• 45 minutes prior to departure away from domicile
• Both Pilots should arrive at the aircraft 30 mins prior to departure 25.20 pg 1 (pg 284) NOTE: If at forty-five minutes prior to departure, not all crewmembers are present, contact Crew Scheduling.

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41
Q

If a re-route from ATC has been received, how many miles longer or shorter can the new route be before an ARTR is required?

A

100 miles

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42
Q

What are some examples of when CONTNGNCY may be added?

A

Forecast weather conditions which may delay a flight.
• Anticipated traffic delays.
• Fuel for a possible missed approach.
• Fuel considered unusable due to an MEL/CDL restriction.
• Any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
• International flights dispatched under Ops Spec B043, additional fuel of 10% of the flight time during which the aircraft’s position cannot be reliably fixed at least once an hour will be included.

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43
Q

How does a Simple-Special Engine Failure procedure differ from a Standard Procedure?

A

The Simple-Special Procedure differs from Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1,000’ AFE.

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44
Q

When is a Complex-Special Procedure is issued?

A

The Complex-Special Procedure is issued when an engine failure procedure is too complex to fit in the Simple-Special table and/or other considerations must be taken into account.

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45
Q

Can we add bags to the cargo compartments after block out?

A

Yes. As long as there is coordination between the loadmaster and the flight crew, late bags may be accommodated after block out and prior to engine start. The crew must ensure the Weight and Balance Manifest (obtained via AWP or from Load Planning) is adjusted, as necessary, to account for the late bags.

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46
Q

What is the cabin count that is controlling?

A

The flight attendant cabin count is controlling. The cabin will be counted by the designated Flight Attendant no later than 5 minutes prior to departure. The flight attendant is then responsible for communicating the total passenger and zone counts to the loadmaster. The loadmaster will record this count on the final worksheet.

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47
Q

What weight is used for “cabin seat cargo” items in the cabin? For example, a passenger decides to purchase an additional seat for his guitar.

A

Cabin Seat Cargo – Passenger items stowed in a cabin seat purchased for this purpose are referred to as cabin seat cargo. To account for this extra weight, an additional 90 pounds will be added for each cargo item. The flight crew will include this weight as “Extra Weight” on the AWP Cabin Detail page (refer to FOM Vol II, Section 5.20). Enter the sum of any such EXTRA WT at LSK 1L, 2L or 3L as appropriate.

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48
Q

The captain may add up to ________ lbs over the planned fuel at his/her discretion. An amount greater than requires an _______ from Dispatch?

A

2000lbs/ARTR

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49
Q

If no fuel slip is provided or the fuel reliability check is not accurate, can we still depart?

A

Yes. Compare the FOB to release fuel; as long as the FOB is no less than 500 lbs from the release fuel, no crew action is required and the fuel is considered reliable

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50
Q

What are the standard takeoff minimums?

A

Visibility: 1 SM or 5000 RVR

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51
Q

If takeoff mins are not published, what minimums should be used

A

Standard takeoff minimum may be used or any lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized in Ops Specs C078.

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52
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

A

500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and CL Lights

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53
Q

What is the maximum distance the takeoff alternate can be at Frontier?

A

When a takeoff alternate is required, a maximum time of 1+00 (normal cruise speed, single engine, still air) and a maximum distance of 330 NM may be used.

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54
Q

What is Frontier’s Severe Icing Policy regarding alternate airports?

A

If severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the scheduled arrival time, a suitable alternate must be listed on the release.
Operations are prohibited:
• in moderate and heavy freezing rain and heavy freezing drizzle.
• in known severe icing conditions, except under emergency authority of the captain.

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55
Q

What are the colors of the 3 types of deferral placards?

A

MEL/CDL/Info Only: Orange
MEL/CDL-FR: Green
NEF: Pink

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56
Q

May the flight crew use a different type/color placard if the correct color placard is not available when deferring an item? For example, may an Orange placard be used for an NEF if no pink placards are available?

A

Yes. If the correct placard is not available when deferring an item, a different type/color placard may be used in its place until the correct one can be installed.

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57
Q

How long does the flight crew have to submit an incident report?

A

36hrs

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58
Q

Is Frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pickup an IFR clearance?

A

Yes. The following conditions must exist.
• Must maintain the 91.155 cloud clearance requirements.
• Reported Ceiling and visibility to be 1,000 ft or greater, 1 SM visibility (2 SM night).
• Remain in VMC until IFR clearance received.
• Must obtain IFR clearance ASAP, but no further than 50 NM from departure airport.

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59
Q

What equipment is required prior to operating in RVSM? (FFATPAD)

A

Prior to entry into RVSM airspace, the following equipment must be operating normally:
• Two primary altitude measuring systems;
• One automatic autopilot system;
• One altitude alerting device; and
• One altitude reporting transponder
The specific equipment required is as follows.
• Flight Warning Computer (FWC)
• Flight Control Unit (FCU)
• Autopilot
• Transponder with altitude reporting capabilities
• 2 PFDs
• 2 ADRs
• 2 DMCs

60
Q

What is Class I and Class II navigation?

A

Class I navigation is any enroute flight operation or portion thereof that is conducted within the operational service volumes of VOR, VOR/DME, and/or NDB navigation facilities. Class II navigation is any navigation outside of Class I navigaton.

61
Q

Must autopilot be engaged in RVSM?

A

Yes. An autopilot must be engaged and functioning properly unless turbulence or other circumstances require disengagement.

62
Q

If the aircraft exhibits an assigned altitude deviation of 300ft or more while in RVSM, the flight crew should notify ATC, “Unable RVSM” due to (state the reason). True or False

A

True

63
Q

When is autopilot required to conduct an approach?

A

When the weather is less than 4000 RVR (3/4 mile) and the autopilot is available for use, the approach must be coupled.

64
Q

When must an approach be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the flying pilot?

A

When:
• the ATIS-reported RVR/visibility is at or below 2400 RVR or 1/2 sm,
• a CAT II or CAT III runway is available,
• the aircraft is autoland capable, and
• both crewmembers are trained.

65
Q

Is Frontier authorized to conduct CAT II/III operations outside of the United States?

A

No

66
Q

What is the APU fuel burn rate when supplying conditioned air under max generator load?

A

Approximately 275lbs/hr

67
Q

What speed should be flown for maximum endurance (minimum fuel burn per hour)?

A

Green Dot Speed. This speed allows the aircraft to remain airborne for the longest time.

68
Q

When should minimum fuel be declared to ATC?

A

Minimum Fuel. Minimum fuel does not indicate an emergency condition or imply a need for priority handling. It indicates that an aircraft’s fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination or alternate (if assigned), it can accept little or no delay. A minimum fuel condition does not need to be declared to ATC, but should be communicated if the crew is unable to accept a clearance as a result of a fuel supply concern.

69
Q

When should a fuel emergency be declared to ATC? When must a fuel emergency be declared to ATC?

A

Fuel Emergency. If the remaining fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, the crew should declare a fuel emergency and report fuel remaining in minutes. The captain shall declare a fuel emergency with ATC when the remaining fuel supply drops below an amount required to fly for 30 minutes based on current and expected conditions.

70
Q

Is a post flight exterior inspection required after each flight?

A

Yes. If the crew is to keep the aircraft for the next flight (i.e. continuing with the aircraft), the preflight exterior inspection will suffice for this inspection as well. If the crew is to leave the aircraft (i.e. end of the duty day or aircraft swap), the crew leaving the flight must accomplish the post-flight exterior inspection. The oncoming crew accomplishing the preflight exterior inspection does not satisfy this requirement.

71
Q

All flights between the United States and a foreign country shall carry an international briefcase. Who is responsible to ensure it is on-board prior to departure?

A

International Briefcase contains all documents required by the United States and the destination country for exit and entry. The “A” flight attendant shall verify that the International Briefcase contains all required forms in sufficient quantity for the round trip.

72
Q

What is the required aircraft equipment to dispatch a flight from the United States to an international destination?

A

APU GPWS TCAS ACARS

73
Q

What is the required aircraft equipment to dispatch a flight from an international destination to the United States?

A

ACARS

74
Q

Is Frontier authorized to perform a “Visual Approach” in international airspace?

A

No. We must request a “VMC Approach

75
Q

For the preflight cold weather check, certain areas of the aircraft are permitted to have frost, hoarfrost, or slush/snow within certain tolerances. What are these areas and what are their tolerances?

A

Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage.
• A frost layer 1/8 in. or less on the underside of the wing, in the area of fuel tanks.
• Snow/slush on the landing gear acquired during taxi operations. Do not allow the landing gear to be deiced with deice fluid.

76
Q

Anti-icing is normally only required for wing and tail surfaces; the fuselage does not require an application of anti-ice fluid after being deiced. TRUE or False?

A

True. Normally de-ice entire aircraft Type I and anti-ice wings and tail with Type IV.

77
Q

What conditions require application of undiluted Type IV fluid?

A

Heavy Snow and Ice Pellets

78
Q

If the holdover time expires may the flight crew takeoff?

A

Yes, so long as airplane passes the pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.

79
Q

May the flight crew takeoff if an Allowance Time expires?

A

Mostly no. If an allowance time expires, the aircraft must return for secondary deicing/antiicing. Some extensions are permitted if precipitation stops prior to the allowance time expiring. Reference the Deice/Anti-Ice card for details.

80
Q

Are Pre-takeoff (wingtip check) and Pre-Takeoff Contamination (Exit Row Check) checks applicable to Allowance Times?

A

No. Pre-takeoff checks (“wingtip” check) and pre-takeoff contamination checks (“Exit Row” check) are not required and may not be used to extend an allowance time.

81
Q

Is deicing with the flaps/slats extended permitted? Is anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended permitted?

A

Frontier Airlines is authorized to Deice with Flaps/Slats extended, but must retract Flaps/Slats prior to Anti-ice.

82
Q

What types of De-Ice fluid does Frontier use and what are the respective colors of those fluids?

A

Type 1 De-Ice Orange Type 2 Anti-Ice Green Type 3 (Frontier does not use) Type 4 Anti-Ice Green

83
Q

What is a Pre-Takeoff Check (Wingtip Check) and when must it be performed?

A

A pre-takeoff check (“wingtip” check) is a check of the representative surface area (left wing tip) for frozen precipitation. It is performed prior to takeoff and within the holdover time. Frontier Airlines is authorized to make this inspection from the flight deck, unless it is not possible to view the representative surface (left wing tip) area. If it is not possible for the flight crew to view the left wingtip from the flight deck, the flight crew must inspect the wings through the cabin windows in a position that allows clear inspection of the upper surfaces of both wings.

84
Q

What is the “representative surface” regarding a Pre-Takeoff Check?

A

Frontier has designated the outboard, upper surfaces of the left wing, in between the front and rear spars, as the representative surface.

85
Q

What is a Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check (Exit Row Check) and when must it be performed?

A

A pre-takeoff contamination check (“Exit Row” check) is required in conditions of heavy snow or if the holdover time has been exceeded. The check must be accomplished within five minutes of beginning the takeoff roll. Multiple checks may be necessary in order to meet this requirement if takeoff delays are encountered. A pre-takeoff contamination check is accomplished from the cabin as follows: • Turn the wing lights on and dim the cabin lights, if necessary. • Inspect the wings through the cabin windows in a position that allows clear inspection of the upper surfaces of both wings. The exit rows are generally ideal for this purpose. NOTE: Flight deck door security procedures must be used.

86
Q

What must the flight crew do if Type II or Type IV fluids are applied forward of the passenger/service doors?

A

If this occurs, the pilot must return the aircraft to the gate and must contact Maintenance Control Center (MCC) to clean the windshield and sensors. These fluids present operational problems for heated windshields and sensors mounted on the forward fuselage.

87
Q

What 3 elements must the flight crew record when given the post deice/anti-ice report from the deice crew?

A

The following 3 elements are required to determine the proper holdover time.
• The brand and type of fluid used (e.g., Clariant SafeWing MP IV Launch Type IV).
• The percentage of fluid within the fluid/water mixture (e.g., 100, 50/50).
• The local time in hours and minutes that the anti-ice application began.

88
Q

Can the flight crew takeoff if the holdover time expires for Heavy Snow conditions?

A

No holdover time exists for Heavy Snow. Therefore, the flight crew must perform the PreTakeoff Contamination (Exit Row Check) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.

89
Q

If flight crew inspection shows that the anti-ice fluid has failed, secondary deicing/anti-icing is required. The aircraft must be completely deiced before a new anti-ice treatment can be applied. TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

90
Q

How does the flight crew determine if the Anti-Ice fluid is no longer providing proper protection?

A

Type I, II and IV fluids are no longer effective when the surfaces are losing their gloss, turning white, or have visible snow or other precipitation remaining on the surface without melting. If this is observed, the fluid is no longer providing protection and takeoff shall not be attempted.

91
Q

What medical kit must be authorized by the captain before it can be used?

A

Emergency Medical Kit (EMK)

92
Q

What are the benefits of contacting STAT-MD for medical concerns?

A

Provide medical expertise in dealing with a medical event
• Shift the burden of liability off the pilot and Frontier and onto STAT-MD
Once contacted, Stat-MD assumes liability for the patient.
This service is paid for on a subscription basis, not on a per call basis. DO NOT HESITATE to contact Stat-MD when dealing with a medical concern.

93
Q

How can the flight crew contact STAT-MD?

A

Preflight: Stat-MD may be reached by phone at 1-800-611-8752 or (412) 647-5652. In-flight: Via ARINC phone patch (Primary Method) Via ACARS in the Free Text Message addressed to STMD (Alternate Method)

94
Q

What is a “Tarmac Delay” as it relates to the tarmac delay program?

A

A tarmac delay is the elapsed time that an aircraft is held on the ground either before takeoff or after landing with no opportunity for the passengers to deplane.

95
Q

What is the limit on the tarmac delay?

A
  • 3 hours for Domestic Flights
  • 4 hours for International Flights: (i.e., any flight between a U.S. and foreign destination regardless of the rules under which the flight is released)
96
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay clock start for arrivals?

A

Arrivals: Time starts for arrivals upon touchdown at the destination or alternate. This is normally the ON time.

97
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay clock start for departures?

A

Departures: Time starts for departures five minutes after the last passenger is boarded. If a ground delay occurs after departure from the gate, the actual start time should be obtained from SOC. Holding on the Gate: If a delay of 30 minutes or more is anticipated/incurred at the gate, the main cabin door should remain open and passengers must be notified of their ability to deplane in order to prevent the start of a tarmac delay.

98
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay Timer reset or stop?

A

When passengers are notified they can deplane Or
• When the flight gets airborne.
Note: Tarmac delays do NOT accumulate when more than one delay occurs on a given flight.

99
Q

When should the flight crew start looking at and using the Tarmac Delay Checklist?

A

After any tarmac delay situation of 15 mins or more AND whenever a ground delay could potentially lead to an excessive tarmac delay (90 minutes or more). During any delay situation, pilots will update passengers every 15 minutes as described in the TDP Checklist. The announcements on the checklist are to be read as written in order to protect the Company from legal action. These announcements are designed to cue the cabin crew to perform appropriate actions at specific points during the delay.

100
Q

Where can the flight crew find the Tarmac Delay Program Checklist?

A

In the flight deck along with the other checklists

• In the EFB on MyComply

101
Q

What is an EDK?

A

Extended Delay Kit (EDK) Each aircraft is supplied with an EDK containing food items. The kit is only to be used when a tarmac delay will reach two hours. It may not be used for any other purpose (e.g., as compensatory items for other types of delays). The cabin crew is responsible for ensuring the EDK is onboard and has not expired.

102
Q

May a flight depart if the Extended Delay Kit (EDK) is missing, expired, or partially used without a logbook write-up? If so, does this change the time limit on for the Tarmac Delay?

A

Yes and Yes. If an EDK is missing, expired or partially used, coordinate with Dispatch to obtain a replacement. Missing and deficient kits are not valid logbook entries. The flight may depart without a usable Extended Delay Kit, but must return to the gate within two hours in the event of an extended tarmac delay.

103
Q

Should diversion decisions be made by the captain and first officer alone?

A

The decision to divert is to be made as a joint decision between the captain and dispatcher. However, the captain remains the final authority for the safe conduct of the flight.

104
Q

What is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that published on the dispatch release?

A

ARTR to ensure the aircraft has an adequate fuel supply and the airport is operationally suitable.

105
Q

Landing at an airport not listed in Ops Specs C070 may only be accomplished through captain or dispatcher emergency authority to protect the safety of the flight. TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

106
Q

Who normally makes the decision to permit passengers to disembark after diverting to an alternate airport?

A

SOC. If SOC is not available to make the decision, the captain may choose to deplane passengers once the conditions for allowing passengers to disembark in VOL. I Section 45.30 have been considered.

107
Q

When should the flight crew issue a “Cabin Advisory” versus an “Emergency Preparation” to the flight attendants?

A

Based on will the passengers need to brace or evacuate? If no brace or evacuation it’s cabin advisory

108
Q

What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Preparation?

A

T - Type Of Emergency
E - Evacuation Anticipate
S - Review Signals To Brace, Remain Seated, and Evacuate 3 minutes
T - Time Remaining to Land

109
Q

What call button should be used when issuing a cabin advisory? What information should be relayed to the flight attendants?

A

Call the F/As using the Normal Call button and advise you are providing a Cabin Advisory with the following information:
Identify nature of irregularity.
Advise of new flight plan.
Remind F/As that an Emergency Preparation is not anticipated.

110
Q

What call button should be used when issuing an Emergency Preparation? What information should be relayed to the flight attendants?

A

Call the F/As using the EMERG Call button and give them the TEST information.

111
Q

When are security searches required?

A

First flight of the day.
• International flights (not including Alaska)
• Private Charters
◦ Following the charter and prior to operating as a Part 121 revenue flight.
◦ Aircraft may be repositioned under Part 91 without a search.

112
Q

What should the flight crew do if a suspicious item is found onboard while at the gate?

A

If a suspicious item is found, the GSC must be contacted. LEOs may also be contacted when appropriate.
• Do not handle any object that may be or may contain an explosive device or biological threat. LEOs must assess the threat and determine disposal procedures.

113
Q

How does the flight crew know when a security search needs to be completed? In other words, who is responsible to know when a security search is due?

A

The security search form will normally be left on the clip located to the left of the captain’s seat for pilots to fill out if a security search is required. Stations are responsible for determining when and if an Aircraft Security Inspection/Search is required.

114
Q

What section of the security form does the pilot fill out?

A

Section 4: Flight Deck Inspection portion only.

115
Q

Is a flight to Puerto Rico considered an international flight for purposes of a security searches?

A

No

116
Q

What portions of the flight deck is the flight crew responsible for when performing the flight deck security inspection?

A
The  captain  and/or  first  officer  is  responsible  for  conducting  a  visual  inspection  of  accessible areas  and  compartments  (that  do  not  require  special  tools  to  open)  on  the  flight  deck.  This includes,  but  is  not  limited  to: 
•  Trash  receptacles.
•  Storage  bins.
•  Coat  closet.
•  Seat  backs/pockets.
•  Seat  cushions.
•  Oxygen  mask receptacles.
117
Q

How many people are required in the cockpit during aircraft operation (i.e., main cabin door closed)?

A

There must be a minimum of two people on the flight deck at all times. One of those people may be a working flight attendant or an ACM. Except in an emergency, an off-duty or deadheading crewmember seated in the cabin is not authorized to access the flight deck during flight.

118
Q

Who must fill out the “Notice to Armed Individual” form?

A

LEO’s. FAM’s and FFDO’s are not required

119
Q

Must the captain sign the “Notice to Armed Individual” form?

A

Yes

120
Q

Must the captain be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms?

A

Yes

121
Q

Must all armed individuals know where the other armed individuals are located?

A

Yes

122
Q

Does Frontier carry high-risk or low-risk prisoners?

A

Frontier does not carry high-risk prisoners.

• Frontier will accept up to two low-risk prisoners under escort per flight.

123
Q

What is the captain’s 2 primary responsibility’s regarding Armed Individuals?

A

The captain must ensure that:
• All crewmembers are aware of armed individuals onboard the aircraft.
• Each armed individual is aware of all other armed individuals onboard the aircraft.

124
Q

What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle (EW)?

A

The EW is used to alert fellow flight attendants and passengers of any impending physical confrontation, violence, hijacking, or other threat occurring onboard the aircraft (Threat Level 2,3,4 events). In the event that the pilots hear the whistle(s) or other indications of a physical disturbance and no communication with the flight attendants in the cabin is established, the captain will declare an emergency and land at the nearest suitable airport.

125
Q

What are the 4 levels of threat?

A

Level 1: Verbal.
Level 2: Physical.
Level 3: Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury.
Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck.

126
Q

Where can the flight crew finds Points of Contact Information or Flight Ops Forms? For example, who to call to for pilot uniforms or how to access a Bird Strike form from a hotel?

A

FOM VOL. I, Appendices

127
Q

Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Secs C070 approved airports?

A

Airport Information Pages (AIP)

Note: The list also shows Regular Airports (R), Refueling Airports (F), Provisional Airports (P), and Alternate Airports (A).

NOTE: There is no guarantee of the availability of fuel, crash/fire rescue services, passenger handling services, or aircraft services (e.g., maintenance, tow bar, air cart, etc.)

128
Q

Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?

A

Coded Departure Routes section of the AIP (Toward the front)

129
Q

When is an alternate required?

A

1,2,3 rule.
Takeoff alternate when weather conditions are below CAT 1 minimum.
Marginal weather ceiling of 100ft 1/2 mile of minimums for that airport.
3585.
RNAV only airports.
Severe Icing.
Drift down.
Supplemental Ops/Offline Charters: Always.
Flag Operations Greater than 6 hours: Always.

130
Q

Is exemption 3585 used for Flag and Supplemental Operations? How about for high mins captains?

A

Exemption 3585 is only authorized to be used on Domestic flights.
Not allowed for high mins captains.

131
Q

What flight paperwork, is required before a revenue flight may block out?

A

Dispatch or Flight Release.
• Flight Plan.
• Weather (Latest METAR/TAF at time captain signs the release).
• NOTAMS.
• Performance information (via AWP or the Takeoff and Landing Report [TLR]).
• Weight and Balance Manifest (via AWP or as provided by Load Planning).

132
Q

Is the takeoff and landing report (TLR) required paperwork?

A

When AWP is available, the TLR or data from the TLR is only required when special ACARS runway entry codes are necessary due to runway NOTAMS being in effect (shortened runway, temporary obstacle in departure path).

133
Q

When do we need a ARTR (Amend Release To Read)?

A

S- Supplement operations and any changes in crew names.
H- Hour past (1) departure time.
A- Alternate added or changed.
F- Fuel added more then 2000lbs.
T- Takeoff alternate needed.
M- Mel added or removed.
Mi-Miles over (100) from original filed flight plan route.
Capt signs the release and there is captain change.

134
Q

How many separate volumes does the Flight Operations Manuals (FOMs) consist of?

A

Three:
Volume I contains policy and procedural information that is not aircraft-specific.
Volume II contains operating policies and procedures for the specific aircraft type.
Volume III contains aircraft and aircraft systems information for the specific aircraft type.

135
Q

Is it permissible for the post-flight and/or preflight inspection to be accomplished by a mechanic or “stand in” pilot?

A

Yes. In unusual circumstances (e.g., at a diversion airport, following some international arrivals, or in case of a late arriving crewmember), the post-flight and/or preflight inspections may be accomplished by a mechanic, a “stand in” pilot, or other person authorized by a Part 119 manager (see Section 5.01 Required Management)

136
Q

Explain the difference between Method 1 and Method 2?

A

Method 1 - Requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures, if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircrafts net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the routes centerline by 1000ft until reaching the destination.
Method 2- If the aircraft weight is such that it cannot meet the terrain clearance requirements of Method 1 you can file Method 2 which requires the aircraft to maintain 2000ft above terrain within 5 Miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. Requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment of the driftdown flight plan.

137
Q

When is a Crew Briefing Required?

A

Crew briefings should be conducted prior to the first flight of the day.
If a crew member change occurs the Captain should complete an additional crew briefing with the new crew member prior to that flight.
If a crew briefing cannot be accomplished prior to the first flight of the day or prior to the flight in the event of a crew member change the captain should insure that at least the first officer and preferably the “A” flight attendant have received the crew briefing. The briefed flight attendant will then be responsible for briefing the other flight attendants in this situation and those flight attendants that were not briefed by the captain should try to stop by the flight deck prior to departure to identify themselves as crew members to the captain.

138
Q

Is Frontier authorized to fly Circle to Land approaches? Is Frontier authorized to fly Circle to Land Maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

A

Frontier is not authorized to conduct Circle to Land approaches
To preform a circle to land maneuver you must have at least 3 SM and 1000ft ceilings or greater if minimums on the circle to land IAP are greater than 1000/3
FRONTIER AIRLINES DOES NOT HAVE ANY AIRCRAFT LISTED IN OPS SPECS C070 TO DO A CIRCLE TO LAND MANEUVER AT A PUBLISHED MDA BELOW 1000FT HAA.

139
Q

United States holding speeds?

A

0 - 6000 ft = 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 ft = 230 KIAS
Above 14000 ft = 265 KIAS

140
Q

What are the Mexico Holding Speeds?

A

0 - 6000 ft = 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 ft = 210
KIAS Above 14000 ft = 230 KIAS

141
Q

What temperature and conditions MUST the ENGINE ANTI ICE be turned on and in what phase of f light?

A

a. ENGINE ANTI ICE must be turned on when there is visible moisture and the OAT/TAT is at or below 10 Degrees C down to -40 Degrees C.
b. Must be on during ground operations with visible moisture or slush, standing water, ice, or snow present on taxiways and runways
c. Must be turned on at all times when the aircraft is in a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40 C

142
Q

What is the definition of Ground Icing conditions?

A

Visible moisture.
Temperature below 10 degrees C.
Visibility less than 1 SM.

143
Q

What is the requirement for a Takeoff Alternate Required?

A

Be within 1 hour normal cruise speed Single Engine
Still Air
Be within 330 NM of departure airport

144
Q

What are the four requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

A

Cross track error deviation should be limited to .5NM
SID/STAR must be retrieved by procedure name from NAV database
Pilot must use Flight Director and/or Autopilot in LNAV mode
Pilot must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500ft above airport elevation

145
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?
Vol 2 5.05

A

Successful reset must be entered into the aircraft logbook as “CR” (Computer Reset) items.
If a Computer / System cannot be successfully reset it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a discrepancy.

146
Q

If the aircraft is not certified for overwater operations, how close must you stay to land?
Vol 25.50

A

East coast N35 latitude and above 100nm 30 minutes flying time still air one engine
South and east below N35 165nm 30 minutes
West coast 100nm 30 minutes