Check Ride Prep Flashcards

1
Q

What Equipment is a Frontier pilot required to carry at all times?

A
Airman  Certificate
FCC  Permit Medical  Certificate 
Flashlight 
EFB  with  Vol  1  and  2
Passport
Government issued ID
Jeppesen charts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pre flight what are we looking for in the logbook?

A

Airworthiness sign off
No open write ups
MEL’s match release and MEL’s stickers in the airplane

Security check clip board check (next to captain seat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When are security checks required? How do we know they were perform?

A

First flight of day
International flight
Private charter
Following a charter and prior to operating part 121

Clip board next to captain seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How long before departure are we required to report for duty?

A

1 hour prior in domicile 45 minutes prior to departure out of domicile not less than 1 hour prior to departure for international flights and Alaska

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When is your new medical certificate required to be submitted to the Chief Pilots Office?

A

No later than the 20th of the month in which its due

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain Captain/Dispatcher joint responsibility?

A

The Captain and Dispatcher are jointly responsible for the preflight planning of each flight and shall determine the suitability of the weather, field, traffic and airway facilities on that particular flight. Both the Captain and the Dispatcher have the authority to delay the flight. If during the course of operations the PIC or Dispatcher determine the flight cannot be completed safely, the PIC may not allow the flight to continue to the planned destination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is an Alternate Airport required? ( 123++ 1500/2 MOISTTRS 3585)

A
1,2,3 rule 1500/2 flag operations 
Marginal VFR
Method 2 drift down
Off line charter
Serve icing
Thunderstorm 
Takeoff alternate 
RNAV
Supplement operations 
3585
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain Flaps Optimized between 3 and 4?

A

Flaps optimized is associated with enroute icing conditions that will affect the approach climb limit weight and change the flaps setting from “Flap Full” to “Flaps 3” in case a GO AROUND becomes required with ice on the airplane. Flaps Optimized will insure adequate approach climb performance in that case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the difference between Method 1 and Method 2?

A

Method 1 - Requires the aircraft to takeoff at a weight that ensures, if an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircrafts net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5 SM either side of the routes centerline by 1000ft until reaching the destination. Method 2- If the aircraft weight is such that it cannot meet the terrain clearance requirements of Method 1 you can file Method 2 which requires the aircraft to maintain 2000ft above terrain within 5 Miles of the centerline for that route segment being flown. Requires that, if an engine failure occurs at cruise altitude, the aircraft be able to divert to at least one suitable airport from a normal cruise altitude along that segment of the driftdown flight plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is a Takeoff Alternate Required?

A

If the weather at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimums a take off alternate is required that meets the following requirements:
Be within 1 hour normal cruise speed
Single Engine
Still Air
Be within 330 NM of departure airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the Autopilot Required for the Approach?

A

Visibility less than 3/4 SM or 4000 RVR and the autopilot is available, the approach must be coupled 15% additional runway length must also be available over the Landing Field Length specified, if the visibility is under 3/4 SM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What equipment must be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace? (FFAT PAD)

A

FWC- Flight Warning Computer (Altitude Alerter)
FCU- Flight Control Unit
Autopilot
Transponder
2-PFD’s - Primary Flight Displays
2-ADR’s - Air Data Reference (#1 is required)
2-DMC’s - Display Monitoring Computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

A

Cross track error deviation should be limited to .5NM
SID/STAR must be retrieved by procedure name from NAV database
Pilot must use Flight Director and/or Autopilot in LNAV mode
Pilot must be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500ft above airport elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How must an approach be conducted when visibility is 1/2 SM or 2400 RVR or less?

A

The approach must be briefed and flown as an autoland with the captain acting as the pilot flying
CAT II or CAT III runway available
The aircraft is autoland capable
Both crew members are trained for autoland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What Flight Release paperwork is required to be onboard before the flight can block out?

A
Dispatch  or  Flight  Release 
Flight  Plan 
Latest  available  weather  (METAR/TAF) 
NOTAM  Reports 
Performance  Information  (AWP  or  TLR) 
Weight  and  Balance  manifest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the Flight Attendants to inform them to prepare the cabin for a possible Evacuation?

A

The pilot will initiate the call to the cabin using the Emergency call button on the inter-phone. He will then inform the Flight Attendant that they are in a TEST situation and brief the flight attendant on the information.
T - Type of emergency ( Cargo Fire)
E- Evacuation Anticipated? ( we plan to evacuate the cabin)
S - Signals from the Cockpit to the Cabin ( “Brace, Brace, Brace” “Remain Seated, Remain Seated, Remain Seated” “Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate”)
T - Time remaining until Landing ( we will be landing in 10 minutes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the lowest RVR Frontier can Depart a Runway?

A

The lowest authorized RVR value Frontier can depart at is 500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and CL lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is an exterior inspection required?

A

Pre and post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is a Crew Briefing Required?

A

Crew briefings should be conducted prior to the first flight of the day. If a crew member change occurs the Captain should complete an additional crew briefing with the new crew member prior to that flight. If a crew briefing cannot be accomplished prior to the first flight of the day or prior to the flight in the event of a crew member change the captain should insure that at least the first officer and preferably the “A” flight attendant have received the crew briefing. The briefed flight attendant will then be responsible for briefing the other flight attendants in this situation and those flight attendants that were not briefed by the captain should try to stop by the flight deck prior to departure to identify themselves as crew members to the captain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is a DDA required?

A

Derived Decision Altitude is required when conducting an approach with an MDA or MDH. DDA is derived by adding 50ft to the published MDA or MDH. This will insure that the aircraft will not descend below the published MDA or MDH if the required visual references for continuing the approach are not observed and a missed approach becomes necessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is the Pilot Flying on the Ground?

A

Captain is always PF on the ground for the purpose of ECAM actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

While conducting an ECAM procedure, what are the five things the pilot flying is responsible for?

A

Thrust Levers
Control of flight path and airspeed
Aircraft configuration (request configuration changes)
Navigation
Communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is Frontier authorized to fly Circle to Land approaches? Is Frontier authorized to fly Circle to Land Maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

A

Frontier is not authorized to conduct Circle to Land approaches
To preform a circle to land maneuver you must have at least 3 SM and 1000ft ceilings or greater if minimums on the circle to land IAP are greater than 1000/3
FRONTIER AIRLINES DOES NOT HAVE ANY AIRCRAFT LISTED IN OPS SPECS C070 TO DO A CIRCLE TO LAND MANEUVER AT A PUBLISHED MDA BELOW 1000FT HAA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

A

Successful reset must be entered into the aircraft logbook as “CR” (Computer Reset) items.
If a Computer / System cannot be successfully reset it must be entered into the aircraft logbook as a discrepancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the aircraft at the gate?

A

Parking an aircraft at the gate or within close proximity to equipment or structures requires a marshaller to guide the aircraft.
One or more wing-walkers may be used at the discretion of the marshaller, or the marshaller may determine wing-walkers are unnecessary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During the cockpit prep, setting the QNH on the FCU, what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and 2?

A

PFD 1 & 2 = +/- 20ft difference
Standby system Steam Gauge = +/- 300ft from PFD
ISIS system = +/- 100ft from PFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

After landing when do we preform the residual ground speed check and what are the limits?

A

We are required to complete the residual ground speed check after every flight.
If the residual ground speed shows 15 knots or greater a logbook writeup and notification of MCC is required as well as a complete realignment of the IRS.
If the residual ground speed is 21 knots or greater a logbook entry and notification of MCC is required and the ADIRU must be considered failed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

After landing when do we preform the drift check and what are the limits?

A

A drift check is required to be completed after each flight to Alaska or an international destination, or anytime the aircraft is flown in Class II airspace.
If the drift check falls into the shaded band on the chart in Vol. 2 3.20 pg. 4 no logbook entry is required. However, a drift check is required to be completed on the next flight leg even if the leg would not normally require one to be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the definition of Marginal Weather?

A

The weather is considered marginal if the ceiling is within 100 ft or the visibility is within 1/2 SM of the minimums for the destination airport and the weather at the alternate airport is within 100 ft and 1/2 SM of the derived alternate minimums. If both the destination and first alternate are determined to be Marginal than a second alternate is required that meets derived alternate minimum requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does RNAV 1 mean?

A

RNAV 1 on SIDS and STARS must maintain a total system error of not more than 1 NM 95% of the total flight time. (RNP 1.0) All pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines, as depicted by onboard flight guidance during all RNAV operations unless authorized to deviate by ATC or under emergency conditions. Cross-track errors/ deviation should be limited to 0.5 NM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When may Frontier fly to a published MDA?

A

Never, whenever an MDA or MDH is published for an approach we must always use Derived Decision Altitude and a constant Flight Path/Angle descent to the DDA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For abnormal procedures during takeoff, which checklist is read first: After takeoff checklist or the abnormal checklist?

A

After takeoff checklist is completed first and the Abnormal checklist is completed second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When may a single engine autoland be done, and in what configuration?

A

Frontier limitations prohibit the use of single engine autoland approaches, however if the flight crew determines it to be the safest course of action for the approach they may use their emergency authority to complete the single engine autoland approach. If the single engine auto-land is used it will be done in the “CONFIG FULL” configuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When do you select “FLAPS FULL” on a single engine approach?

A

FLAPS FULL” should not be selected on a single engine approach until the aircraft is established on the final descent to an assured landing. If a level off is expected during the final approach the approach and landing should be preformed “FLAP 3”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What colors are verbalized when confirming mode changes on the FMA?

A

Blue, Magenta, Green and White CAT status and AP status on an IAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When is it appropriate to call “continuing” on an approach?

A

“Continuing” is called by the PF if the the approach lights are in sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What action is taken at minimums, when landing from a non-precision approach?

A

A/P Off

FDs Off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do you do if the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on?

A

If the aircraft starts to move with the parking brake on, immediately release the Parking Brake handle and restore braking with the pedals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What do you do if you lose one of your certificates?

A

Go FAA.gov/licenses to get a temporary certificate this is good for 60 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If the aircraft is not certified for overwater operations, how close must you stay to land?

A

East coast N35 latitude not to exceed 30 minutes flying time still air with one engine inoperative, or 100nm from nearest shoreline, which ever less.
South and east below N35 Gulf of Mexico, Caribbean is 30 minutes Still air SE 162nm
West coast 30 minutes 100nm still air SE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are our approved sources of weather?

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the Mexico Holding Speeds?

A

0 - 6000 ft = 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 ft = 210 KIAS
Above 14000 ft = 230 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

United States holding speeds?

A

0 - 6000 ft = 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 ft = 230 KIAS
Above 14000 ft = 265 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If the weather at the departure airport drops below CAT 1 minimums as you taxi out, what should the flight crew complete? (STAR)

A

SMGCS charts out for taxi
Takeoff Alternate is required
ARTR required from dispatch
Red Stop Bar Lights at the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When is an ARTR required? ( SHAFT ME MI CAPT)

A

Supplemental operations crew change
Hour Old ( release is more than one hour old)
Alternate becomes required at destination
Fuel more than 2000 LBS to be added or +/- 400 LBS of fuel with no AWP
MEL added to aircraft after release was sent
MIles added to the flight plan greater than 100 miles
CAPT signs the release and there is a Captain change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is a new release required?

A

Supplemental operations when there is a captain change Captain change during normal operation after captain being replaced has signed the release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When do you need a new TLR report?

A

If the QNH drops more than .10 QNH from the TLR a new report is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When CAN’T you do a Felx Takeoff?

A

MEL prevents it
Contaminated Runway
OAT is greater than Flex Temp
Windshear
Special Departure Procedures (ie. KSNA noise abatement) Performance will not allow a Flex takeoff
When the 25% reduction limit is exceeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three different engine failure procedures?

A

Standard (Simple) - Runway Heading
Simple-Special (Special) - Heading to a DME than direct to a fix
Complex-Special (Complex) - An escape route that can be found in the AIP or Jepp chart 10-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the minimum engine oil quantity required for flight?

A

CEO 9.5 quarts + 0.5 quarts per hour of flight time planned (i.e. 4 hour flight needs 9.5 + 2 = 11.5 quarts)
NEO 9.0 + 0.5 quarts per hour of flight plan (no less than 10.6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What ways can you obtain a valid weight and balance?

A

ACARS AWP (ACARS Weight and Balance Performance)
Airbus weight and balance worksheet
If ACARS is not available the Captain can communicate the final load figures with CLP (Central Load Planning) to create a final weight and balance manifest.
Once all figures have been verified by CLP and the Captain, the Captain will sign one copy of the manifest and leave it at the station.
Flight Crew Read back form located in the Diversion Kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the required response to a “SINK RATE” aural warning?

A

“GO AROUND” because vertical speed has become greater than 1000 FMP and the approach is no longer stabilized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the required response to an “AUTOLAND” warning during CAT II/III approach?

A

An immediate missed approach is required

Excessive ILS beam deviation (1/4 Dot localizer, 1 Dot glideslope)
The loss or disconnect of both autopilots
ILS transmitter failure
The difference between both RA indications is greater than 15 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If a circuit breaker pops on the ground or in flight can we reset them?

A

Ground -The flight crew may re-engage any other tripped C/B provided the action is coordinated with MOC and the cause of the tripped C/B has been identified. Successful resets should be entered in logbook for record keeping purposes.
Flight- captain judges necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

An RNAV/GPS approach has LPV as well as LNAV/VNAV and VNAV minimums, which minimums can Frontier use?

A

CANNOT use LPV minimums
CAN use LNAV/VNAV minimums
CAN use VNAV minimums
CANNOT use LNAV or VNAV minimums if a minimum climb gradient is published for the missed approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the proper terminology for the transition thru 18,000 ft climbing and descending?

A

Climbing 1. PF Calls “PULL STANDARD” and “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING”
2. PM Calls “STANDARD PULLED, ALTITUDE CHECKED”
Descending 1. PF Calls “PUSH QNH” “STATE ALTITUDE PASSING”
2. PM Calls “ QNH PUSHED, ALTITUDE CHECKED

57
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage and what does it ensure?

A

Minimum battery voltage is 25.5 volts which ensures a charge above 50% on the batteries

58
Q

What indications do you get when preforming an engine fire test with AC power?

A
Respective  fire  push  button  light 
Master  Warning  Lights 
FIRE  warning  on  ECAM
CRC (Continuous  Repetitive  Chime) 
SQUIB  and  DISCH  lights  on 
FIRE  light  on  the  ENG  Panel 
*  Push  MASTER  WARN  to  verify  MASTER  WARN  lights  and  CRC  cancel
59
Q

What indication do you get when preforming the APU fire test with AC power?

A
APU  FIRE  push  button
CRC (continuous  repetitive  chime) 
APU  FIRE  warning  on  ECAM 
SQUIB  and  DISCH  light 
Master  Warning  Lights
60
Q

What indications do you have on the APU fire test when you do not have AC power?

A

Half of APU FIRE pushbutton Illuminates

SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate

61
Q

If the brake accumulator pressure is out of the green band, how can it be charged?

A

You can pressurize the the YELLOW HYDRAULIC system by selecting the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump switch to on. DO NOT switch the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump to the on position at the gate without first consulting with the ground crew to make sure everyone is clear of the aircraft.

62
Q

At the gate with the engines off, you turn on the YELLOW ELECTRIC HYDRAULIC pump. Will this action pressurize the GREEN HYDRAULIC system?

A

Yes, the YELLOW ELECTRIC pump will pressurize both the GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system VIA the PTU (Power Transfer Unit) if there is greater than a 500 PSI difference between the YELLOW and GREEN hydraulic systems.

63
Q

How do you preform the Alternate Brake Check?

A

Y ELEC PUMP………. Check Off
CHOCKS …………….. Check Installed
PARKING BRAKE……OFF
BRAKE PEDALS…….. PRESS Apply maximum pressure on both pedals
BRAKE PRESSURE……Check –Pressure build-up should occur symmetrically and without delay on both sides. With full deflection of the brake pedals, pressure MUST be between 2000 and 2700 PSI on the triple indicator gauge.
BRAKE PEDALS………Release
PARKING BRAKE…….On

64
Q

When preforming the Brake check during taxi, the FO announces “Pressure Zero” indicates that GREEN pressure has taken over YELLOW pressure? True or False

A

True, When the Green Hydraulic system is operating normally the Yellow Hydraulic system and the Triple Brake indicator pressure should read ZERO telling the pilots that the Green System is supplying the brakes

65
Q

During single engine taxi, the #2 engine MUST be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to takeoff and why?

A

Start the #2 engine at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff to allow for engine stabilization and to alliviate the risk of THERMAL SHOCK to the engine. This also allows the CENTER FUEL TANK pumps to run for the 2 minutes required prior to takeoff to insure they are operating properly.

66
Q

What temperature and conditions MUST the ENGINE ANTI ICE be turned on and in what phase of f light?

A

ENGINE ANTI ICE must be turned on when there is visible moisture and the OAT/TAT is at or below 10 Degrees C down to -40 Degrees C.
Must be on during ground operations with visible moisture or slush, standing water, ice, or snow present on taxiways and runways
Must be turned on at all times when the aircraft is in a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40 C

67
Q

What is the definition of Ground Icing conditions?

A

Visible moisture
Temperature below 10 degrees C
Visibility less than 1 SM

68
Q

What do the FAC’s do? (Flight Augmentation Computers)

A

Control the Flight Envelope
Generate speed tape symbologies ( Green DOT, S Speed, F Speed)
Windshear Alerts
Low Energy warnings
Yaw Damping, Turn Coordination, Rudder travel limiter

69
Q

In flight, when will the speed brakes be automatically retracted?

A
SEC  1 and  SEC 3 both  have  faults
An  Elevator  (L  or  R)  has  a  fault  (  in  this  case  only  3  &  4  are  inhibited  ) 
Flaps  are  configured  FULL 
Thrust  levers  above  MCT  position 
ALPHA FLOOR  Activation
70
Q

What does centering the BETA TARGET with the Bank Index do?

A

In the event of an engine failure during takeoff or on a Go Around, the sideslip index changes to BLUE. When this index is centered with the roll index, the sideslip equals the sideslip target for optimum performance. ( ENG N1 =/+ 80% with more than a 35% split in N1 Values)

71
Q

If you loose the BLUE hydraulic system fluid, is the RAT still available?

A

It is NOT available to supply the hydraulic or emergency electrical power without hydraulic fluid in the BLUE system.

72
Q

Why should the Captain wait to call for the “After Start” checklist until they visually confirm that the tow bar has been disconnected?

A

Safety reasons flight deck height and viewing area.

73
Q

What color is the “NW STRG DISC” on the ECAM?

A

Green with both engine off

Amber with one or both engines running

74
Q

Do you have Anti-Skid if you loose your “NORMAL” Braking?

A

You might have Anti-Skid during alternate braking provided the ANTI-SKID & N/W STRG switch is on.
The BSCU controls the Anti-Skid through the alternate servo valves

75
Q

What controls the AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUS if both engine driven generators are lost and the airspeed is above 100kts?

A

RAT ( Ram Air Turbine) extends automatically when both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost.
This system supplies power to the AC ESS BUS and the DC ESS BUS through the ESS TR
RAT stalls below 125 KTS and you go down to # 1 PFD and E/WD 100 KTS- DC BATT bus connects
50 KTS- all screens shut off and AC ESS BUS sheds ( VHF #1 Available)

76
Q

What is the MAXIMUM recommended thrust to be used to get the Aircraft to move on the ramp?

A

Not to EXCEED 40% N1, once aircraft starts to move very little thrust is required

77
Q

If the pilot manually tunes a frequency thru the RAD/NAV function, does it affect the Auto-Tuning of the FMGC?

A

It does not affect the automatic function of the FMGC

78
Q

What are the maneuvering speeds on the Airbus? Green Dot, S speed, F speed for selected flap position?

A

Green Dot = L/Dmax (best glide performance, maneuvering speed, LRC)
S Speed = Minimum Slat retraction Speed
F Speed = Minimum Flap retraction speed

79
Q

What should the setting be on RMP 3 (If Installed)?

A

On and STBY NAV lights out. HF and AM lights should also be extinguished

80
Q

Who normally preforms the Engine Fire Warning test on the preliminary set up flow?

A

The First Officer normally preforms these tests, however the Captain can also complete them

81
Q

When do we use Flight Path Vector/Director for approaches?

A

For MANAGED / SELECTED and SELECTED / SELECTED non-precision approaches , the flight path director (TRK-FPA) will be used because it allows the pilot to set the desired FPA for approaches that use selected vertical guidance and enables the FPV (“BIRD”) when the flight directors are turned off for the visual transition to landing.

82
Q

First flight of the Day, Electric System is supplied with AC power, is the BAT Voltage check required?

A

If the ELEC system is supplied with AC power, BAT VOLTAGE check is not required

83
Q

Does BAT 1 & 2 need to be in AUTO for a BAT start of the APU?

A

Yes BAT 1 & 2 need to be in AUTO for APU start

84
Q

During cockpit preparation, turning BAT 1 & 2 off then On, what are we looking for?

A

Turning the batteries off then on with power supplied to the aircraft initiates a charging cycle on the batteries. ECAM ELEC page should show that BAT Amps drop below 60A within 10 seconds and continue to decrease. If not, flight crew MUST wait until the charging cycle of the batteries is completed ( batteries no longer connected to the DC BAT BUS) before preforming the test again.

85
Q

During Engine Start with the TRUST LEVERS out of the IDLE position, will the engines start?

A

Yes the engines will start.. CAUTION must be used because thrust will increase rapidly to the corresponding thrust lever position.

86
Q

After engine start the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mast. What is our action?

A

Run the engine for 5 minutes at idle speed. If the leak disappears in those 5 minutes no further action is required by the flight crew. If the leak is still present after those 5 minutes, maintenance action is required before flight.

87
Q

During Engine Start, Electric power supply is interrupted, what is our action?

A

Abort the start by switching OFF the MASTER switch. Then, preform a 30 second dry crank.

88
Q

Which leading edge devices are ICE protected?

A

The outboard 3 SLATS on each wing are heated ( 3, 4, 5 )

89
Q

Is the Tail ICE protected?

A

No

90
Q

How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0? ( Estimated Position Error )

A

NAV ACCUR HIGH denoted EPE does not exceed appropriate criteria for the procedure. GPS PRIMARY displayed = NAV accuracy check not required

91
Q

If you are preparing for a CAT III B approach and the standby altimeter failed, would if affect your CAT status or your capability in any way?

A

Yes, you would be limited to a CAT I approach

92
Q

Flaps 3 is required for certain abnormal situations. Do you elect Config 3 on the PERF APP page in the FMGC?

A

DO NOT select CONF 3 on the PERF APP page, in order to keep the VLS CONF FULL value displayed on the MCDU.

93
Q

In case of a DUAL ENGINE FAILURE, what actions do you apply first: ECAM or QRH?

A

In the case of a dual engine failure, the crew should preform the ENG DUAL FAILURE -Fuel Remaining QRH or ENG DUAL FAILURE - No Fuel Remaining QRH paper procedures, and then, time permitting, clear ECAM warnings and check the ECAM status page.

94
Q

Explain the following flight modes?

Normal Law

A

Normal Law Ground Mode = Direct Side Stick to Control Movement Side Stick has Full authority over PITCH and ROLL below 70KTS Above 70KTS PITCH goes from 30 UP to 20 UP
Normal Law Flight Mode = Transition happens about 5 sec after takeoff to Landing LOAD Factor Demand Mode Side Stick neutral and wings level, the system maintains 1 G in pitch which alleviates the need for pilot trimming If Roll is Under 33 degrees pilot does not need to make any Pitch changes once the turn is established If Roll is above 33 degrees aircraft will automatically roll back to 33 degrees of bank when side stick input is released AUTOMATIC PITCH TRIM FREEZES Pilot enters a manual Trim Order RA is below 50 FT (100 FT with AP engaged ) Load Factor Below 0.5 G Aircraft is Under High Speed or High Mach Protection ( Limits Pitch to 11 degrees nose up )
Normal flare mode= Flight Mode Changes to FLARE MODE when aircraft passes 50 FT RA as it descends to land Side Stick give you an artificial feel at 30 FT AGL pushes nose forward 2 degrees for 8 seconds to make the pilot pull the stick back to flare.
Normal Law Ground Mode = After Landing Side stick goes back to Direct Side Stick to Control Movement

95
Q

Explain alternate mode?

A

Requires Multiple Failures of redundant Systems Abnormal Upset No ALPHA FLOOR protection
GEAR DOWN AP on = Alternate Law
GEAR DOWN AP Off = Direct Law
ALTERNATE LAW FROM ABNORMAL UPSET
AC goes into Abnormal Attitude Law during recovery After recovery= Alternate Law with Stabilities
Landing Gear down = Alternate Law with Flare Mode on Landing

96
Q

Explain direct law mode?

A

FMA shows = AMBER MANUAL PITCH TRIM ONLY Behaves like a conventional Aircraft No Auto Trim Rudder Pedals required for turn coordination Automatically in DIRECT LAW when gear is down with AP OFF in Alternate Law

97
Q

Explain mechanical backup?

A

FMA shows = RED MANUAL PITCH TRIM ONLY Pitch Control through trim wheel Lateral control through rudder pedals

98
Q

NORMAL LAW PROTECTIONS (BYPALS)

A

BANK = Maximum of 67 Degrees Bank ( GREEN = Sign at 67 Degrees)
YAW = Turn Coordination and Yaw Damping provided
PITCH = 20 - 30 Degrees nose up pitch depending on SPEED and CONFIG and 15 degrees nose down protection (GREEN = Sign at 20-30 UP / 15 DOWN )
ANGLE OF ATTACK = Vls (LOWEST SELECTABLE ) Auto Flight active or ALPHA PROTECTION, ALPHA FLOOR (Auto Thrust Function) or ALPHA MAX
LOAD = -1 G - +2.5 G Clean CONFIG is the Max Aircraft will let you do and 0 G - +2.0 G FLAPS OUT is MAX G FORCE Aircraft will let you reach
SPEED = High Speed Protection = Vmo + 6KTS / Mmo + .01 MACH and Full down Side Stick deflection limits you to Vmo + 30KTS / Mmo + .07 MACH

99
Q

ALTERNATE LAW PROTECTIONS (BYPALS)

A

BANK = NO Bank angle Protections provided indicated by a AMBER “X” at 67 Degrees of bank
YAW = YAW DAMPING ONLY, NO turn coordination provided
PITCH = NO Pitch Protections provided indicated by a AMBER “X” at 15 Down / 30 UP
ANGLE OF ATTACK = No Protections, Aircraft will give you a Vstall Warning “STALL,STALL,STALL”
LOAD = -1 G - +2.5 G Clean CONFIG is the Max Aircraft will let you do and 0 G - +2.0 G FLAPS OUT is MAX G FORCE Aircraft will let you reach
SPEED = No HIGH speed protections, It will Limit Vmax by dropping the Vmo / Mmo

100
Q

DIRECT LAW PROTECTION (BYPALS)

A

BANK =NO Bank angle Protections provided indicated by a AMBER “X” at 67 Degrees of bank
YAW = MECHANICAL RUDDER
PITCH = NO Pitch Protections provided indicated by a AMBER “X” at 15 Down / 30 UP
ANGLE OF ATTACK =No Protections, Aircraft will give you a Vstall Warning “STALL,STALL,STALL”
LOAD = NO Protections
SPEED = NO High Speed Protections

101
Q

ALPHA PROT ( HIGH ANGLE OFF ATTACK PROTECTION )

A

If the angle of attack becomes greater than ALPHA PROT, the system switches the elevator control from normal mode to a protection mode in which AOA is proportional to side stick deflection. In the ALPHA PROT range to ALPHA MAX the side stick commands AOA directly but the AOA will not exceed ALPHA MAX even if the pilot gently pulls the side stick all the way back. If the pilot releases the side stick the AOA returns to ALPHA PROT and stays there.
BANK = 45 Degrees
MAX AUTO PILOT = Disconnected Automatically SPEED BRAKES = Retract Automatically
ANGLE OF ATTACK = Demand on the Side Stick = Protects you from Stalling the Aircraft ( AOA is proportional to Side Stick Deflection )
PITCH = UP trim Inhibited

102
Q

Alpha Max

A

Stall range and the aircraft maintains that airspeed and automatically adds power and/or nose down pitch to protect against a stall

103
Q

ALPHA FLOOR

A

Normally occurs at a predetermined AOA between ALPHA PROT and ALPHA MAX, engages the Auto Thrust system.
TO/GA thrust is provided regardless of the thrust lever position. Available from liftoff to 100 FT RA before landing

104
Q

DEACTIVATION OF AOA PROTECTION, PILOT MUST

A

Push the Side Stick more than 8 degrees forward
Push the Side Stick more than 0.5 degrees forward for more than .5 sec if actual AOA is LESS than ALPHA MAX
A320, less than half-nose up and the actual AOA is less than ALPHA PROT -2 degrees
A319, Side Stick deflection less than half nose up and actual AOA less than ALPHA PROT - 2 degrees

105
Q

ALPHA LOCK

A

Inhibits Slats retraction at high angles of attack and low speeds Active when AOA exceeds 8.6 degrees UP or Airspeed falls below 148KTS
Inhibition Removed when, AOA falls below 7.6 Nose Up and or speed exceeds 154 KTS

106
Q

THRUST LOCK

A

Activated when:
Thrust levers in CL Detent ( or MCT detent with one Engine Out ) and Pilot pushes the A/THR pushbutton on FCU or the A/THR disconnect due to a failure
To get out of Thrust lock the pilot must move thrust levers out of CL or MCT. This suppresses Thrust Lock and gives the pilot manual control with the thrust levers.

107
Q

Is ALPHA FLOOR available in Alternate or Direct Law?

A

No Alpha Floor protections in inoperative in both Alternate and Direct Law

108
Q

How do you get out of TOGA LOCK that is triggered by ALPHA FLOOR?

A

To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LOCK thrust: Disconnect the auto thrust

109
Q

Explain Ground Speed MINI?

A

Ground speed mini takes advantage of the the aircraft inertia when the wind conditions vary during the approach. It does so by providing the crew with an adequate indicated speed target. When the aircraft flies this speed target, the energy of the aircraft is maintained above a minimum level ensuring standard aerodynamic margins against a stall.
During the approach the FMGS continuously compute the speed target using the wind experienced by the aircraft, in order to keep the ground speed at or above the “Ground Speed Mini”
Lowest target speed Is limited to Vapp and its upper limit is Vfe next CONFIG
Essentially Ground Speed Mini calculates for actual wind gusts experienced on the approach to maintain a constant speed over the ground on the approach to keep the aircrafts energy at a constant level. This eliminates the need to compute gust factor into Vapp numbers as the aircraft automatically does this for you when using “Ground Speed Mini”

110
Q

When does the battery connect to the electrical system?

A

When the batteries need to be charged the BAT Contactors automatically close allowing them to charge.
When charging is complete they disconnect themselves
When the battery is the soul source of electrical power they automatically connect
Batteries automatically conned during APU starts

111
Q

What is the purpose of the DFDR Button?

A

Marks the FDR tape for an event that you feel needs to be seen by MX

112
Q

What is the significants of a GREEN circuit breaker?

A

System that is monitored by the ECAM

113
Q

What is the significants of a BLACk circuit breaker?

A

System is not monitored by ECAM

114
Q

What is the significants of a RED circuit breaker?

A

DO NOT RESET

115
Q

What happens when you turn the Engine Mode control to IGNITION?

A
Turns  on  FADEC
ARMS  Engine  Master  Switches 
ARMS  Manual  Start  Switches 
Brings  up  Engine  page  on  ECAM  SD 
Closes  Pack  Valves
116
Q

What conditions must be met to ARM the AUTO THRUST?

A

Need at least one Flight Director
Thrust Lever Needs to be in CL Detent
A/THR is ARMED at FLEX/MCT or higher

117
Q

What sections of the engines do the Fire Loops monitor?

A

Pylon, Core, and Nacelle

2 LOOPS A & B BOTH HAVE TO AGREE ON INDICATION TO GIVE YOU A FIRE WARNING

118
Q

What happens when the pilot pushes the Engine fire Pushbutton ( 2-1-2-1-2)

A

ARMS Squib / CRC Silenced
Closes HYD FIRE shutoff valve
Closes LP Fuel Valve and Closes IDG Return Valve (De-energizes FADEC)
De-Activates Generator
Closes Engine Bleed Valve and Pack Valve

119
Q

What happens when the pilot pushes the APU fire Pushbutton? (2-0-2-1-2)

A

ARMS Squib / CRC Silenced
NO HYD
Closes LP Fuel Valve and Shuts down APU Fuel Pump
De-Activevates APU Generator
Closes APU Bleed Valve and X Bleed Valve

120
Q

What BIG systems are on the GREEN HYD Pump?

A

Nose-wheel Steering
Landing Gear Extension/Retraction
Reverser #1
Normal / Auto-brakes

121
Q

What BIG systems are on the YELLOW HYD Pump?

A

Nose-wheel Steering (Some Airplanes)
Parking and Alternate Brakes
Reverser #2
Cargo Doors

122
Q

When does the PTU run?

A

It runs with a difference of 500 PSI between the YELLOW and GREEN HYD Systems

123
Q

When Is the PTU Inhibited?

A

During 1st Engine Start
Mis-Match of Engine master switches
Parking Brake set
Nose-wheel steering disconnect pin installed
Cargo door operations (inhibited for 40seconds )

124
Q

When are the WING TIP BRAKES Active?

A
Runaway  situation  (  flap  or  slat  continuing  past  selected  position  ) 
Flap  Asymmetry 
Flap  Overspeed  (  Flaps  Moving  TOO  Fast  ) 
Un-commanded  Flap  or  Stat  Movement
125
Q

Class I Mx message

A

Affects this leg (ECAM)

126
Q

Level 1 ECAM

A

Failure of a redundant system (minor)
Amber ECAM message (crew awareness)
NO Master Caution Annunciator
NO Aural Alert

127
Q

Level 2 ECAM

A

Failure of one or more redundant systems
Amber ECAM message (crew awareness)
Master Caution Annunciator
Aural Alert (single chime)

128
Q

Level 3 ECAM

A

Loss of major or multiple major systems
Red ECAM message (immediate action / attention)
Master Warning Annunciator
Aural Alert CRC (continuous repetitive chime)

129
Q

Class II MX Message

A

May affect next leg
Flashing “STS” message on E/WD
Always written up
Shows up after shutdown and shown for 5 minutes

130
Q

Underlined ECAM action

A

Independent failure

131
Q

Boxed ECAM Item

A

Primary failure
* represents a secondary failure / a failure of a system as a result of another systems failure from the ECAM actions

132
Q

If you see white lines across the Captains PFD, ND and E/WD, what does it mean?

A

This indicates a failure of DMC #1 and the Captains PFD, ND and E/WD can be restored by selecting the EIS DMC switch on the center pedestal to CAPT 3

133
Q

What procedures should be followed when operating in high humidity and heavy rain environments?

A

When the aircraft is parked on the ground during heavy rain or in high humidity conditions, the EXTRACT FAN should be placed in OVRD. A PACKS ON / APU BLEED ON takeoff should be planned using PACKS OFF performance data.
Placing the EXTRAC FAN to the OVRD position closes the avionics ventilation system, preventing rainwater/moisture from entering the avionics compartment.
Leaving the Pack 1 & 2 powered by the APU bleed adds air from the air conditioning system to ventilation air allowing the avionics compartment to be cooled in the closed configuration on the ground when needed.

134
Q

What happens when you turn the APU MASTER switch on?

A

Power the ECB (Electronic Control Box)
Pressurizing the APU fuel pump if required
Opens APU Flap / Inlet
Brings up APU ECAM Page

135
Q

What Automatically Inhibits the PTU?

A

Engine Master switches mismatched with parking brake set Engine Master switches mismatched with tow pin installed During cargo door operations

136
Q

What items are checked when the pilot presses the T.O Config test?

A
Rudder  Trim  in  T/O  range 
Pitch  Trim  in  T/O  range 
Flaps  in  T/O  range 
Speed  Brakes  retracted 
Slats  in  T/O  range 
L  or  R  side  stick  faults 
Door 
Hot  Brakes
137
Q

When does the “T.O INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?

A

It appears when the first engine reaches T.O Power and remains active until the aircraft reaches 1500ft or 2 minutes after lift off which ever comes first.
This inhibits the aircraft from distracting the pilot with anything other than critical failures during high workload phases of flight

138
Q

When does the “LDG INHIBIT” appear on the ECAM?

A

It appears at 800ft on landing and remains active until the aircraft slows to below 80kts on the runway after landing.