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AOP3 Final > Vision > Flashcards

Vision Flashcards

1
Q

Which visual dysfunction is commonly associated with a right hemisphere stroke?
A) Hemianopsia
B) Diplopia
C) Cortical blindness
D) Oculomotor nerve palsy

A

A) Hemianopsia
Explanation: A right hemisphere stroke often causes left-sided visual field loss (hemianopsia).

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2
Q

Which assessment is most appropriate for evaluating visual-perceptual deficits post-CVA?
A) Mini-Mental State Examination
B) Clock Drawing Test
C) Berg Balance Scale
D) Canadian Occupational Performance Measure

A

Answer: B) Clock Drawing Test
Explanation: The Clock Drawing Test is effective for assessing visual-perceptual deficits

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3
Q

Diplopia after CNS disturbance is best addressed initially by:
A) Patching one eye
B) Prescription of prism glasses
C) Teaching compensatory head movements
D) Surgical correction

A

Answer: A) Patching one eye
Explanation: Temporarily patching one eye can reduce diplopia and improve function.

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4
Q

What is the primary goal of OT interventions for visual dysfunction post-CNS disturbance?
A) Restore 20/20 vision
B) Address underlying cognitive impairments
C) Maximize functional use of vision
D) Promote full neurological recovery

A

Answer: C) Maximize functional use of vision
Explanation: OTs focus on improving the functional use of remaining visual abilities.

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5
Q

A client reports difficulty reading due to blurry vision post-CNS injury. What should the OT suspect?
A) Strabismus
B) Accommodative insufficiency
C) Optic neuritis
D) Visual field neglect

A

Answer: B) Accommodative insufficiency
Explanation: Accommodative insufficiency results in difficulty focusing on near tasks like reading.

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6
Q

The most common visual deficit following traumatic brain injury (TBI) is:
A) Visual field loss
B) Nystagmus
C) Diplopia
D) Photophobia

A

Answer: A) Visual field loss
Explanation: Visual field loss is prevalent due to the brain’s extensive visual pathways.

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7
Q

Which strategy is most effective for managing visual field deficits in daily tasks?
A) Bright lighting
B) Anchoring techniques
C) Use of tinted lenses
D) Increasing font size

A

Answer: B) Anchoring techniques
Explanation: Anchoring helps clients compensate for visual field deficits during reading and navigation.

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8
Q

Visual scanning training is most appropriate for clients with:
A) Cortical blindness
B) Homonymous hemianopsia
C) Convergence insufficiency
D) Cranial nerve palsy

A

Answer: B) Homonymous hemianopsia
Explanation: Visual scanning helps clients compensate for lost visual fields.

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9
Q

What intervention can improve functional performance for a client with diplopia?
A) Eye movement exercises
B) Contrast enhancement
C) Visual scanning strategies
D) Use of auditory cues

A

Answer: A) Eye movement exercises
Explanation: Exercises can help improve binocular vision coordination.

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10
Q

A client with CNS disturbance reports difficulty driving due to peripheral vision loss. What should the OT recommend?
A) Referral for a driving assessment
B) Restriction of driving
C) Use of magnifiers
D) Bright overhead lighting

A

Answer: A) Referral for a driving assessment
Explanation: A driving assessment evaluates safety and adaptations for visual deficits.

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11
Q

Which environmental modification is most beneficial for someone with photophobia post-TBI?
A) Use of blinds to control natural light
B) Installing high-lumen light bulbs
C) Using brightly colored furniture
D) Increasing screen brightness

A

Answer: A) Use of blinds to control natural light
Explanation: Blinds help manage light levels to reduce discomfort from photophobia.

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12
Q

Which test evaluates oculomotor control post-CNS injury?
A) Convergence test
B) Snellen chart
C) Humphrey visual field test
D) Visual evoked potential test

A

Answer: A) Convergence test
Explanation: The convergence test assesses oculomotor control and binocular vision

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13
Q

A client with homonymous hemianopsia often has difficulty with:
A) Depth perception
B) Recognizing faces
C) Detecting objects in one visual field
D) Adjusting to light changes

A

Answer: C) Detecting objects in one visual field
Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia affects one side of the visual field.

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14
Q

The Brock String exercise is used for improving:
A) Visual field loss
B) Visual scanning
C) Ocular alignment and convergence
D) Light sensitivity

A

Answer: C) Ocular alignment and convergence
Explanation: The Brock String helps with binocular vision and convergence issues.

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15
Q

Which intervention is most appropriate for a client with visual neglect?
A) Environmental modifications
B) Teaching compensatory scanning techniques
C) Providing auditory cues
D) Using prism glasses

A

Answer: B) Teaching compensatory scanning techniques
Explanation: Scanning techniques train the client to become aware of the neglected field.

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16
Q

A client struggles to read due to difficulty maintaining focus on text. The OT should suspect:
A) Diplopia
B) Accommodative insufficiency
C) Hemianopsia
D) Visual neglect

A

Answer: B) Accommodative insufficiency
Explanation: Difficulty focusing on near objects indicates accommodative issues.

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17
Q

The primary goal of using prism glasses in OT is to:
A) Correct refractive errors
B) Shift the visual field for compensation
C) Reduce light sensitivity
D) Improve eye convergence

A

Answer: B) Shift the visual field for compensation
Explanation: Prism glasses redirect the visual field, aiding clients with field deficits.

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18
Q

Which strategy is most effective for reducing clutter for clients with visual impairments?
A) Bright, contrasting colors
B) Minimized patterns and objects in the environment
C) Task lighting
D) Increasing screen resolution

A

Answer: B) Minimized patterns and objects in the environment
Explanation: A clean, uncluttered environment helps focus on essential items.

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19
Q

Which visual impairment results from damage to the cranial nerves controlling eye movements?
A) Hemianopsia
B) Nystagmus
C) Oculomotor palsy
D) Cortical blindness

A

Answer: C) Oculomotor palsy
Explanation: Oculomotor palsy affects eye movements controlled by cranial nerves.

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20
Q

A client reports difficulty seeing objects in low light conditions post-TBI. What is the probable cause?
A) Retinitis pigmentosa
B) Decreased contrast sensitivity
C) Visual neglect
D) Cortical blindness

A

Answer: B) Decreased contrast sensitivity
Explanation: Contrast sensitivity affects the ability to see in low light or distinguish objects.

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21
Q

What is a primary compensatory strategy for clients with macular degeneration?
A) Use of peripheral vision
B) Using a magnifying glass
C) Improving central fixation
D) Wearing dark glasses indoors

A

Answer: A) Use of peripheral vision
Explanation: Clients with macular degeneration rely on peripheral vision for tasks.

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22
Q

A client post-CVA experiences disorientation when navigating their home. The OT should address:
A) Spatial awareness
B) Color blindness
C) Light sensitivity
D) Depth perception

A

Answer: A) Spatial awareness
Explanation: Disorientation often results from impaired spatial processing.

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23
Q

Which intervention is most effective for teaching a client with low vision to locate objects?
A) Auditory feedback
B) Eccentric viewing techniques
C) Increase in screen brightness
D) Simplifying the environment

A

Answer: B) Eccentric viewing techniques
Explanation: Eccentric viewing uses unaffected areas of the visual field.

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24
Q

OTs working with cortical blindness should focus on:
A) Environmental adaptations
B) Sensory substitution strategies
C) Vision restoration therapy
D) Medication management

A

Answer: B) Sensory substitution strategies
Explanation: These strategies compensate for visual loss using other senses.

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25
Q

Which condition involves rapid, involuntary eye movements?
A) Diplopia
B) Hemianopsia
C) Nystagmus
D) Strabismus

A

Answer: C) Nystagmus
Explanation: Nystagmus involves rhythmic oscillations of the eyes.

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26
Q

Which visual impairment is characterized by difficulty perceiving depth?
A) Cortical blindness
B) Strabismus
C) Depth perception deficit
D) Visual field cut

A

Answer: C) Depth perception deficit
Explanation: Depth perception deficits impair the ability to judge distances accurately.

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27
Q

Visual closure is essential for which functional task?
A) Identifying an incomplete object
B) Scanning the environment
C) Following a moving target
D) Adjusting to light changes

A

Answer: A) Identifying an incomplete object
Explanation: Visual closure is the ability to identify an object when part of it is missing.

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28
Q

Which of the following is a restorative intervention for visual field deficits?
A) Auditory cues
B) Light filters
C) Scanning exercises
D) Using a guide dog

A

Answer: C) Scanning exercises
Explanation: Scanning exercises help improve awareness of the impaired visual field.

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29
Q

Which condition involves loss of vision due to damage in the occipital lobe?
A) Hemianopsia
B) Cortical blindness
C) Diplopia
D) Nystagmus

A

Answer: B) Cortical blindness
Explanation: Cortical blindness results from damage to the visual cortex, not the eyes.

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30
Q

A client frequently bumps into objects on one side. This behavior is likely due to:
A) Diplopia
B) Visual neglect
C) Convergence insufficiency
D) Optic nerve damage

A

Answer: B) Visual neglect
Explanation: Visual neglect involves inattention to one side of the body or environment.

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31
Q

Which activity would best assess saccadic eye movements?
A) Reading a paragraph aloud
B) Following a moving target
C) Looking quickly between two stationary objects
D) Identifying shapes in a complex background

A

Answer: C) Looking quickly between two stationary objects
Explanation: Saccadic movements are rapid eye movements between two points. Key word: quickly

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32
Q

What adaptation can help a client with low vision manage medication independently?
A) Bright task lighting
B) Large-print medication labels
C) Audio instructions
D) All of the above

A

Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Multiple strategies can support medication management for clients with low vision.

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33
Q

The OT observes a client struggling to locate objects on a cluttered table. This indicates:
A) Visual inattention
B) Impaired figure-ground perception
C) Depth perception deficit
D) Accommodative insufficiency

A

Answer: B) Impaired figure-ground perception
Explanation: Figure-ground perception is the ability to distinguish objects from the background.

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34
Q

A common symptom of cranial nerve III (oculomotor) palsy is:
A) Diplopia
B) Photophobia
C) Nystagmus
D) Blurred peripheral vision

A

Answer: A) Diplopia
Explanation: Cranial nerve III palsy often leads to double vision

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35
Q

Which compensatory strategy is most helpful for clients with central vision loss?
A) Eccentric viewing
B) Contrast-enhanced backgrounds
C) Scanning training
D) Increased peripheral lighting

A

Answer: A) Eccentric viewing
Explanation: Eccentric viewing uses unaffected peripheral areas of the retina.

36
Q

A client with CNS disturbance reports headaches and blurred vision after reading. What might the OT suspect?
A) Accommodative insufficiency
B) Visual neglect
C) Homonymous hemianopsia
D) Cortical blindness

A

Answer: A) Accommodative insufficiency
Explanation: This condition often results in difficulty maintaining focus on near tasks.

37
Q

Which technique helps clients with visual neglect become aware of the neglected side?
A) Limb activation therapy
B) Visual scanning training
C) Prism adaptation
D) All of the above

A

Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Multiple techniques can increase awareness of the neglected side.

38
Q

Visual tracking exercises are most appropriate for improving:
A) Saccadic movements
B) Binocular vision
C) Smooth pursuit movements
D) Depth perception

A

Answer: C) Smooth pursuit movements
Explanation: Visual tracking focuses on following a moving target.

39
Q

Which activity best assesses depth perception?
A) Threading a needle
B) Catching a ball
C) Reading a book
D) Sorting colored blocks

A

Answer: B) Catching a ball
Explanation: Catching a ball requires accurate judgment of distance and depth.

40
Q

Which is a hallmark symptom of optic neuritis?
A) Temporary vision loss
B) Persistent double vision
C) Gradual loss of peripheral vision
D) Blurred vision in both eyes

A

Answer: A) Temporary vision loss
Explanation: Optic neuritis often causes sudden, temporary loss of vision in one eye.

41
Q

The OT recommends high-contrast labels for a client. This intervention is addressing:
A) Depth perception
B) Figure-ground discrimination
C) Contrast sensitivity
D) Accommodative insufficiency

A

Answer: C) Contrast sensitivity
Explanation: High-contrast labels improve visibility for individuals with reduced contrast sensitivity.

42
Q

A client with TBI complains of difficulty focusing on near and far objects alternately. This suggests:
A) Diplopia
B) Convergence insufficiency
C) Accommodation disorder
D) Visual field loss

A

Answer: C) Accommodation disorder
Explanation: Accommodation disorder affects the ability to switch focus between distances.

43
Q

Which intervention helps reduce dizziness caused by visual stimuli post-CNS injury?
A) Gradual exposure therapy
B) Task-specific training
C) Environmental simplification
D) Prism glasses

A

Answer: A) Gradual exposure therapy
Explanation: Gradual exposure can help desensitize clients to motion-related visual stimuli.

44
Q

Which visual skill is primarily tested by the Snellen chart?
A) Peripheral vision
B) Visual acuity
C) Depth perception
D) Visual scanning

A

Answer: B) Visual acuity
Explanation: The Snellen chart measures clarity of vision (acuity).

45
Q

Which symptom suggests convergence insufficiency in a client?
A) Double vision during reading
B) Difficulty tracking moving objects
C) Decreased peripheral vision
D) Loss of vision in one eye

A

Answer: A) Double vision during reading
Explanation: Convergence insufficiency often causes difficulty with close work, leading to diplopia.

46
Q

Which intervention improves binocular vision in clients with oculomotor deficits?
A) Patching one eye
B) Vision therapy exercises
C) Increasing contrast
D) Anchoring techniques

A

Answer: B) Vision therapy exercises
Explanation: These exercises strengthen binocular coordination.

47
Q

What tool is used to evaluate visual field deficits?
A) Snellen chart
B) Humphrey Visual Field Analyzer
C) Brock String
D) Contrast sensitivity chart

A

Answer: B) Humphrey Visual Field Analyzer
Explanation: This tool maps visual field loss in detail.

48
Q

An OT uses tactile markers on appliances for a client. This intervention compensates for:
A) Depth perception deficits
B) Visual acuity loss
C) Visual field loss
D) Cortical blindness

A

Answer: D) Cortical blindness
Explanation: Tactile markers compensate for the inability to rely on visual cues.

49
Q

A client post-CNS injury is confused by visual clutter. The OT should recommend:
A) Simplifying the environment
B) Wearing dark sunglasses
C) Using task lighting
D) Adding bright patterns

A

Answer: A) Simplifying the environment
Explanation: Reducing clutter helps clients with visual processing deficits focus on relevant tasks.

50
Q

Which therapy would address light sensitivity (photophobia) post-TBI?
A) Gradual exposure to light
B) Visual scanning training
C) Eye patching
D) Binocular vision training

A

Answer: A) Gradual exposure to light
Explanation: Gradual exposure therapy helps desensitize the client to bright light.

51
Q

Which visual system process is most critical for understanding a three-dimensional scene and performing tasks like pouring water into a glass?

A) Monocular vision
B) Depth perception (stereopsis)
C) Topographic orientation
D) Figure-ground discrimination

A

B) Depth perception (stereopsis)

52
Q

Which of the following individuals would likely experience challenges with depth perception?

A) Someone with 20/20 vision
B) Someone living with monocular vision or strabismus
C) Someone with ideational apraxia
D) Someone with impaired topographic orientation

A

B) Someone living with monocular vision or strabismus

53
Q

Which task relies heavily on the ability to process spatial relations?

A) Identifying a white napkin on a white table
B) Applying toothpaste to a toothbrush
C) Learning new routes
D) Dressing your right arm first

A

B) Applying toothpaste to a toothbrush

54
Q

What should be ruled out when assessing challenges with spatial relations?

A) Ideational and motor apraxia
B) Depth perception difficulties
C) Decreased visual acuity
D) Memory impairments

A

A) Ideational and motor apraxia

55
Q

A client struggles with following directions like “Dress your right arm first.” This indicates difficulty with:

A) Spatial relations
B) Right/left discrimination
C) Depth perception
D) Topographic orientation

A

B) Right/left discrimination

56
Q

When assessing right/left discrimination issues, what must be differentiated?

A) Personal vs. extrapersonal confusion
B) Motor vs. ideational apraxia
C) Binocular vs. monocular vision
D) Topographic orientation impairments

A

A) Personal vs. extrapersonal confusion

57
Q

What ability does topographic orientation primarily support?

A) Using binocular vision to perceive depth
B) Distinguishing objects from their background
C) Wayfinding or route finding
D) Identifying the right and left sides of the body

A

C) Wayfinding or route finding

58
Q

Which task requires intact topographic orientation?

A) Applying toothpaste to a toothbrush
B) Learning new routes
C) Pouring water into a glass
D) Dressing your right arm first

A

B) Learning new routes

59
Q

Difficulty locating a white napkin on a white table indicates a problem with:

A) Depth perception
B) Figure-ground discrimination
C) Right/left discrimination
D) Topographic orientation

A

B) Figure-ground discrimination

60
Q

Which condition should be ruled out when figure-ground discrimination problems are suspected?

A) Decreased visual acuity
B) Right/left discrimination
C) Ideational apraxia
D) Depth perception deficits

A

A) Decreased visual acuity

61
Q

What is the most effective approach when teaching dressing skills to someone with spatial impairments?

A) Use spatial-based language like “left” or “right” frequently.
B) Focus on verbal descriptions and reduce spatial-based language.
C) Provide only visual demonstrations without verbal descriptions.
D) Avoid giving any feedback during dressing tasks.

A

B) Focus on verbal descriptions and reduce spatial-based language.

62
Q

How should a therapist address a client wearing a shirt backward?

A) Tell the client exactly what they did wrong.
B) Start with a general cue like, “Are you sure you are finished?”
C) Avoid giving any cues.
D) Physically adjust the shirt for them without explaining.

A

B) Start with a general cue like, “Are you sure you are finished?”

63
Q

Which type of clothing is easier for someone with spatial impairments to orient correctly?

A) A monochromatic T-shirt.
B) A baseball jersey with different colored sleeves.
C) A plain white T-shirt.
D) Any shirt with no labels or decals.

A

B) A baseball jersey with different colored sleeves.

64
Q

Where should the therapist position themselves during dressing training to help with spatial orientation?

A) In front of the client.
B) Next to and parallel to the client.
C) Behind the client.
D) Across the room for observation.

A

B) Next to and parallel to the client.

65
Q

What tool can be used to help a client with spatial impairments follow the sequence of dressing?

A) A monochromatic shirt.
B) An audiotape providing verbal cues.
C) A mirror to observe their actions.
D) A written checklist.

A

B) An audiotape providing verbal cues.

66
Q

What tactile strategy can improve accuracy when reaching for objects during meal preparation?

A) Rely on visual identification of objects.
B) Slide the hand across the counter to locate objects.
C) Use random movements to find the object.
D) Avoid tactile feedback entirely.

A

B) Slide the hand across the counter to locate objects.

67
Q

How can foreground and background discrimination be improved in the kitchen?

A) Use dark dishes on a dark counter.
B) Decrease clutter and keep drawers organized.
C) Avoid contrasting colors.
D) Place all objects randomly for variety.

A

B) Decrease clutter and keep drawers organized.

68
Q

What strategy is recommended for someone having difficulty identifying ingredients?

A) Place ingredients in unlabeled containers.
B) Label or color code difficult-to-recognize items.
C) Rely only on visual cues to find ingredients.
D) Avoid organizing items in a consistent place.

A

B) Label or color code difficult-to-recognize items.

69
Q

Which tactile cue is useful before pouring liquid into a measuring cup?

A) Pour without checking the cup’s orientation.
B) Use touch to find the lip of the cup before pouring.
C) Focus only on visual alignment.
D) Pour quickly to minimize errors.

A

B) Use touch to find the lip of the cup before pouring.

70
Q

What environmental modification can ease spatial localization in the kitchen?

A) Use colored tape on the refrigerator handle and stove controls.
B) Remove labels from appliances.
C) Change the location of cooking equipment regularly.
D) Avoid using tactile or visual aids.

A

A) Use colored tape on the refrigerator handle and stove controls.

71
Q

What is the proper setup for testing distance visual acuity using a Snellen chart?

A) Place the chart 10 ft away in a dimly lit room.
B) Position the chart 20 ft away at the client’s eye level in a well-lit room.
C) Use the chart without specific distance requirements.
D) Place the chart at arm’s length in any lighting condition.

A

B) Position the chart 20 ft away at the client’s eye level in a well-lit room.

72
Q

What functional issues might indicate problems during distance visual acuity testing?

A) Poor concentration and visual fatigue
B) Excellent visual performance at all distances
C) Clear vision but reduced peripheral awareness
D) Delayed tactile feedback

A

A) Poor concentration and visual fatigue

73
Q

During saccade testing, how far should the tongue depressors be held from the client’s face?

A) 8 inches
B) 16 inches
C) 24 inches
D) 4 inches

A

B) 16 inches

74
Q

What are the functional implications of poor saccadic performance?

A) Difficulty reading and writing
B) Enhanced concentration and attention
C) Reduced peripheral vision
D) Improved visual acuity

A

Answer: A) Difficulty reading and writing

75
Q

What should the client focus on during the confrontation test?

A) The examiner’s finger
B) The examiner’s nose
C) The edge of the dowel
D) The floor

A

B) The examiner’s nose

76
Q

Which functional implication requires a referral after visual field testing?

A) No missed visual cues during testing
B) Visual acuity poorer than 20/40
C) Accurate identification of peripheral cues
D) Smooth eye movements without fatigue

A

B) Visual acuity poorer than 20/40

77
Q

At what distance should the near acuity chart be held?

A) 10 inches
B) 16 inches
C) 20 inches
D) 24 inches

A

B) 16 inches

78
Q

What is recorded during near visual acuity testing?

A) The largest text size the client reads incorrectly
B) The smallest text size the client reads correctly
C) The distance at which double vision occurs
D) The speed of reading the text

A

B) The smallest text size the client reads correctly

79
Q

What pattern should the therapist use when testing ocular mobility?

A) A vertical line pattern
B) A large H and O pattern
C) A diagonal zigzag pattern
D) A small circle pattern

A

B) A large H and O pattern

80
Q

What are potential functional implications of impaired ocular mobility?

A) Enhanced visual focus
B) Difficulty with reading, writing, and spatial orientation during walking
C) Reduced peripheral visual field
D) Improved stereopsis

A

B) Difficulty with reading, writing, and spatial orientation during walking

81
Q

When performing the near point of convergence test, when should double vision occur?

A) 6-8 inches from the eyes
B) 2-4 inches from the eyes
C) At the start of the test
D) Only at the recovery point

A

B) 2-4 inches from the eyes

82
Q

What is a normal recovery distance to single vision after double vision occurs?

A) 1-2 inches
B) 4-6 inches
C) 8-10 inches
D) 12 inches

A

B) 4-6 inches

83
Q

What does a person with normal stereopsis see during the random dot test?

A) A blank box in all quadrants
B) Shapes like a square, circle, and E in specific quadrants
C) A random collection of lines
D) No identifiable shapes

A

B) Shapes like a square, circle, and E in specific quadrants

84
Q

How is amplitude of accommodation calculated?

A) Divide the client’s age by 40
B) Subtract one-third the client’s age from 18
C) Multiply the client’s age by 18
D) Divide 18 by the client’s age

A

B) Subtract one-third the client’s age from 18

85
Q

What functional issues may arise from poor accommodation?

A) Enhanced ability to focus on nearby objects
B) Difficulty identifying details during near tasks
C) Reduced sensitivity to color contrast
D) Increased fatigue during physical activity

A

B) Difficulty identifying details during near tasks

AOP3 Final (7 decks)

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