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Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

What are the RNA enveloped viruses?

A 
Orthomyxovirus
Paramyxovirus - para of M's (mumps and measles)
Arbovirus
Rhabdovirus
Retrovirus
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2
Q

What are the RNA naked viruses?

A

cpR

calicivirus
picoRNAvirus
reovirus

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3
Q

What type of genetic makeup is orthomyxovirus?

A

ssRNA that is segmented

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4
Q

What are the four segmented viruses?

A

BOAR

Bunyaviridae
Orthomyxovirus (contains influenza)
Arenaviridae
Reoviridae

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5
Q

How are influenza viruses classified?

A

based on their nucleocapsid antigens

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6
Q

How is influenza spread?

A

respiratory droplets

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7
Q

After an influenza infection which microorganism can lead to fatalities due to post influenzal complications?

A

staph aureus

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8
Q

What is the most common influenza?

A

Influenza A

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9
Q

What does the ability of influenza A to cause epidemics depend on?

A

antigenic changes in the hemagglutinin and neuroaminidase

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10
Q

What are the two types of changes in a virus or bacteria?

A

antigenic shift

antigenic drift

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11
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

major changes based on reassortment of genome pieces

This leads to new surface molecules (change in the envelope)

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12
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

minor changes based on random mutations

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13
Q

What is the treatment for influenza A

A

Amantidine/ Rimantidine

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14
Q

What does amantidine do?

A

inhibits replication of influenza A by interfering with viral attachement and uncoating. It is effective in prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A.

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15
Q

what disease can lead to Reyes syndrome if you take aspirin?

A

Influenza A

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16
Q

What virus comes from parainfluenza virus?

A

paramyxovirus

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17
Q

What diseases come from paramyxovirus?

A

parainfluenza virus
RSV
Mumps
Measles

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18
Q

What type of genome is paramyxovirus?

A

ssRNA

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19
Q

What is syncytia formation?

A

The disease induces cells to form multinuceated giant cells.

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20
Q

What is a virus that can lead to syncytia formation?

A

paramyxovirus

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21
Q

How is parainfluenza transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets and direct contact

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22
Q

What is a common symptom of parainfluenza?

A

Croup (acute laryngotracheobronchitis) and pneumonia in children

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23
Q

What treatment is there for paramyxovirus?

A

There is none

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24
Q

What is RSV?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

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25
Q

What population is prone to getting RSV?

A

infants

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26
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia and bronchiolitis in infants?

A

RSV

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27
Q

Which is the only paramyxovirus that lacks the glycoproteins hemagglutinin and neuroaminadase (surface spikes)

A

RSV

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28
Q

What is the treatment of RSV?

A

ribavarin

CRibavarin for babies

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29
Q

How are mumps transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

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30
Q

What are common symptoms for mumps?

A

parotitis (unilateral or bilateral) and orchitis

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31
Q

What is Rubeola?

A

Measles

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32
Q

How is Rubeola transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

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33
Q

what are common symptoms of rubeola?

A

Koplik’s spots in the oral cavity

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34
Q

What are koplik’s spots?

A

small, bluish-white lesions surrounded by red ring. Generally they are found opposite to molars in the oral cavity and associated with measles.

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35
Q

What are the three C’s of symptoms with measles?

A

Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis

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36
Q

What is arbovirus

A

arthropod borne viruses

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37
Q

what are the 3 different arbovirus categories?

A

Togavirus
Flavivirus
Bunyavirus and Arenavirus

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38
Q

What is another name for Rubivirus?

A

Rubella or german measles

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39
Q

What category of Arboviruses is rubivirus in?

A

Togavirus

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40
Q

How is Rubivirus transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets

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41
Q

What is the only Togavirus NOT transmitted by respiratory droplets?

A

Rubivirus

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42
Q

What is a symptom of german measles?

A

erythematous rash

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43
Q

what is the prevalence of Rubivirus?

A

It is almost eradicated due to the MMR vaccine

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44
Q

What are the placenta crossing organisms aka teratogens?

A 
TORCHes
TOxoplasmosis gondi
Rubella
CMV
HErpes zoster and HEpatitis BCE
Syphilis
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45
Q

What type of malformations can Rubella cause in an embryo?

A

Heart - patent ductus arteriosus
Eyes - cataracts
Brain - deafness and intellectual disabilities

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46
Q

What does Flavivirus mean?

A

Flavi means Yellow, so Yellow Virus

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47
Q

What are the flavivirus diseases?

A

Yellow Fever
Dengue fever
West Nile Virus
Hepatitis C

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48
Q

What causes yellow fever?

A

mosquitos that have a monkey and human reservoir.

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49
Q

What are symptoms of yellow fever?

A

fever, black vomit, jaundice (yellow)

pneumonic
remember “a skeeter on a monkey’s peeter, bites it and likes the flavir then bites you and makes you yeller.”

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50
Q

What virus is in the bunyavirus and arenavirus category that we should know?

A

Hantavirus

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51
Q

What is the transmission of Hantavirus?

A

Rodent borne

Think “Bunny’s playing with rodents in the arena)

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52
Q

What does Rhabdovirus cause?

A

rabies

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53
Q

What is the histology of rhabdovirus?

A

Negri bodies

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54
Q

What does rhabdovirus infect?

A

warm-blooded animals

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55
Q

What shape is rhabdovirus?

A

a bullet

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56
Q

What is Retrovirus?

A

It refers to the enzyme reverse transcriptase. It can transcribe RNA to DNA.

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57
Q

What are the 3 groups of Retroviruses?

A
  1. oncovirus
  2. lentivirus
  3. spumavirus - foamy chimpanzee, non pathogenic
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58
Q

What is another name for oncovirus?

A

HTLV or human T-lymphocytic Virus

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59
Q

What is an oncovirus

A

a virus that causes cancer

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60
Q

What does oncovirus produce?

A

leukemias
lymphomas
breast carcinomas
sarcomas

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61
Q

What are the four types of oncoviruses?

A

HTLV1, HTLV2, HTLV3, HTLV4

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62
Q

What was HTLV3 previously known as but not anymore?`

A

HIV

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63
Q

What famous disease is associated with lentivirus?

A

HIV

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64
Q

Which virus kills T helper cells and causes immunosuppression?

A

Lentivirus

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65
Q

How does lentivirus spread?

A

Through macrophages throughout the body

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66
Q

What cells do HIV affect?

A

CD4 or T-helper cells

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67
Q

What fluid is HIV transferred by?

A

semen, serum, amniotic fluid, breast milk (NOT saliva)

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68
Q

How do new strains of HIV happen?

A

As a result of errors in transcription. NOT translation!

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69
Q

What is the difference between capsid and nucleocapsid?

A

capsid - protein coat around viral DNA

nucleocapsid - the capsid + the nucleic acid

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70
Q

What is an viral envelope?

A

a lipid bilayer that surrounds the capsid

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71
Q

What are the DNA viruses?

A

HHAPPP (happy)

Herpes
HepaDNA
Adeno
Papova
Parvo
Pox
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72
Q

What is the only virus that is diploid as opposed to haploid?

A

retrovirus

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73
Q

How does a virus adsorb onto a cell?

A

ONLY through cell receptors and a viral surface component. NOT via phagocytosis or using cell energy etc…

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74
Q

What is positive sense and negative sense?

A

positive sense: RNA has the same base sequence as the mRNA

Negative sense: a complimentary sequence as the cell mRNA. The virus must carry its own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

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75
Q

What are two examples of negative sense RNA virus?

A

orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus

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76
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

a virus that can only infect bacteria

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77
Q

What are the two life cycles of a bacteriophage?

A

lytic phase

lysogenic phase

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78
Q

What is another name for lytic phase? what is this phase?

A

virulent phase - when the virus is active and will kill the cell via lysis.

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79
Q

What is another name for the lysogenic phase? what is this phase?

A

temperate phase: when the virus is inactive and integrates into chromosomes.

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80
Q

What is a prophage?

A

a bacteriophage genome that has integrated itself into a chromosome.

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81
Q

What is phage conversion or lysogenic conversion?

A

When a good bacteria gets turned toxic or virulent by a virus

82
Q

What is an example of phage conversion?

A

C. diphtheria becoming pathogenic after phage conversion

or conversion of erythrogenic toxin by strep pyogenes

83
Q

What are two ways that diptheria toxin can be triggered?

A
  1. phage conversion

2. AND in presence of low iron

84
Q

Which DNA viruses are not enveloped?

A

PAP (girls are naked when they get a PAP smear)

Papova
Adeno
Parvo

85
Q

What DNA virus is the only virus where transcription occurs in the cytoplasm instead of the nucleus?

86
Q

Which DNA viruses are ds versus ss?

A

ALL are double stranded except for parvovirus

He has never made a SINGLE PARhole his whole life.

87
Q

Whic DNA viruses are linear vs circular?

A

ALL are linear except for Papovavirus and Hepdnavirus

88
Q

What are HIV-1 infection examples?

A

gingivostomatitis
keratoconjunctivitis
meningoencephalitis
esophagitis in HIV patients

89
Q

What is the only virus to obtain their envelopes by budding from the nuclear membrane?

90
Q

Where does HSV-1 produce latency? HSV-2?

A

HSV-1 : trigeminal ganglion

HSV-2: lumbar and sacral ganglion

91
Q

What is HSV-2 associated with?

A

cervical carcinoma or cervicitis

92
Q

How is VZV spread?

A

respiratory droplets AND direct contact

93
Q

What is a tzanck test and what is it used for?

A

its a smear of opened skin vesicles to detect multinucleated giant cells. Its used for HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV

94
Q

What disease does EBV cause?

A

infectious mononucleosis (kissing disease)

95
Q

What cell does EBV infect?

A

B cells and some epithelial cells

96
Q

What is the latent EBV called?

97
Q

What can develop from EBV?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
hodgkins lymphoma

98
Q

What is a symptom of EBV

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

99
Q

What is the most unique symptom of infectious mononucleosis?

A

splenomegaly

100
Q

How can infectious mononucleosis be tested for?

A

elevated heterophile titer greater than 1:128 (an antibody agglutination test)

101
Q

What is the major viral cause of birth defects in infants in developed countries? what about non-developed countries?

A

CMV

Rubella

102
Q

What is the antiviral used to treat HSV diseases?

103
Q

What is another name for Hepadnavirus?

A

Hepatitis B

104
Q

What virus is the only virus that has DNA polymerase with reverse transcriptase activity?

A

Hepadnavirus

105
Q

What shape is pox virus?

A

brick-shaped

POX in a brick box (it is also enveloped)

106
Q

What is the largest and most complex animal virus?

107
Q

What are three poxvirus diseases?

A
  1. Smallpox virus
  2. Molluscum cantagiosum virus - causes wart-like skin lesions
  3. Vaccinnia Virus - used to develop vaccines
108
Q

How are we protected from smallpox?

A

by vaccination of cow-pox virus (antigenic cross reactivity)

109
Q

What is a type of Papovavirus?

A

HPV - human papillo virus

110
Q

What is the most common VIRAL STD?

111
Q

What is the most common STD?

112
Q

What is a symptom of HPV?

A

papillomas or warts

113
Q

What type of virus is HPV?

A

a DNA oncogenic virus (NOT RNA, that is retrovirus)

114
Q

What other pathologies is HPV associated with?

A

cervical carcinoma (HPV16 and HPV18)

also Condyloma Acuminatum (genital warts)

115
Q

What type of HPV causes cervical carcinoma?

A

HPV16 and HPV 18

116
Q

What type of HPV causes condyloma acuminatum?

A

HPV6 and HPV11

117
Q

Can HPV be associated with verruca vulgaris?

118
Q

ADENovirus pneumonic

A

A DEN of preschoolers with pink eye and colds

So it causes URI and LRI like a cold
can cause pink eye

119
Q

How is adenovirus transmitted?

A

respiratory droplets, fecal-oral, direct inoculation

120
Q

What is the real name for pink eye?

A

acute contagious conjunctivitis

121
Q

What is another name for parVovirus?

A

ParVovirus B19

122
Q

What disease is associated with Parvovirus?

A

5th disease (ParVovirus, the V for 5th)

123
Q

What is 5th disease?

A

slapped cheek syndrome or erythema infectiousum

remember 5 fingers slapping a plastic face

124
Q

What is a complication of parVovirus?

A

transient aplastic anemia crisis

remember 5 fingers slapping a plastic face

125
Q

What is a bacterial cell wall like?

A

rigid and contains peptidoglycan

126
Q

What is murein?

A

peptidoglycan

127
Q

What is unique to the gram positive cell wall?

A

teichoic acid

128
Q

What is unique to the gram negative cell wall?

129
Q

What bacteria does NOT have a cell wall?

A

mycobacteria

130
Q

What are the components of peptidoglycan?

A

glycan - NAG-NAM

teichoic acid

131
Q

What are components of LPS?

A 
Core polysaccharide
Somatic O polysaccharide
Lipid A (Keto-deoxy-octanoate) - endotoxin activity
132
Q

Which component of LPS has endotoxic activity?

133
Q

What does Lipid A cause?

A

release of TNF and IL-1, which cause inflammation

134
Q

What is the Shwartzman reaction?

A

an exaggerated response to LPS that results in tissue necrosis

135
Q

What bacteria are acid fast?

A

mycobacterium and nocardia

136
Q

What color is an acid fast stain?

137
Q

What bacteria do not stain?

A

Rickettsia (gram -)
Mycoplasma
Mycobacteria
Chlamydia (gram -)

138
Q

What is the best phase of bacterial growth for staining bacteria?

139
Q

What type of respiration does strep mutans do?

A

anaerobic respiration

140
Q

What is the final electron acceptor?

A

pyruvate, or organic compound or an intermediate glucose product

141
Q

Which form of Mutation in bacteria is most susceptible to DNAase? Which is least susceptible?

A

DNA transformation - most

DNA transduction - least

142
Q

Which form of mutation in bacteria happens when F-factors or F-plasmid are transferred?

A

conjugation

143
Q

Which bacterial mutation can transfer antibiotic resistance?

A

conjugation (not the other two!)

144
Q

Which is the only bacteria that does not have a polysaccharide coat? what type of coat does it have?

A

Bacillus anthracis has D-glutamate or an amino acid capsule

145
Q

What are inclusion bodies?

A

also known as granules, they are a storage area in a bacterial cell for nutrients. They store sulfur granules, and Volutin (a type of granule that stores ATP)

146
Q

What are bacteria that have metochromatic (multi-colored) granules?

A 
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (Blue green)
Cornybacterium diptheriae
147
Q

What are transposons?

A

genes that encode proteins necessary for antibiotic resistance that can change position on a chromosome or “jump” from a plasmid to a chromosome.

148
Q

What are the most important gram positive rods?

A

Bacillus Anthracis (spore forming)
Clostridium (spore forming)
Corynebacterium
Listeria

149
Q

What is the difference between clostridium and bacillus?

A

bacillus is aerobic and clostridium is anaerobic

150
Q

What chemical is contained within spores?

A

calcium dipicolinate

151
Q

What are some characteristics of Bacillus anthracis? (4)

A
  1. forms spores
  2. catalase positive
  3. Malachai green spore staining
  4. Obligate aerobe
152
Q

What major bacteria are obligate aerobes?

A

Nice Pets Must Breath

Nocardia
Pseudomonoa aerogenosa
Mycobacterium
Bacillus

153
Q

What are the three different manifestations of anthrax?

A
  1. pulmonary (woolsorters disease)
  2. GI
  3. Cutaneous (black eschar)
154
Q

What is woolsorters disease?

A

An anthrax disease also known as woolsorters disease. The person can get life-threatening pneumonia and a widened mediastinum

155
Q

What are the 3 proteins in anthrax toxin?

A
  1. Lethal factor (LF)
  2. Edema factor (EM)
  3. Protective antigen (PA)
156
Q

What does edema factor do in anthrax toxin?

A

imitates adenylate cyclase (increase cAMP)

157
Q

What the difference of anthracosis and anthrax?

A

they have nothing to do with each other!

anthracosis is a disease of coal miners by inhaling coal dust, or black lung disease. It is not predisposed to cancer.

158
Q

What can Gardner’s syndrome lead to?

A

colon cancer

159
Q

What are the 4 types of clostridium?

A

c. botulinum
c. difficile
c. perfringens
c. tetani

160
Q

What are the 3 normal flora of the GI tract that are pathogenic anywhere else?

A

ABC’s
Actinomyces
Bacteroides
Clostridium

161
Q

Is botulism an infection?

A

No its an intoxication

162
Q

What syndrome can botulism cause?

A

Botox

also Floppy Baby Syndrome

163
Q

Which clostridium bacteria cannot live well inside the body?

A

C. botulinum

164
Q

What effect does botulism toxin have on the body?

A

It the most potent poison known to humans
It binds to presynaptic nerve and blocks Ach release
This leads to flaccid paralysis of muscle known as Floppy Baby Syndrome. Can lead to death due to respiratory failure.

165
Q

What toxin does C. Difficile release?

A

Exotoxin A and Exotoxin B

166
Q

What drug can lead to Cdiff?

A

Clindamycin

167
Q

What is the toxin that causes Gas gangrene?

A

Alpha toxin or lecithinase from C.perfringens

168
Q

What is alpha toxin?

A

an enzyme with hyaluronidase, that degrades HA in subcutaneous tissue

169
Q

What does the tetanus toxin do to the body?

A

blocks glycine release, which is normally a neurotransmitter inhibitor so it leads to paralysis.

170
Q

What shape are corynebacterium?

171
Q

What disease is caused by corynebacterium diptheria?

A

pseudomembranous pharyngitis

172
Q

What are characteristics of C. diptheria? (3)

A
  1. Blue red (metachromatic)
  2. Grows on tellurite agar
  3. Gram positive rod
173
Q

What agar does S. aeruginosa grow on?

A

MacConkey’s agar

174
Q

What encodes to exotoxin in C. diphtheria?

A

a bacteriophage via phage conversion

so C. diphtheria alone is not toxic

175
Q

What is the vaccine for diptheria?

A

toxoid vaccine

176
Q

What is the mechanism of C. diptheria?

A

causes ADP ribosylation of EF-2 preventing protein synthesis (just like in pseudomonas!)

177
Q

What are the major gram positive cocci?

A
  1. Staph

2. Strep

178
Q

What is the main way to distinguish strep from staph?

A

catalase test

Staph aureus is positive
strep is negative

179
Q

Which staph bacteria are coagulase positive and which are coagulase negative?

A

staph aureus is positive

the rest are coagulase negative

180
Q

Which gram + cocci can cause a UTI?

A

Staph saphrocyticus

181
Q

What is the most common manifestation of staph infection on skin?

A

cutaneous abcess

182
Q

What is unique about antibiotics and staph?

A

staph is resistant to penicillin because it has beta-lactamase.

183
Q

any skin, bone and joint infection is most commonly caused by?

A

staph aureus

184
Q

what gram + cocci is protein A associated with?

A

staph aureus

185
Q

what other diseases can staph aureus cause other than skin, bone and joint infections?

A

food poisoning
toxic shock syndrome
acute bacterial Endocarditis
MRSA

186
Q

What is the golden bug?

A

staph aureus (aureus means gold)

187
Q

what is the incubation period for staph aureus food poisoning?

188
Q

What does Protein A in staph aureus?

A

its a protein that binds to immunoglobulins (the Fc region of IgG) and inhibits complement.

189
Q

What are the major characteristics of streptococci? (2)

A
  1. catalase negative

2. facultative anaerobic gram positive cocci

190
Q

What is the most prevalent bacteria in the oral cavity?

191
Q

What role does strep do in dental plaque?

A

It has GTF that makes dextran

192
Q

What is the difference between alpha, beta and gamma hemolysis?

A

alpha - partial
beta - complete
gamma - no

193
Q

What are the two types of alpha hemolytic strep?

A 
s. pneumoniae
Viridans streptococci (s. mutans and s. sanguis)
194
Q

Alpha hemolytic strep can cause what major pathology?

A

endocarditis

195
Q

What is the difference between s. pneumoniae and viridans strep?

A

S. pneumoniae has a capsule (optochin sensitive)

Viridans strep has no capsule and can cause endocarditis

196
Q

What is a major bacteria in Group A Strep?

A

S. pyogenes - bacitracin sensitive

197
Q

What is a major bacteria in Group B strep?

A

S. agalactiae - bacitracin resistant

198
Q

Where is strep pyogenes found?

A

oropharynx

199
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

S. pyogenes (think pyro is hot)

200
Q

What are the two main post streptococcal diseases?

A

Rheumatic fever

Glomerulonephritis

201
Q

What is streptomycin used for?

A

its an ABX for TB

202
Q

What are the two major groups for gram - rods?

A

lactose fermenters and non fermenters

Pass The Dental Boards (4 decks)

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