Virus life cycle Flashcards

1
Q

How do helical capsids assemble?

A

Nucleoprotein (N) assembles around the genome (concerted assembly - linking packaging to assembly of the capsid), driving by N-N and N-genome interactions. Can occur as the genome is synthesised (seen in negative strand RNA viruses). Genome can be on the inside or the outside in a positively charged cleft. RdRp also binds the end of the genome in negative strand RNA viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do icosahedral capsids assemble?

A

Capsid can be formed around the genome (concerted assembly) or be formed prior to genome insertion (empty shell; capsid often built around a scaffold). Often get formation of intermediate subunit structures. Can be 1 or many protein subunits. Large capsids often need scaffold proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the assembly of polyomavirus capsids

A

Pentameric capsid subunits (5x VP1 + 1x VP2 OR 1x VP3). These form in the cytoplasm. VP1 has an NLS, so the pentamers are transported to the nucleus. Chaperone proteins (e.g. hsp70) bind the C terminal domain ov VP1 and mediate assembly through interactions of the VP1 C terminal domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is the polyomavirus genome packaged?

A

As a mini chromosome with hyperacetylated histones (for transcription). Packaged via contacts with VP2/VP3. VP1/2/3 bind DNA non-specifically. There is a packaging signal in the genome (ses) which overlaps binding sites for Sp1 transcription factor (GC boxes, which are also important for genome packaging). Sp1 interacts with VP2/3 inhibiting transcription. This interaction may nucleate capsid assembly (concerted assembly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do DNA viruses often do capsid assembly?

A

Adjacent to PML bodies - parts of the nucleus with functions such as DNA damage repair and antiviral responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the assembly of adenoviridae

A

In the nucleus near PML bodies
Hexons and pentons assembly in the cytoplasm with chaperones. The chaperone (protein VI) of hexons has an NLS for nuclear localisation; the NLS for pentons is in the N-terminus of fibre protein. Capsids assemble before the genome is packaged (empty shell) with aid from non-structural scaffolding proteins. Several proteolytic cleavage events are required for maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is the adenovirus genome packaged?

A

Packaging signal near to the left inverted terminal repeat with 7 copies of a consensus sequence (A repeat). Non-structural virus proteins bind here. The capsid is assembled, and IVa2 is thought to act as an ATPase to drive genome packaging.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the assembly of herpesviridae

A

Capsids assemble in the nucleus near PML bodies. VP5 (major component) is imported along with a scaffold with an NLS. Capsids assemble around a scaffold (empty shell). Proteolytic cleavage is required for maturation - cleaving the binding site to the scaffold. The scaffold dissociates as the local pH is lowered when DNA is inserted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is the genome inserted into herpesvirus capsids?

A

There is a unique vertex in the capsid of 12 copies of pUL6. It forms a DNA portal for ATPase dependent genome packaging, similar to those found in bacteriophages. There are cis acting packaging signals in the terminal repeats which bind part of the terminase complex. This complex then docks onto the portal and ATP hydrolysis powers a motor to push the DNA inside the capsid. DNA is cleaved between terminal repeats of adjacent genomes (see herpesvirus replication)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do retroviruses assemble their capsid?

A

Gag proteins mediate their own transport, self assembly and budding. Concerted assembly. C type retroviruses assemble at the plasma membrane during budding. B the retroviruses assemble at intracellular compartments before transport to the plasma membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does Gag self assemble and localise in retroviruses?

A

Myristic acid inserts into the lipid bilayer when Gag interacts with the correct membrane: the MA domain sequesters myristic acid until it interacts with PIP(2) - enriched on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane. Gag then binds the displaced (by myristic acid) unsaturated fatty acid of PIP(2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is Gag processed in retroviruses?

A

In the provirus, Gag hexameters form an immature shell around the RNA with N termini outwards and C termini inwards. When Gag is cleaved, the C termini (containing NC) complexes with the RNA forming the core (fullerene cone or icosahedral). The CA domain of Gag aids formation of pentamers as opposed to hexameters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the packaging signals in retroviruses?

A

Package 2 copies of the genome. Selectivity due to sequence/structure specific binding of the genome to the Gag protein. The 5’ UTR is important for genome packaging and dimerisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the interaction between the RNA genome and the nucleocapsid in retroviruses?

A

The NC domain of Gag has a central basic region (a zinc binding motif) that binds to the packaging signal. It can also bind RNA non-specifically - capsids with no viral RNA in contain cellular RNA (RNA is important to assembly - concerted). After cleavage, NC becomes associated non-specifically with the dimeric genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do viruses acquire envelopes?

A

The viral glycoprotein normally determine the site of viral budding and particle release. If the virus doesn’t bud at the plasma membrane, it must bud into a compartment that is competent for exocytosis so it can be released. The viral protein must accumulate in a certain location (for some viruses this is absolute - no cellular proteins included at all)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are membrane rafts?

A

Some lipids (such as sphingolipids and cholesterol) can associate to form a raft. They tend to be small, heterogenous and highly dynamic. Cellular proteins can selectively associate to compartmentalise processes. Some viral proteins also partition into lipid rafts and could be involved in virus budding and concentrating virus proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do alpha viruses bud?

A

E1/E2 trimers form hexagonal arrays at the plasma membrane. These then interact with the capsid with precise stoichiometry (80:240). These tight interactions induce budding - in theory no cellular proteins required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does HIV bud?

A

Myristylated Gag associates with the plasma membrane and forms a patch
This induces membrane curvature and leads to membrane scission by recruiting ESCRT 1 and ALIX-1 which in turn recruits ESCRT 3
Viruses are released and undergo proteolytic cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do retroviruses bud?

A

Gag recruits the cellular machinery (components of the ESRCT 1 complex) required for membrane scission. Nothing else is necessary - get VLPs (virus like particles) in the absence of envelope proteins. There is a critical region in Gag for efficient release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does influenza A exit the cell?

A

The virus RNPs bind M1 in the nucleus which then binds nuclear export protein for export through nuclear pores (via an interaction with Crm1). RNPs associate with Rab11 on recycling endosome surfaces where they are transported to the plasma membrane by microtubules. They associate with micro domains containing HA, NA and M2 around the edge of the lipid raft. Budding is driven by M1 polymerisation and scission involving gM2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do segmented viruses package their genome?

A

2 models: either random packaging (pack enough segments so enough viruses have a full complement) or recognition of each segment. Current model is that inter segment base pairing creates the packaged complex - evidence of sequences needed for packaging and the ability for mutated sequences to outcompete the wild type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do flaviviruses replicate and obtain an envelope?

A

They replicate in deep invaginations of the ER (spherules) that are still connected to the cytoplasm. The structural polyprotein is heavily processed (cleaved). The genome is packaged and the virus travels through the secretory pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do poxviruses assemble and exit the cell?

A

Within viral factories, a single membrane forms de novo from crescent shaped structures to form the IV with aid from scaffold protein D13. Proteolytic cleavage of core proteins forms the IMV (this is the particle released on cell lysis). Some IMV are wrapped in another double envelope at the golgi with help of F13. Microtubule motors transport IEVs to the cell periphery where the outer membrane fuses to release a double enveloped particle. Actin polymerisation aids the spread to neighbouring cells. Viral proteins are retrieved from the plasma membrane and targeted to viral wrapping sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do non-enveloped viruses leave the cell?

A

Traditional view was entirely by lysis, though we now know there is some non-lytic release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How can viruses use autophagy to aid release?

A

A region of the cytoplasm is enclosed in a double membraned vesicle - the autophagosome, which is normally used to destroy damaged organelles/during starvation. Non enveloped viruses could destroy the internal membrane before exocytic fusion with the plasma membrane for release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is cell-free infection?

A

Virus particles are released form an infected cell, diffuse through extracellular space then bind and penetrate uninfected cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of cell-free infection?

A

Long distance spread within the host, spread between hosts, wide range of available cell types
Inefficient (low moi), virions are accessible to antibodies, complement and other immune system components, is slow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some examples of viruses that spread by cell-free infection?

A

Polio, aden, vaccinia IMVs (cell lysis)
Influenza, norovirus, rotavirus (released at epithelial cell surfaces)
HIV (blood stream)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is cell associated infection?

A

Infection occurs at sites of contact between cells. Viruses are released at existing cell-cell junctions/viruses remaining attached to the original cell until cell contacts form/infected cells are induced to form contacts before viruses is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of cell associated infection?

A

Rapid and efficient spread to new cells; protection from the environment and immune response; high multiplicity of infection; exploitation of established cell-cell interactions
Restricted range; reliant on cel adhesion mechanisms; transmission to new hosts requires shedding of infected cells (direct bodily fluid contact)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does HSV-1 spread?

A

Cell associated infection. Virus is secreted directly to cell contact points (e.g. lateral surfaces in polarised epithelial cells) through the action of the gE/gI complex. The gE complex is thought to interact with cellular mediators of secretion at the cytoplasmic domain and the extracellular domain is thought to be a receptor. The virus remains attached to the cell via interaction with surface proteins such as heparin sulphate proteoglycans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do pUL7 and pUL51 do in the secretion of HSV-1?

A

Tegument proteins pUL7 and pUL51 are also important for HSV-1 secretion. They are likely to interact with envelop and other tegument proteins. They co-localise to focal adhesions which are important for maintaining cell contacts - they stabilise the cell’s morphology and prevent rounding up and detachment. gE/gI complex then directs virions to stable cell-adhesion sites for secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does HIV spread?

A

Cell-free infection - inefficient

Cell-to-cell contacts for efficient spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does HTLV-1 spread?

A

Human T-cell lymphotropic virus (causes leukaemia). Almost all spread by cell-associated infection through cell containing bodily fluids such as blood, semen and breast milk. Interactions similar to immunological synapses aid spread from uninfected to infected T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are virological synapses?

A

Receptor containing adhesive junctions that are the initial interaction between uninfected and infected cell. The virus envelope protein stabilises the interaction. Virus envelope proteins and receptors are polarised to contact sites which is then stabilised by cell adhesion molecules (e.g. ICAM-1). Receptor molecule clustering is stabilised by the actin cytoskeleton. The MTOC is polarised towards the contact site. The virions are trafficked to the contact site where they assemble and bud and enter the naive cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is virus surfing?

A

A method of retrovirus cell-associated spread. Infected cells anchor filopodia which then transport virus to the cell body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is extracellular matrix-bound virion spread?

A

Method of retrovirus cell-associated spread. HTLV-1 can remain attached to the extracellular matrix before interacting with another cell. Virion clusters are delivered to contact points when they interact with a target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is trans-infection spread?

A

Method of retrovirus cell-associated spread. Dendritic cells can capture cell free virions. Infectious virions can be delivered to target T cells before infection/replication in dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is EBV?

A

Epstein-Barr virus. A gammaherpes virus, highly prevalent, usually asymptomatic. Can cause glandular fever and some lymphomas.
Infects B cells and epithelial cells (e.g. tonsils)
Establishes latent infection in memory B cells

40
Q

How does EBV spread?

A

Cell free virus spread between hosts - in the saliva
Cell associated spread within hosts
Epithelial -> B cells is crucial in hosts for establishment of latency and infection
B cells -> epithelial cells is crucial for virus shedding

41
Q

How does EBV infect epithelial cells?

A

Infection is much more efficient through direct contact with B cells (as opposed to cell free)
Infection is through contact sites (virological synapses which are normally only retroviruses). The B cell is induced to make contact with the epithelial cell. Virions cluster on the surface of the B cell bound to CD21receptor. Cell adhesion molecules such as ICAM-1 cluster and are activated, and the B cell establishes direct interaction with the epithelial cell. Entry is by direct fusion

42
Q

What is the EBV cell tropism?

A

B cells: gp350 interacts with CD21 (complement receptor). gH/gL /gp42 binds MHC-II. A conformational change in gH/gL induces gB-mediated fusion with endosome membrane
Epithelial cells: gH/gL interacts with integrins. gH/gL conformational change induces gB mediated fusion with the plasma membrane. Entry is inhibited by gp42.

43
Q

How does EBV switch cell tropisms?

A

In infected B cells, expression of gp42 is low due to MHHC-II mediated trafficking and degradation of gp42. Therefore, virions produced have more gH/gL dimers than gH/gL/gp42 trimers and are epithelial cell tropic. In epithelial cells there is no MHC-II so levels of gp42 are high and the virions are B cell tropic.

44
Q

What is spread via cytoplasmic connections?

A

Infection by transfer of ‘free’ genomes or virion-containing vesicles through junctions connecting cell cytoplasms. Common in plants through plasmodesmata, no evidence of transfer in mammals through gap junctions

45
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of spread via cytoplasmic connections?

A
Is efficient (doesn't necessarily need virus particles), is fast, and is hidden from extracellular defences (not as important in plants as they have no antibodies - do have an immune system though!)
No spread to new hosts, genomes may be more accessible to detection, requires connected cytoplasm
46
Q

How can viruses use plasmodesmata?

A

They can express movement proteins to modulate plasmodesmata and allow transport of RNPs or virions (normally large macromolecules are regulated and restricted).

47
Q

What is spread by cell fusion?

A

Infected cells fuse directly with uninfected cells to transfer the genome to a fresh cytoplasm and nucleus. Can form large syncytial. Caused by viral fusion proteins on the cell surface

48
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of spread by cell fusion?

A

Is efficient - doesn’t required virus particles, virus is protected from extracellular defence mechanisms, increases the available sources for viral replication
Not a mechanism to spread to new hosts, target cells may have active antiviral response, very limited range - only in close proximity

49
Q

What are some examples of viruses that do spread via cell fusion?

A
Enveloped viruses e.g Paramyxoviruses (e.g. measles, RSV) - important to pathogenesis
Some reoviruses (non-enveloped) due to FAST proteins (fusion associated small transmembrane)
50
Q

What is transmission by cell division?

A

Viral genomes are copied and inherited with the host genome during mitosis, either integrated into the host DNA or as an episome.

51
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of transmission by cell division?

A

No requirement for synthesis of visions, hidden from detection, high fidelity replication
Very slow, spread to new hosts only possible by integration in the germ line, episomal genomes must be replicated and tethered to segregating chromosomes.

52
Q

What viruses do transmission by genome integration?

A

Retroviruses and lentiviruses - if the genome is transcriptionally reprised, the infected cell will divide and increase the population of infected cells (our genome has many endogenous retroviruses - sign of success?)
Also have integration from human herpesvirus 6 (at telomeres), adeno-associated virus, Marek’s disease virus (avian, into telomeres)

53
Q

What viruses do transmission by episomal genomes?

A

Many DNA viruses that establish latent or persistent infections - limited (or no) transcription or viral gene expression to avoid detection. Episomes are tethered to a host chromosome and segregated during anaphase
Examples are EBV, Kaposi’s sarcoma associated herpesvirus, human c cytomegalovirus, human papillomavirus

54
Q

What is host intercellular communication?

A

Viral genomes or non-enveloped virions are packaged into host derived extracellular vesicles and transferred to new cells via host pathways (e.g. exosomes, micro vesicles)

55
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of host intercellular communication?

A

May not require virions, hidden from detection by host membranes, specific virus receptors not required - expands tropism?
Reliant of active host cell pathways - restricted cell types?, spread to new hosts requires fluid transfer, exosomes also involved in transporting antiviral factors between cells and inducing innate immunity

56
Q

How do cells transfer cytoplasm?

A

Based on engulfment of cellular proteins in vesicles that are then released.
Exosomes are formed by budding inwards at cytoplasmic compartments (making multi vesicular endosomes) and secreted by fusion with the plasma membrane
Micro vesicles are formed by direct budding of cytoplasmic material through the plasma membrane
Autophagosomes can fuse with the plasma membrane releasing large internal membrane containing cytoplasmic material from the cell

57
Q

What viruses spread via exosomes? What is the catch?

A

Hepatitis A virus spreads in a host derived extracellular vesicle that makes it resistant to antibodies - requires ESCRT machinery to form
Hep B and Hep C viruses genomic material is also transferred via exosomes, though there is evidence this induces the innate immune response (i.e. is a host mechanism to warn other cells to become antiviral) as well as being a mechanism for spread.

58
Q

How do enteroviruses spread between cells?

A

Autophagosome-like pathways. Travel in large clusters that are non-lytic - in a phosphatidylserine enriched vesicle. Transfer is sensitive to neutralising antibodies, and vesicle can’t just fuse with new cell as that wouldn’trelease the genome - suggests that the vesicle is disrupted before virion entry. Transfer of large clusters may aid the spread of diverse quasi-species.

59
Q

What is antibody-dependent enhancement?

A

Using non-neutralising antibodies to allow endocytosis into Fc receptor bearing cells

60
Q

What are the main signalling pathways involved in viral infections?

A

Entry and exit from the host cell (viruses often mess with this pathway)
Stimulation of metabolic activity to stimulate growth
Immune signalling (especially important in latent and persistent infections)
Stimulation of the cell cycle (DNA replication, cell cycle arrest, DNA damage response, apoptosis, senescence)

61
Q

What are attachment factors?

A

Non-specific factors used by the virus to attach it to a cell but not for entry. When clustered by the virion get a lipid raft

62
Q

How do viruses use receptors for entry?

A

Virus mimics the conformational changes in the receptor to initiate entry. Virus therefore needs high affinity and a threshold number of ligations must be achieved (as the virus is stimulating a signal for endocytosis) - avidity

63
Q

How does coxsackie virus B enter induce signalling?

A

Virion clusters DAF (receptor 1) into lipid rafts. This triggers 2 signalling pathways including movement to a tight junction so the virus can bind CAR (receptor 2). This, along with phosphorylation of other components stimulates virus entry

64
Q

How does HIV induce receptor signalling upon entry?

A
An RTK (Lck) signals when the virus binds. This primes the cell to support HIV.
gp120 binds to CXCR4 (T cells) (or CCR5 on macrophages) which are chemokine receptors. Signalling through these triggers cytoskeletal rearrangements, activation of host transcription factors (stimulating the metabolism and viral replication) and chemotaxis.
65
Q

How do poxviruses interfere with growth factor signalling?

A

Secrete a growth factor homologue, vEGF. It has low affinity but doesn’t stimulate receptor internalisation and degradation upon binding, resulting in a continuous signal. This leads to tissue hyperplasia - neighbouring cells are ready for virus progeny.

66
Q

How does EBV and KSHV’s interfere with growth factor signalling?

A

K1 (KSHV) and LMP2A (EBV) are receptor homologues that are constitutively active. They contain ITAMs (immuno-tyrosine based activation motifs), which activate TK Syk upon a conformational change. The viral ITAMs are constituently active and don’t require ligand binding.

67
Q

How can retroviruses gain genes for cellular growth?

A

Transduction - recombining out of the host inaccurately. E.g. Avian Erythroblastosis Virus picked up EGFR without the regulatory domain so it is constituently active and is a viral oncogene that induces neoplastic transformation without the presence of a helper virus (the virus also lost part of its genome so now needs a helper virus)

68
Q

How does polyoma middle T antigen interfere with cell signalling?

A

Interferes with second messengers. Has an extra phosphorylated tyrosine and inhibits the action of Pp2A (a phosphatase) so causes sustained activity

69
Q

How can retroviruses interfere with second messengers?

A

By transducing second messenger genes that are deregulated. Daughter cells with the virus gene develop more mutations and can form tumours. For virus replication, a helper virus is needed, but this is not needed for tumour formation.

70
Q

How can retroviruses interfere with transcription factors?

A

Transcription factors that are deregulated due to transduction. Retrovirus is acutely transforming.
Or, random integration can lead to activation - e.g. ALV can activate cMyc by integrating upstream and constantly signalling. Causes B cell lymphoma.

71
Q

What does Tax-1 from HTLV-1 do?

A

Is a hub protein with multiple domains and conformational flexibility.
Recruits transcription factors to drive proliferation to transmit to daughter cells
Messes with immune system and makes T cells migrate (so into breast milk and semen)
Inhibits apoptosis
Has post transcriptional modifications so there are many forms of Tax
Can be in nucleus or cytoplasm (has NLS and NES)
Can interfere with ubiquitination pathway
Can interfere with transcription systems e.g. NFkB

72
Q

How is NFkB regulated?

A

Is a dimer of NFkB family (p50/p52) with a member of the Rel family - different types of dimer. The inhibitor IkB holds the dimer in the cytoplasm. IKK (IkB kinases) activate NFkB either canonically (regulating IkB to free NFkB) or non-canonically (cleaving NFkB precursors)

73
Q

How does Tax-1 (HTLV-1) interfere with NFkB signalling?

A

Binds IKKs to activate NFkB (in cytoplasm)
In nucleus regulates transcription factors such as NFkB, SRF, CREB along with chromatin remodelling proteins such as HDACs, HATs, HMTs, HDMs to modulate cellular gene expression

74
Q

What does the HTLV-1 protein HBZ do?

A

Both the protein and RNA has a function.
Protein has a bZip domain that can interact with DNA binding proteins e.g. binds Rb to dissociate HDAC and activate E2F for proliferation.
RNA is retained in the nucleus for longer and activates surviving (inhibiting apoptosis)

75
Q

What does DDX41 do?

A

Recognises viral DNA in the cytoplasm

76
Q

How to PRRs signal?

A

Activate the IKK complex which in turn triggers the dimerisation of IRF which then translocate into the nucleus to stimulate a type 1 interferon response.

77
Q

How does the Ebola virus protein VP35 help evade the immune system?

A

VP35 inhibits IFN by interferon with PACT which normally activates RIG-I. It also binds dsRNA to hide it from the immune system.
It inhibits IRF by binding and recruiting cellular proteins for sumolation and degradation.

78
Q

How does the Ebola virus protein VP24 help evade the immune system?

A

Inhibits IFNR signalling. Interferes with Jak/Stat signalling by messing with KPNA. Competes with STAT binding to KPNA to prevent nuclear translocation of STAT. However, KPNA can still function as normal apart from that so the cell is fine - specific and potent interaction.

79
Q

What is the difference between cytokines and chemokines?

A

Cytokines initiate and orchestrate the immune response through JAK/STAT signalling (and others)
Chemokines direct leucocyte migration and receptors are coupled to G proteins.

80
Q

How do viruses modulate cytokine signalling?

A

HCMV: miRNAs that inhibit NFkB signalling and therefore reduce cytokine production
EBV: cytokine homologue - vIL-10 that inhibits NK cells and is a B cell growth factor
Poxviruses: soluble vTNFR to soak up TNF and block apoptotic response

81
Q

How do viruses modulate chemokine signalling?

A

Virus can use a chemokine receptor for entry e.g. HIV
Virus can encode a G protein that binds cellular chemokine and up/down regulates the signal
Virokine can trigger G proteins or block binding
Chemokine binding proteins sequester chemokine in the extracellular matrix

82
Q

How does HCMV modulate chemokine signalling?

A

Encodes 4 chemokine receptors and a chemokine homologue and a chemokine binding protein. Modulation is dependent on cell type, stage and nature of infection. Helps virus escape immune system and promote viral spread (cell migration)

83
Q

At what points in the cell cycle to viruses interfere?

A

G1
G1/S transition (Rb, p53)
Nuclear events (S phase, G2/M, SAC)
Cell cycle arrest and apoptois

84
Q

How does Rb regulate the cell cycle?

A

Regulates G1/S and G2/M checkpoints, DNA replication and repair, cellular differentiation and apoptosis/senescence. Does this via regulation of transcription.

85
Q

How does Rb regulate G1/S transition?

A

Binds activating E2F complexes. Upon growth factor signalling, cyclin D1/CDK4 or CDK6 inactive Rb, releasing E2F. Dephosphorylation of Rb in G2 inactivates E2F once more.

86
Q

How do cyclins and CDKs regulate Rb?

A

Cyclin D1 along with CDK4/6 inactivates Rb at the G1/S transition, freeing E2F
CKIs e.g. p16, p21 inhibit Rb phosphorylation through CDK4/6 e.g. if there is metabolic stress/DNA damage

87
Q

How is quiescence maintained?

A

Through the p130/p107-DREAM complex. Represses E2F. Phosphorylation of p130/p107 by cyclin D/CDK4/6 releases the inhibition of E2F

88
Q

What does MuvB/BMYB/FOXM1 do?

A

Transcriptional activators of S/G2 and G2/M. Bind to CHR elements to trigger transcription. FOXM1 is only involved in the G2/M transition.
Disassembly of the complex aids progression into mitosis

89
Q

What are virus requirements at each stage in the cell cycle?

A

G1 - prepare for virus replication and assembly
G1/S - provide DNA replication machinery (involves avoiding cell death, arresting in G1 for exclusive viral replication, cell survival as chronic or latent persistent infections)
G2/M - cell mediated transmission, persistence

90
Q

What does HPV E7 do?

A

Targets Rb to release E2F for sustained proliferation in differentiated keratinocytes (normally stop proliferating in late stages of differentiation in the skin)
Targets the DREAM complex - degrades p130 to prevent the repression of G1/S and G2/M genes and binds FOXM1 to activate expression of G2/M genes
Binds cyclin D and E to increase stability and inhibit natural destruction - they continue phosphorylating Rb
Inactivates CKIs e.g. p21 and p27

91
Q

How does HTLV-1 Tax modulate the G1 checkpoint?

A

Drives IL-2 and IL-2R transcription
Drives cyclin D1 + 2 and CDK4/6 transcription
Binds cyclin D/CDK complexes
Binds p16 and Rb

92
Q

What are the properties of viral cyclin D?

A

Not degraded or exported form the nucleus
High affinity for CDKs
Phosphorylate Rb to activate E2F
Phosphorylate CDK2 substraes
Phosphorylate CKI p27 to down regulate and sequester

93
Q

How do viruses inhibit the APC ligase?

A

Some virus proteins (EBV, HPV E2, HCMV) bind APC to target inhibit it or target it for degradation. This leads to a prolonged M phase as the spindle assembly checkpoint is not satisfied. This allows viruses to be in a pseudo S phase

94
Q

How do viruses activate the APC ligase?

A

HPV E6 and E7 encourage M phase progression for cytokinesis

95
Q

How do viruses modulate the DNA damage response?

A

Some viruses require DNA damage response proteins for replication. EBV requires the ATM/ATR pathway (and has kinases to modulate). HPV has E1 and E7 to modulate
Some viruses inhibit DNA damage response pathways for latency e.g. EBV inhibits ATM and DNA-PK

96
Q

What are the roles of HPV E5, E6 and E7?

A

E5 - modulates extrinsic apoptotic pathway via EGFR activation and death receptors
E6 - sequesters p53 in the cytoplasm and targets proteins for degradation such as Bak, FADD, p53.
E7 - inhibits p53 mediated cell cycle arrest by binding p21

97
Q

What are the apoptotic factors in KSHV?

A
LANA - inhibits p53 and Rb
vFlip - inhibits caspases 8 and 10
vBcl2 - inhibits Bax
K1 - binds Fas
Get associated tumours e.g. Kaposi's sarcoma