Virology Sample Test Questions Flashcards
This regulatory group keeps track of disease incidence across our country, reports to the OIE, & a veterinarian can inform them of a possible case either directly or indirectly:
A. State Veterinarian’s office
B. USDA APHIS+
C. World Organization for Animal Health (OIE)
D. CITES
E. All of the above
B. USDA APHIS
What is believed to be the most common mode of transmission of papillomatosus in rabbits?
Mechanical vectors; Arthropod vectors transmit the Shope papillomavirus; therefore, arthropod control could be used as means of disease prevention.
What causes cerebellar hypoplasia?
Feline panleukopenia virus (Parvovirus).
A client brings in their previously healthy bird that suddenly died; it has liver necrosis & viral inclusions. What virus causes this?
Herpes.
T/F: Pigs are the main reservoir for Pseudorabies.
True
T or F: There is a vaccine for Herpes B Virus.
False
What term below describes Malignant Catarrhal Fever’s mortality rate in cattle:
A. Incredibly high (~100%)
B. ~25%
C. no animal has ever died from the disease
D. ~50%
E. ~18%
A. Incredibly high (~100%)
Which of the following statements about Pseudorabies is FALSE:
A. it is caused by a Herpesvirus
B. it can affect cattle, sheep, dogs, cats, & pigs
C. it can be transmitted between cows
D. it presents as “Mad Itch” in cattle & dogs
C. it can be transmitted between cows
Viral disease MAY be caused by all of the following cellular mechanisms EXCEPT:
A. Inclusion body formation
B. Inhibition of host-cell macromolecular synthesis
C. Host-cell transformation
D. Host-cell translation of toxin-encoding viral genome
E. Alteration of host-cell chromosomes
D. Host-cell translation of toxin-encoding viral genome
Attenuated vaccines tend to generate a strong immune response:
A. & never revert to virulence
B. because the virus replicates in the host
C. of shorter duration than that produced in a natural subclinical infection
D. only when administered in multiple doses
E. only when administered intramuscularly
B. because the virus replicates in the host
What 2 viruses below may remain latent? A. Parvovirus & papilloma viruses B. scrapie & Herpes virus C. coronavirus & Panleukopenia D. Pseudocowpox & rabies E. inhiding virus and slumberemia virus
B. scrapie & Herpes virus
Which foreign animal disease needs to be ruled out of the differential list before diagnosing Vesicular Stomatitis? A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis B. Foot & Mouth disease C. Rinderpest D. Rabies
A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis (It cannot be B because it cannot be differentiated from FMD if it is not a horse)
What is the mode of transmission of Bovine Papular Stomatitis? A. mechanical vector B. biological vector C. nursing infected cattle D. aerosol
C. nursing infected cattle
How long is Parvovirus shed in feces post infection? A. 10-12 days B. 1 month C. 1 year D. lifetime
A. 10-12 days
What is the most common cause of death in immunodeficient foals? A. Equine Viral Arteritis B. Equine Herpes abortion C. Equine Adenovirus D. Equine Infectious Anemia
C. Equine Adenovirus
The reservoir host for Pseudorabies is the: A. rat B. rabbit C. crow D. pig E. cat
D. pig
A herd of cows was presented to you with painful, localized edema on teats, with ring or horseshoe scabs. Which one of the following viruses do you consider to be most likely the cause? A. Cowpox B. Pseudocowpox C. Vesicular stomatitis D. Bovine Papular Stomatitis E. bovine papillomatosis
B. Pseudocowpox
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Canine Herpes Virus:
A. Puppies may acquire maternal immunity if dam is infected
B. Adult dogs are most susceptible to Herpes virus disease
C. Splenomegaly is a clinical sign associated with infection in puppies
D. Virus may be shed in respiratory & reproductive secretions
E. Most infections of adult dogs are asymptomatic
B. Adult dogs are most susceptible to Herpes virus disease
Which of the following is NOT one of Koch’s postulates?
A. The agent must be present in every case of disease
B. The agent must be shown to be pathogenic
C. The agent must be isolated from the host & grown in vitro
D. The disease must be reproduced when the pure cultivated agent is introduced into a healthy susceptible host
E. The same agent must once again be recoverable from the newly infected host
B. The agent must be shown to be pathogenic
What viral disease more than any other disease represents the birth of virology? A. Poxvirus B. Herpesvirus C. Adenovirus D. Papovavirus E. Retrovirus
A. Poxvirus
What vaccine type uses adjuvant? A. Gene deleted vaccines B. Recombinant vaccines C. Attenuated vaccines D. Inactivated vaccines E. Live virus vaccines
D. Inactivated vaccines
Which virus family can remain latent & be reactivated by stress or corticosteroid treatment? A. Reoviridae B. Flavivirdae C. Paramyxoviridae D. Herpesviridae E. Togaviridae
D. Herpesviridae
Which of the following is not an effect that a virus can have on the host?
A. Subclinical disease
B. Induction of cancer
C. acute clinical disease
D. induction of chronic progressive disease
E. none of the above (all choices are possible)
E. none of the above (all choices are possible)
The Coggins Test is the most widely used serological diagnostic test to detect precipitating antibody to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ virus. A. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis B. Equine Coital Exanthema C. Equine Infectious Anemia D. Swine influenza
C. Equine Infectious Anemia
T/F: Bovine Papular Stomatitis is an important zoonotic & economic disease in cattle.
False; Bovine Papular Stomatitis is a common incidental infection in beef cattle worldwide.
A pregnant cow has just delivered an aborted, slightly decomposed fetus. You suspect infection with the herpes virus IBR. To confirm your diagnosis, what fetal organ would you most likely take a biopsy from to isolate the virus? A. Brain B. Liver C. Kidney D. Heart
B. Liver
Equine Coital Exanthema is caused by: A. EHV-1 B. EHV-3 C. EHV-4 D. Ateriviridae E. Retroviridae
B. EHV-3
Which of the statements is TRUE about Feline Panleukopenia:
A. it is caused by a Parvovirus
B. it is caused by an RNA virus
C. Ataxia is observed in kittens that were infected in utero
D. A & C are correct
D. A & C are correct
Equine Herpes Virus is a common world wide infection of horses. EHV-1 will cause:
A. neurological disease
B. rhinopneumonitis & neurological disease
C. abortion & rhinopneumonitis
D. neurological disease & abortion
D. neurological disease & abortion
Family of DNA viruses that contain naturally oncogenic members is: A. Retroviridae B. Adenoviridae C. Herpesviridae D. Pervovirdae
C. Herpesviridae
How is Equine Coital Exanthema transmitted? A. Venereal, possibly from other contact B. aerosols C. fomites D. biting fleas
A. Venereal, possibly from other contact
How do you diagnose Equine Infectious Anemia?
A. Coggins Test, a serological test to detect precipitating antibody to EIA
B. Isolation virus from feces
C. Nasal swab
D. None of the above
A. Coggins Test, a serological test to detect precipitating antibody to EIA
Which of the following diseases does not have an available vaccine? A. Canine Herpes B. Infectious Canine Hepatitis C. Canine Parvovirus D. Pseudorabies E. all have vaccines available
A. Canine Herpes
The following are ways to detect viruses except:
A. isolation of the suspected virus in a cell system
B. detection of viral particles by electron microscopy
C. DNA or RNA sequences by ELISA
D. Detection of an antibody response
C. DNA or RNA sequences by ELISA
A major disadvantage of the Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV) vaccine is that:
A. it has been associated with severe hypersensitivity reactions
B. it may revert back to its virulent state & cause disease
C. vaccinated cats can’t be differentiated from those that are naturally infected
D. there is no FIV vaccine
C. vaccinated cats can’t be differentiated from those that are naturally infected (There are DIVA concerns with the FIV vaccine & the FIV vaccine is not backed by the AAFPs.)
Which is an example of a disease that is a problem in the US or which is NOT only a foreign animal disease? A. Hendra virus B. Swinepox C. Cowpox D. Nipah virus
B. Swinepox (Swinepox is worldwide)
Pseudorabies does not affect which species: A. dogs B. cats C. horses D. goats E. pigs
C. horses
Properties of viruses NOT important to disinfection & transmission are: A. heat sensitivity B. radiation & UV light C. chemicals D. lipid solvents E. gene arrangement
E. gene arrangement
Which of the following pairs of diseases are caused by viruses in the same family:
A. Pseudocowpox & Pseudorabies
B. IBR & Malignant Catarrhal fever
C. Rinderpest & Canine Papillomatosis
D. Maedi/Visna & FIP
E. Bluetongue & Parainfluenza 2
B. IBR & Malignant Catarrhal fever (both Herpesviruses)
Which of the following families of DNA viruses has the largest genome? A. Parvoviridae B. Poxviridae C. Adenoviridae D. Iridovirdae
B. Poxviridae
Herpesvirus in cattle can be characterized as having a respiratory as well as a venereal component. Which form of the disease can cause abortion? A. Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis B. Bovine Papillomatosis C. IBR D. Infectious Pustular Balanoposthitis E. Bovine Papular Stomatitis
C. IBR
A viral isolate from a cow that has conjunctivitis, pustules, & has just aborted is most likely to be: A. Bovine Papular Stomatitis B. Malignant Catarrhal Fever C. IBR D. Pseudorabies E. BVD
C. IBR
T/F: Feline Panleukopenia Virus is more related to Canine Distemper than to Canine Parvovirus.
False
Feline Panleukopenia Virus is notable for causing ataxia in kittens; it is caused by a single-stranded DNA virus of which family? A. Poxviridae B. Paramyxoviridae C. Parvoviridae D. Coronaviridae E. Circoviridae
C. Parvoviridae
Pseudocowpox is most easily diagnosed by:
A. PCR
B. Detection of ring or horseshoe scabs on teats of infected cows
C. isolation of the virus in tissue cultures, in which the virus produces syncitia
D. histopathology
E. response to treatment
B. Detection of ring or horseshoe scabs on teats of infected cows
A cattle disease that is associated with poor hygiene causing ring shaped lesions. This statement best describes: A. Malignant Catarrhal Fever B. Pseudocowpox C. Bluetongue D. Papillomatosis
B. Pseudocowpox
During one of your house-calls as a bovine practitioner, you examine several cows with ring or horseshoe scabs on their teats. Workers on the dairy farm also have complained of nodules on their hands. The most probable diagnosis for these lesions is:
A. Infectious Pustular Vulvovaginitis
B. Bovine Papillomatosis
C. Dermopathic Bovine Herpesvirus Infection
D. Pseudocowpox
D. Pseudocowpox
Which of the following is NOT a cellular change caused by viruses alteration of cellular macromolecular synthesis? A. cytophatic effect B. complex virion effect C. inclusion body formation cell D. transformation
B. complex virion effect
Which of the following answers gives one advantage & one disadvantage to PCR as a diagnostic test for viruses?
A. rapid; not suitable for all viruses
B. rapid; not a sensitive method for many virus infections
C. rapid; expensive equipment & not always available
D. specific; does not provide virus isolate for further study
E. specific; not a rapid diagnostic method
D. specific; does not provide virus isolate for further study
What stage of viral replication is blocked by the presence of neutralizing antibodies? A. Attachment B. Penetration C. Transcription D. Assembly E. Uncoating
A. Attachment
You are called to determine what is causing the lesions in the oral commissures of these backyard Nubians. It also appears the kids are refusing to suckle & you notice that the mothers have teat sores. Diagnosis is? A. Papillomavirus B. Caprine Herpesvirus 1 C. Bluetongue D. CAE E. Contagious Ecthyma (ORF)
E. Contagious Ecthyma (ORF); causes lesions at the oral mucocutaneous junctions (usually the commissures), & spreads to the muzzle & nostrils
Swelling & edema of lips, gums, dental pad, & tongue is the pathognomonic presentation of this viral disease that affects sheep & goats: A. ORF (contagious ecthyma) B. Carpine Herpesvirus 1 C. Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis D. border disease E. Bluetongue
E. Bluetongue
Which of the following viral infections is transmitted mechanically? A. Bluetongue B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) C. Western Equine Encephalitis D. Malignant Catarrhal Fever E. Eastern Equine Encephalitis
B. Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA)
Choose the right statement about the acronym SMEDI:
A. it describes characteristics of transmissible gastroenteritis in swine
B. it means stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, & infertility
C. usually occurs in cattle
D. occurs in the Reoviridae family
E. refers to a TV show
B. it means stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, & infertility
Which of the following virus families contain members that have dsRNA: A. Paramyxoviridae B. Orthomyxoviridae C. Flaviviridae D. Reoviridae E. Retroviridae
D. Reoviridae (multi-segmented dsRNA); Retroviradae have 2 copies of ss-(+)-sense RNA
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is an example of a disease in cattle caused by a Reovirus. A. Foot & Mouth Disease B. Bluetongue C. BVD D. IBR
B. Bluetongue
How is Bluetongue transmitted in sheep? A. via mechanical vector B. via biological vector C. via fecal-oral transmission D. by rabbit reservoirs E. by rat reservoirs
B. via biological vector [Biological Vector: An arthropod vector in whose body the infecting organism develops or multiplies before becoming infective to the recipient individual; Mechanical Vector: An arthropod vector which transmits an infective organism from one host to another but which is not essential to the life cycle of the parasite; example: Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA).]
What animal species serves as a reservoir for Bluetongue? A. cattle B. sheep C. deer D. horses
A. cattle
[Bluetongue virus is endemic in some areas, with cattle & wild ruminants serving as reservoirs for the virus. Epizootics of Bluetongue kill thousands of sheep. For this reason, regulatory veterinarians have heightened their interest in Bluetongue.]