Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Steph MICRO > Virology & Nematodes > Flashcards

Virology & Nematodes Flashcards

0
Q

Naked RNA viruses (3)

A

Calici
Picorna
Reo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Only virus that does not acquire their envelope from the host plasma membrane

A

Herpesvirus (from nuclear membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Naked DNA virus (4)

A

Parvovirus
Adeno
Papilloma
Polyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Only diploid virus

A

Retrovirus (all others are haploid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RNA Viruses with segmented genome

A

Bunyavirus
Orthomyxovirus (influenza)
Arenavirus
Reovirus

B-O-A-R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Negative strand RNA viruses (6)

A 
Arena
Bunya
Paramyxovirus
Orthomyxo
Filo
Rhabdo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Only live attenuated vaccine that may be given to HIV-positive patients

A

MMR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

DNA viruses (7)

A 
Hepadna
Herpes
Adeno
Pox
Parvovirus
Polyoma
Papilloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Only single stranded DNA virus

A

Parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Only viruses with non-linear DNA (3)

A

Papilloma
Polyoma
Hepadna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Only non-icosahedral DNA virus

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Only DNA virus that does not replicate in the nucleus

A

Poxvirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fifth disease (erythema infectiousum)

A

Parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Complication of chronic B19 infection

A

Pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Only virus with fibers.

What are the fibers called?

A

Adenovirus

Penton fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cowdry type B intranuclear inclusions (2)

A

Adenovirus

Polio virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Infected squamous cells with formation of cytoplasmic vacuoles

A

Koilocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HPV 1 to 4 cause:

A

Skin and plantar warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Most common viral STD

A

anogenital warts (condylomata acuminata) from HPV 6 and 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cancerous HPV strains

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Types of cancer caused by HPV 16, 18, 31, 33 (4)

A

Cervix
Penis
Anus
Vulvar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disease caused by JC polyoma virus in patients with AIDS

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephaly (PML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enveloped DNA viruses (6)

A

HSV 1, HSV 2, VZV, EBV, CMV, HHV 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DOC for herpes simplex virus

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Site of latency: HSV 1

A

Trigeminal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Site of latency: HSV 2

A

Lumbosacral ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusions

A

Herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tzanck smear

A

Herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type of encephalitis caused by HSV 1

A

Temporal lobe encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Type of encephalitis caused by Japanese B

A

Thalamic encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Blueberry muffin syndromes

A

Congenital rubella
Congenital CMV
Disseminated neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dewdrop on a rose petal appearance

A

Varicella rash (vesicular centrifugal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complication of aspirin use for pediatric patients

A

Reye’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Involvement of gene ulster ganglion causing facial nerve paralysis in herpes zoster infection

A

Ramsay hunt syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cultured in shell tubes

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cultured in germ tubes

A

Candida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Giant cells with owl’s eye nuclear inclusions

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common cause of congenital abnormalities

A

Congenital CMV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

DOC of CMV

A

Gancyclovir

CMV is largely resistant to acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Most common cause of blindness in HIV patients

A

CMV retinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Kissing disease

A

Epstein-Barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Epstein-Barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

AIDS defining lesion

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Causative viral infection of Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

HHV-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions seen in smallpox

A

Guarnieri bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions seen in Molluscum contagiosum

A

Henderson-Peterson bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

DOC Molluscum contagiosum

A

Cifodovir

47
Q

Only DNA virus that produces DNA via reverse transcription (mRNA template)

A

Hepatitis B infection

48
Q

Complications of hepatitis B infection on the liver (3)

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma
Hepatorenal syndrome
Hepatopulmonary syndrome

49
Q

DOC Hepatitis B infection

A

Interferon-alpha

Lamivudine (anti-retroviral)

50
Q

Only double stranded RNA virus

A

Rotavirus (type of reovirus)

Reovirus

51
Q

Only RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm except (2)

A

Influenza

Retrovirus

52
Q

Most common clinical form of polio virus infection

A

Abortive poliomyelitis

53
Q

Enteroviruses (3)

A

Coxsackie
Poliovirus
Echovirus

54
Q

MCC of viral induced myocarditis & pericarditis

A

Coxsackie B virus

55
Q

MCC of aseptic meningitis

A

Enteroviruses (esp Coxscakie virus)

56
Q

MCC common cold

A

Rhinovirus

2nd Coronavirus

57
Q

Most important test for Hepatitis A infection

A

Anti-HAV IgM

58
Q

Another name for hepatitis A virus

A

Enteroviruses 72

59
Q

Which hepatitis type causes high mortality in pregnant women?

A

Hepatitis E

60
Q

MCC NON-bacterial diarrhea in adults

A

Norwalk virus (Norvirus)

61
Q

MCC childhood diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

62
Q

Major antigens of influenza virus (2)

A

Hemagglutinin (H) & Neuraminidase (N)

63
Q

Type of influenza that causes worldwide epidemics/pandemics

A

Influenza A

64
Q

Major changes based in the reassortment of segments of the RNA genome; causes pandemics

A

Antigenic shifts

65
Q

Minor changes based on mutations in the RNA genome

A

Antigenic drifts

66
Q

DOC Influenza virus

A

Oseltamivir or zanamivir

67
Q

Warthin-Finkeldy bodies (mutlinucleated giant cells)

A

Measles virus

68
Q

Pathognomonic sign if measles infection

A

Koplik’s spots

69
Q

Most feared complication of measles

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) aka Damson disease

70
Q

DOC Respiratory Syncitial virus (if necessary)

A

Ribavirin

71
Q

Steeple sign

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

72
Q

Cause of laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)

A

Parainfluenza virus 1 & 2

73
Q

DOC Croup

A

Racemic epinephrine

74
Q

Bullet shaped enveloped virus

A

Rabies virus (rhabdoviridae)

75
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rabies virus

76
Q

Receptor where the Coronavirus binds to causing severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

A

ACE-2 receptors

77
Q

Characteristic fever in dengue virus infection

A

Breakbone fever

78
Q

Type of fluid accumulation experienced in dengue fever

A

3rd space loss: RIGHT-sided pleural effusion

79
Q

Most prevalent blood-borne pathogen

A

Hepatitis C virus

80
Q

Most common indication for liver transplant

A

Hepatitis C infection leading to severe cirrhosis

81
Q

DOC Chronic hepatitis C

A

Peginterferon & ribavirin

82
Q

DOC Acute hepatitis C

A

Interferon

83
Q

Cause if immune-complex polyarthritis in adults

A

Rubella virus

84
Q

Associated abnormalities in congenital rubella syndrome (5)

A 
PDA 
Congenital cataracts
Sensorineural deafness
Mental retardation 
Blueberry muffin syndrome
85
Q

Only RNA virus with reverse transcriptase

A

Retroviridae

86
Q

Part of the HIV virus that is used for diagnosis/lab identification

A

Major capsid protein (p24)

87
Q

Part of the HIV virus that directs the entry of double-stranded DNA into the nucleus; important for cell assembly

A

Outer membrane protein (p17)

88
Q

Components of the gag gene in the HIV virus; structural proteins

A

p24, p7 (nucelocapsid)

p17 (matrix)

89
Q

Protein component of the pol gene in HIV; for enzymes

A

Reverse transcriptase (transcribes RNA into DNA)
Protease (cleaves precursor polypeptides)
Integrase (viral DNA + host cell DNA)

90
Q

Responsible for the mutagenic property of HIV

A

Integrase

91
Q

Proteins part of the env gene of HIV; for the envelope

A

gp120 (attaches to CD4; rapid change in antigenicity)

gp41 (fuses with host cell)

92
Q

Used for the definitive diagnosis of HIV

A

Western blot

93
Q

Most common AIDS defining illness

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci/carinii pneumonia (PCP)

94
Q

Most common cause of death in AIDS

A

M. Tuberculosis (disseminated tuberculosis)

95
Q

Malignant T cells with flower-shaped nucleus

A

Human T-cell Lymphotropic Virus (HTLV)

96
Q

MCC epidemic encephalitis

A

Japanese B virus

97
Q

Diagnostic test for Enterobious vermicularis

A

Graham’s scotch tape technique

98
Q

DOC Enterobius vermicularis

A

Pyrantel pamoate

99
Q

Diagnostic test for Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Harada-Mori culture

100
Q

Only nematode whose life cycle involves a migratory bird

A

Capillaria philippinensis

101
Q

Peanut-shaped egg with flattened bipolar plugs

A

Capillaria philippinensis

102
Q

Most debilitating nematode infection

A

Wucheria & Brugia

103
Q

Farmer from abaca plantation

A

Wucheria & Brugia

104
Q

Mosquito vector of Brugia malayi

A

Mansonia

105
Q

Mosquito vector of Wucheria bancrofti

A

Culex, Aedes, Anopheles

106
Q

Infective stage of Wucheria & Brugia

A

3rd stage larvae

107
Q

Meyers-Kouvenaar bodies (tropical eosinophilic granulomas)

A

Wucheria & Brugia

108
Q

Elephantiasis

A

Brugia malayi

109
Q

Areas with high incidence of Wucheria bancrofti

A

Sorsogon, Samar, Leyte, Palawan

Camarines, Albay, Mindoro, Marinduque, Romblon, all of Mindanao

110
Q

High incidence of Brugia malayi

A

Eastern Samar, Agusan del Sur, Palawan, Sulu

111
Q

DOC for Wucheria & Brugia (can also be used for diagnosis)

A

Diethylcarbamazine

112
Q

MCC parasitic meningitis

A

Angiostrongylus cantonensis

113
Q

Bedbugs

A

Cimex lenticularis

114
Q

Ticks

A

Dermacentar (causing ascending paralysis)

Steph MICRO (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions