Virology Flashcards
Mention 3 DNA virus families containing no envelope!
Parvoviridae, Papillomaviridae, Adenoviridae
Mention 3 DNA virus families containing envelope!
Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Poxviridae
Mention 3 RNA virus families containing no envelope!
Picornaviriade, Caliciviridae, Reoviridae
Mention 3 RNA virus families containing envelope!
Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, etc.
Which virus family is characterized by a single-stranded DNA genome?
Parvoviridae
Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome?
Reoviridae
Reverse transcription is involved in the replication of which DNA virus?
Hepadnaviridae – HBV
Mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)!
oropharyngeal herpes (gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis), keratoconjunctivitis, encephalitis, herpes genitalis
What are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns?
disseminated infections; encephalitis; skin, eye, mouth infections
Which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? What is the mechanism of effect of the drug?
alpha herpesviruses – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA chain terminator
Explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha-herpesviruses!
These viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not activate the drug.
In which cells do Herpes simlex viruses establish latent infection?
Sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia)
What is the possible, late complication (years after acute infection) of the childhood chickenpox?
Herpes zoster (shingles)
What manifestations does cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections?
cytomegalic inclusion disease – spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness, mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice
What disease does cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons?
mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative)
Mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons!
pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis
Which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infection?
Ganciklovir, (foscarnet, cidofovir)
Describe the heterophil antibody test used in Epstein-Barr virus diagnostics!
Paul-Bunnel test – in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient agglutinates sheep red blood cells
Which virus causes exanthema subitum (roseola infantum)?
HHV6
Which virus causes erythema infectiosum?
Human parvovirus B19
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parvovirus?
fetal death or hydrops fetalis
Which isotype of antigen-specific immunoglobulins in the newborn’s blood indicates a congenital infection?
IgM
Which antigens of influenza viruses are recognized by neutralizing antibodies?
Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase
What is the mechanism of antigenic shift in influenza viruses?
reassortment of genome segments (between different influenza A virus subtypes)
What is the mechanism of antigenic drift in influenza viruses?
accumulation of point mutations in the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase genes of influenza viruses
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic shift?
influenza A
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift?
Influenza A and B
Which ifluenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently?
H1N1, H3N2
Which virus(es) is(are) susceptible to amantadine
Influenza A virus
What is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the acute infection)?
SSPE – subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
What is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae?
Respiratory tract – aerosol infection
Which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection?
babies (about 6 week – 6 month old)
What are the possible complications of adulthood mumps virus infection? Specify at least 2 of them!
Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis
What is the route of infection of rabies virus? How does rabies virus spread in the infected body?
By the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol) spread of the virus in the host – along the axons
What medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus?
Active immunization – human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus)
and passive immunization – rabies immune globulin
What is the portal of entry of polioviruses? Which areas of the central nervous system are affected by poliovirus infection?
oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract
damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord + brain stem
Which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus?
Polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses 68 - 71
Mention at least 4 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses!
febrile rashes, herpangina, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis, pleurodynia, hand- foot-and-mouth disease
What disease do rotaviruses cause? At which age?
gastroenteritis in young children
List the 3 antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or after the acute phase of infection?
HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg
Which hepatitis B-specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis?
Anti-Hbs
What are the main modes of transmission of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection?
Sexual contact; perinatally from mother to newborn; by blood or blood products
What are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute hepatitis B virus infection?
HBsAg, Anti-HBc IgM
Describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B!
active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine
passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin)
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired orally?
HAV, HEV
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes?
HBV, HCV, HDV, (HGV)
Mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses!
pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acut respiratory disease, bronchitis, atypical pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, gastrointestinal infection
What is the portal of entry of mumps virus?
Upper respiratory tract
Mention at least two viruses frequently causing pneumonia!
RSV, influenza virus A and B, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus,
coronavirus (SARS, MERS), metapneumovirus,
What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
Measles virus
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles, German measles and mumps?
live attenuated viruses
What is the nature of antigen in the rabies vaccine for human use?
killed virus
Which viral variants are included in the human influenza vaccine?
The vaccine contains 2 influenza A strains (H3N2, H1N1) and 1 influenza B strain.
What does the vaccine against hepatitis B contain?
Subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against poliovirus?
IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed viruses (types 1, 2 and 3) OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated viruses (types 1, 2 and 3)
What is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)?
JC virus (Polyomaviridae)
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus? Specify at least 3 of them!
Congenital malformations involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental reardation).
Mention 3 human prion diseases!
Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal familial insomnia
What is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions?
There is no immune response, as prions are self proteins.
Mention 3 main viral targets of antiretroviral chemotherapy!
HIV reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase
Mention 3 nucleoside (or nucleotide) type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
azidothymidine (zidovudine), abacavir, lamivudine, emtricitabine, tenofovir, dideoxyinozine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine (zalcitabine), stavudine
Mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
nevirapine, efavirenz
Mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!
ritonavir, atazanavir, darunavir, lopinavir, fosamprenavir, indinavir, saquinavir
Mention an integrase inhibitor used in the therapy of AIDS!
raltegravir
Mention 2 entry inhibitors that may be used in the therapy of AIDS
maraviroc, enfuvirtide
What is the principle of the „highly active antiretroviral therapy” (HAART) currently used as the first-line treatment of AIDS!
Combination of two nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (2 NRTI) with either a nonnucleosid reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) or a protease inhibitor (PI) or an integrase inhibitor (II)
2 NRTI + NNRTI / PI / II
What does the term robovirus mean? Write an example for a robovirus!
Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne)
Arenaviridae – Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus; Bunyaviridae – Hantaan virus, Puumala virus, Sin Nombre virus; Filoviridae – Marburg, Ebola virus
What does the term arbovirus mean? Write an example for an arbovirus!
Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne);
Flaviviridae – yellow fever, Dengue-fever; Bunyaviridae – Rift-valley fever, Crimean- Congo hemorrhagic fever; etc.
Mention three viruses causing haemorrhagic fever!
yellow fever virus, Dengue virus, Crimean Congo haemorrhagic fever virus, Marburg virus, Ebola virus
Which virus can cause haemorrhagic fever with hepatitis and nephritis?
yellow fever virus
Describe the 2 different epidemiological cycles of yellow fever!
Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitos; humans: accidental hosts
Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: humans; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitos
(It is not necessary to know the species names of the mosquitos.)
How can we prevent tick borne encephalitis?
Active immunization: killed virus vaccine, passive: specific immune globulin
Mention at least 4 opportunistic infections characteristic for AIDS!
Viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, HCMV, EBV, HHV-8, HPV
Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis jiroveci
Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, atypical Mycobacteria, Salmonella septicaemia Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans
Describe the principals of the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection!
Demonstration of antiviral antibodies.
Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA
Verification: Western-blot assay
Mention at least three sexually transmitted viral infections!
HPV, HSV-1, HSV-2, HIV, HBV, HCV, molluscum contagiosum virus
Mention two viruses capable of getting through the placenta.
Rubella virus, HCMV, parvovirus B19, HIV, HTLV-1
Mention 2 viral infections whose preventive strategy involves passive immunization!
Rabies, tick-borne encephalitis, HBV, VZV, measles
List at least three viruses capable of causing (meningo)encephalitis!
Rabies, HSV, VZV, tick-borne encephalitis, Japanese B encephalitis, eastern and western equine encepahalitis, mumps, poliovirus, coxsackie virus, echovirus
What is the nature(s) of antigen in the vaccine against yellow fever?
Live attenuated virus (17D strain)
Which viruses can cause human tumors? Mention at least 4!
HPV, EBV, HHV-8, HBV, HCV, HTLV
Which non-malignant disease is caused by Epstein-Barr virus?
Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil positive)
Mention 3 types of human malignancies caused by EBV?
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas
What type of human cancer is caused most frequently by HHV8?
Kaposi’s sarcoma
What types of human cancers are caused by high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types?
genital cancers, most importantly cervical cancer
Which malignant disease is caused by human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1)
adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATL)
Which hepatitis virus infections increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
HBV, HCV, HDV
