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Microbiology Minimals, Debrecen > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Mention 3 DNA virus families containing no envelope!

A

Parvoviridae, Papillomaviridae, Adenoviridae

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2
Q

Mention 3 DNA virus families containing envelope!

A

Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Poxviridae

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3
Q

Mention 3 RNA virus families containing no envelope!

A

Picornaviriade, Caliciviridae, Reoviridae

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4
Q

Mention 3 RNA virus families containing envelope!

A

Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, etc.

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5
Q

Which virus family is characterized by a single-stranded DNA genome?

A

Parvoviridae

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6
Q

Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome?

A

Reoviridae

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7
Q

Reverse transcription is involved in the replication of which DNA virus?

A

Hepadnaviridae – HBV

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8
Q

Mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)!

A

oropharyngeal herpes (gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis), keratoconjunctivitis, encephalitis, herpes genitalis

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9
Q

What are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns?

A

disseminated infections; encephalitis; skin, eye, mouth infections

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10
Q

Which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? What is the mechanism of effect of the drug?

A

alpha herpesviruses – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA chain terminator

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11
Q

Explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha-herpesviruses!

A

These viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not activate the drug.

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12
Q

In which cells do Herpes simlex viruses establish latent infection?

A

Sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia)

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13
Q

What is the possible, late complication (years after acute infection) of the childhood chickenpox?

A

Herpes zoster (shingles)

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14
Q

What manifestations does cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections?

A

cytomegalic inclusion disease – spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness, mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice

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15
Q

What disease does cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons?

A

mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative)

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16
Q

Mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons!

A

pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis

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17
Q

Which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infection?

A

Ganciklovir, (foscarnet, cidofovir)

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18
Q

Describe the heterophil antibody test used in Epstein-Barr virus diagnostics!

A

Paul-Bunnel test – in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient agglutinates sheep red blood cells

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19
Q

Which virus causes exanthema subitum (roseola infantum)?

A

HHV6

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20
Q

Which virus causes erythema infectiosum?

A

Human parvovirus B19

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21
Q

What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parvovirus?

A

fetal death or hydrops fetalis

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22
Q

Which isotype of antigen-specific immunoglobulins in the newborn’s blood indicates a congenital infection?

A

IgM

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23
Q

Which antigens of influenza viruses are recognized by neutralizing antibodies?

A

Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of antigenic shift in influenza viruses?

A

reassortment of genome segments (between different influenza A virus subtypes)

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25
Q

What is the mechanism of antigenic drift in influenza viruses?

A

accumulation of point mutations in the hemagglutinin and neuraminidase genes of influenza viruses

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26
Q

Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic shift?

A

influenza A

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27
Q

Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift?

A

Influenza A and B

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28
Q

Which ifluenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently?

A

H1N1, H3N2

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29
Q

Which virus(es) is(are) susceptible to amantadine

A

Influenza A virus

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30
Q

What is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the acute infection)?

A

SSPE – subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

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31
Q

What is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae?

A

Respiratory tract – aerosol infection

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32
Q

Which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection?

A

babies (about 6 week – 6 month old)

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33
Q

What are the possible complications of adulthood mumps virus infection? Specify at least 2 of them!

A

Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis

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34
Q

What is the route of infection of rabies virus? How does rabies virus spread in the infected body?

A

By the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol) spread of the virus in the host – along the axons

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35
Q

What medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus?

A

Active immunization – human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus)
and passive immunization – rabies immune globulin

36
Q

What is the portal of entry of polioviruses? Which areas of the central nervous system are affected by poliovirus infection?

A

oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract

damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord + brain stem

37
Q

Which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus?

A

Polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses 68 - 71

38
Q

Mention at least 4 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses!

A

febrile rashes, herpangina, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis, pleurodynia, hand- foot-and-mouth disease

39
Q

What disease do rotaviruses cause? At which age?

A

gastroenteritis in young children

40
Q

List the 3 antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or after the acute phase of infection?

A

HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg

41
Q

Which hepatitis B-specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis?

A

Anti-Hbs

42
Q

What are the main modes of transmission of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection?

A

Sexual contact; perinatally from mother to newborn; by blood or blood products

43
Q

What are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute hepatitis B virus infection?

A

HBsAg, Anti-HBc IgM

44
Q

Describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B!

A

active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine

passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin)

45
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are acquired orally?

A

HAV, HEV

46
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes?

A

HBV, HCV, HDV, (HGV)

47
Q

Mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses!

A

pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acut respiratory disease, bronchitis, atypical pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, gastrointestinal infection

48
Q

What is the portal of entry of mumps virus?

A

Upper respiratory tract

49
Q

Mention at least two viruses frequently causing pneumonia!

A

RSV, influenza virus A and B, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus,
coronavirus (SARS, MERS), metapneumovirus,

50
Q

What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?

A

Measles virus

51
Q

What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles, German measles and mumps?

A

live attenuated viruses

52
Q

What is the nature of antigen in the rabies vaccine for human use?

A

killed virus

53
Q

Which viral variants are included in the human influenza vaccine?

A

The vaccine contains 2 influenza A strains (H3N2, H1N1) and 1 influenza B strain.

54
Q

What does the vaccine against hepatitis B contain?

A

Subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg

55
Q

What is(are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against poliovirus?

A

IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed viruses (types 1, 2 and 3) OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated viruses (types 1, 2 and 3)

56
Q

What is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)?

A

JC virus (Polyomaviridae)

57
Q

What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus? Specify at least 3 of them!

A

Congenital malformations involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental reardation).

58
Q

Mention 3 human prion diseases!

A

Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal familial insomnia

59
Q

What is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions?

A

There is no immune response, as prions are self proteins.

60
Q

Mention 3 main viral targets of antiretroviral chemotherapy!

A

HIV reverse transcriptase, protease and integrase

61
Q

Mention 3 nucleoside (or nucleotide) type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!

A

azidothymidine (zidovudine), abacavir, lamivudine, emtricitabine, tenofovir, dideoxyinozine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine (zalcitabine), stavudine

62
Q

Mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!

A

nevirapine, efavirenz

63
Q

Mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS!

A

ritonavir, atazanavir, darunavir, lopinavir, fosamprenavir, indinavir, saquinavir

64
Q

Mention an integrase inhibitor used in the therapy of AIDS!

A

raltegravir

65
Q

Mention 2 entry inhibitors that may be used in the therapy of AIDS

A

maraviroc, enfuvirtide

66
Q

What is the principle of the „highly active antiretroviral therapy” (HAART) currently used as the first-line treatment of AIDS!

A

Combination of two nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (2 NRTI) with either a nonnucleosid reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) or a protease inhibitor (PI) or an integrase inhibitor (II)
2 NRTI + NNRTI / PI / II

67
Q

What does the term robovirus mean? Write an example for a robovirus!

A

Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne)
Arenaviridae – Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus; Bunyaviridae – Hantaan virus, Puumala virus, Sin Nombre virus; Filoviridae – Marburg, Ebola virus

68
Q

What does the term arbovirus mean? Write an example for an arbovirus!

A

Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne);

Flaviviridae – yellow fever, Dengue-fever; Bunyaviridae – Rift-valley fever, Crimean- Congo hemorrhagic fever; etc.

69
Q

Mention three viruses causing haemorrhagic fever!

A

yellow fever virus, Dengue virus, Crimean Congo haemorrhagic fever virus, Marburg virus, Ebola virus

70
Q

Which virus can cause haemorrhagic fever with hepatitis and nephritis?

A

yellow fever virus

71
Q

Describe the 2 different epidemiological cycles of yellow fever!

A

Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitos; humans: accidental hosts
Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: humans; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitos
(It is not necessary to know the species names of the mosquitos.)

72
Q

How can we prevent tick borne encephalitis?

A

Active immunization: killed virus vaccine, passive: specific immune globulin

73
Q

Mention at least 4 opportunistic infections characteristic for AIDS!

A

Viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, HCMV, EBV, HHV-8, HPV
Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis jiroveci
Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, atypical Mycobacteria, Salmonella septicaemia Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans

74
Q

Describe the principals of the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection!

A

Demonstration of antiviral antibodies.
Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA
Verification: Western-blot assay

75
Q

Mention at least three sexually transmitted viral infections!

A

HPV, HSV-1, HSV-2, HIV, HBV, HCV, molluscum contagiosum virus

76
Q

Mention two viruses capable of getting through the placenta.

A

Rubella virus, HCMV, parvovirus B19, HIV, HTLV-1

77
Q

Mention 2 viral infections whose preventive strategy involves passive immunization!

A

Rabies, tick-borne encephalitis, HBV, VZV, measles

78
Q

List at least three viruses capable of causing (meningo)encephalitis!

A

Rabies, HSV, VZV, tick-borne encephalitis, Japanese B encephalitis, eastern and western equine encepahalitis, mumps, poliovirus, coxsackie virus, echovirus

79
Q

What is the nature(s) of antigen in the vaccine against yellow fever?

A

Live attenuated virus (17D strain)

80
Q

Which viruses can cause human tumors? Mention at least 4!

A

HPV, EBV, HHV-8, HBV, HCV, HTLV

81
Q

Which non-malignant disease is caused by Epstein-Barr virus?

A

Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil positive)

82
Q

Mention 3 types of human malignancies caused by EBV?

A

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas

83
Q

What type of human cancer is caused most frequently by HHV8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

84
Q

What types of human cancers are caused by high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) types?

A

genital cancers, most importantly cervical cancer

85
Q

Which malignant disease is caused by human T-lymphotropic virus 1 (HTLV-1)

A

adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATL)

86
Q

Which hepatitis virus infections increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV, HCV, HDV

Microbiology Minimals, Debrecen (5 decks)

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