Virology Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
Which DNA virus family is not assembled in the nucleus?
A
Pox virus
2
Q
Prototype of Poxviridae?
A
Variola (small pox)
3
Q
Seven representatives of Herpes viridae?
A
- Herpes simplex virus 1 and 2
- EPV
- Cytomegalovirus
- Varicella-zoster
- Human Herpes virus 6
- Human Herpes virus 8 (Kaposi’s sarcoma)
4
Q
Prototype of Adenoviridae?
A
Adenovirus
5
Q
Prototype of Hepadnaviridae?
A
Hepatitis B virus
6
Q
Prototype of Polyoma viridae?
A
JC virus
7
Q
Prototype of Papilloma viridae?
A
Papilloma virus
8
Q
Prototype of Parvoviridae?
A
Parvovirus B19
9
Q
Structural components of icosahedral viruses in decreasing order of complexity:
A
- nucleocapsid is made of capsomeres
- capsomere (penton, hexon) is made of 5-6 protomers
10
Q
What morphological type of virus is Tobacco Mosaic Virus?
A
helical nucleocapsid
11
Q
What is the material called between the membrane of an enveloped virus and its nucleocapsid?
A
Tegument
12
Q
What makes Type I complex viruses complex? Three examples?
A
- capsid is influenced by envelope arrangement
- Pox, Influenza, Arena viruses
13
Q
What are two variations of Type II complex viruses? Examples of each?
A
- Lunar module (T2 bacteriophage)
- Bullet shaped (Rhabdo, Marburg viruses)
14
Q
What is the latent period?
A
Time from the beginning of the infection until progeny virions are found outside the cell (once detected inside the cell, eclipse phase ends, but latent continues until virions detected outside the cell)
15
Q
What types of proteins are produce in the early and late phases of viral replication?
A
- Early: proteins for replication
- Late: proteins for construction of virions
16
Q
What are the receptor and co-receptors for HIV?
A
CD4
CCR5, CXCR4
17
Q
What general virus types must bring their own polymerases to generate mRNA?
A
negative ss and ds RNA viruses
RNA dependent RNA polymerase
18
Q
What is the attachment protein for adenovirus?
A
Fiber protein
19
Q
What are the attachment proteins for herpesviridae?
A
gD and gB
20
Q
What is the receptor and target cell for EBV?
A
- C3 complement receptor CR2
- B lymphocyte
21
Q
What is the receptor and target cell for rhinovirus?
A
- ICAM-1
- epithelial cells
22
Q
What is the receptor and target cell for rabies virus?
A
- acetylcholine receptor
- neuron
23
Q
What is the receptor and target cell for influenza A virus?
A
- Sialyl oligosaccharides
- epithelial cells
24
Q
What is the receptor and target cell for Herpes simplex virus?
A
- Heparan sulfate
- epithelial cells
25
In Pox viruses, what two enzymes are produced by early transcription?
- Uncoatase
| - DNA polymerase
26
With Pox viruses, where does DNA replication take place?
- membrane-bound virosome (Guanieri's body)
27
Picornavirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?
- continuous positive strand RNA
| - large poly protein
28
Picornavirus prototype?
Poliovirus
29
Paramyxovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?
- negative strand RNA
| - multiple distinct mRNAs --> several different polypeptides
30
Paramyxovirus prototype?
Parainfluenza
31
Orthomyxovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?
- small pieces of negative strand RNA
| - multiple distinct mRNAs --> several different polypeptides
32
Orthomyxovirus prototype?
influenza virus
33
Reovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?
- small pieces of dsRNA
| - multiple distinct mRNAs --> several different peptides
34
What family does Polio, Rhino, Echo, and Coxsackie viridae belong to?
Picornaviruses
35
What family does measles, mumps, and respiratory syncytiovirus virus?
Paramyxoviruses
36
How does the Picornavirus polyprotein get cleaved?
- NCVPoo polyprotein is cleaved into NCVP1 and NCVPo
- NCVP1 is processed into capsid structural proteins
- --- VPO, VP1, VP3 = procapsids
- --- VP1, 2, 3, 4 = structural capsid proteins
- NCVPo is processed into non-structural proteins (RNA Pol)
- --- NCVP1, 2, 4
37
Which NK receptor binds IgA?
Fc-alpha-RI (CD89)
38
Which NK receptor binds IgG?
Fc-gamma-RIII (CD16)
39
What three cytokines secreted by macrophages activate NK cells?
IL-12, IL-18, TNF
40
What cytokine is secreted by NK cells that activates macrophages?
TNF-gamma
41
What cytokine is absolutely required for NK cell development?
IL-15
42
How are NK cells inhibited?
Upon binding MHC I, the ITIM is phosphorylated and recruits phosphatases to counteract cellular activation
43
What three cells secrete Type I interferons? What stimulates secretion?
Macrophages, plasmacytoid DC's, infected epithelial cell; binding of PRR's on cells
44
What is the most potent releaser of IFN-Beta?
Plasmacytoid DC's (PDC's)
45
What is the difference between antigenic drift and shift in influenza?
Drift involves the emergence of point mutants with altered binding sites for protective Ab on the hemagglutinin
Shift involves reassortment of segmented RNA viral genomes of 2 different influenza viruses = LARGE hemagglutinin changes
46
Where does residual Herpes Simplex infection exist?
Trigeminal ganglion
47
Where does latent Herpes Zoster virus exist and what does re-emergence result in?
- dorsal root ganglia
| - Shingles: rash appears in the area of skin served by the infected dorsal root (dermatome)
48
What disease does EBV cause? What is the result of a latent infection of EBV in B cells?
- infectious mononucleosis
| - latently infected B cells can undergo malignant transformation giving rise to Burkitt's Lymphoma (B cells)
49
What are two ways Hep C evades the immune system?
- interferes with DC activation and maturation via adaptive response in the liver
- high mutation rate (RNA Pol lacks proof reading)
50
How does lymphochoriomeningitis virus result in exhaustion of CD8 T cells?
- CD8 T cells express inhibitory receptors PD-1
| - Virus makes ligand PD-L1 which binds the receptor and suppresses CD8 T cell effector function
51
Togavirus genome and constitution?
(+) ssRNA, enveloped icosahedral
52
4 alphavirus examples of Togavirus
Western Equine Encephalitis, EEE, Venezuelan EE, Chikungunya
53
Flavivirus genome and constitution?
(+) ssRNA, enveloped icosahedral
54
4 examples of Flavivirus?
St. Louis encephalitis, Dengue, Yellow Fever, West Nile
55
Bunyavirus genome and constitution?
(-) ssRNA, spherical enveloped (3 RNA containing nucleocapsids - L, M, S)
56
2 examples of Bunyavirus?
California virus, Hantavirus
57
Reovirus genome and constitution?
segmented dsRNA, spherical, unenveloped
58
2 examples of Reovirus?
Rotavirus, Colorado Tick Fever
59
Arenavirus genome and constitution?
enveloped virus
| Bisegmented genome: L (-) ssRNA and S (-/+) RNA
60
2 examples of arenavirus?
```
Lassa fever (hemorrhagic)
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
```
61
Filovirus constitution and genome?
enveloped, helical
| (-) ssRNA
62
2 examples of filovirus?
Marburg and Ebola hemorrhagic fevers
63
General constitution and genome of Herpesviruses?
- icosahderal enveloped (nuclear membrane) viruses
| - Linear dsDNA
64
What are the 3 alpha herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?
- HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV
| - neurotropic
65
What are the 3 beta herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?
- CMV, HHV-6, HHV-7
| - Lymphotropic
66
What are the two gamma herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?
- EBV, HHV-8
| - Lymphotropic
67
Which HHV exhibits owl's eye cell due to nuclear inclusions?
HHV-5/CMV
68
Which herpesvirus promotes cell replication?
CMV
69
Which HSV is associated with sexual activity?
HSV-2
70
What is gingivostomatitis? Symptoms
- symptomatic primary HSV-1 infection in children
| - fever and ulcerative lesions in buccal mucosa, tongue, gum, pharynx
71
What is a viral cause of painful, pustular vesicles in the fingernail area?
Herpetic whitlow
72
What is the leading cause of birth defect and disability in the US?
Congenital CMV - 10% show symptoms
73
What virus is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma and infectious mononucleosis?
EBV (HHV-4)
74
What two cell types is EBV tropic for?
Human B cells and epithelial cells
75
In AIDs patients, what disease is caused by EBV?
hairy leukoplakia of the tongue
76
What two HHV target CD4 T cells?
HHV-6 and HHV-7
77
Which HHV-8 is also known as Kaposi-sarcoma associated HV? Which cell does it target?
HHV-8, B lymphocytes
78
Which disease is associated with giant/angiofollicular LN hyperplasia and adenopathy and is considered to be an AIDs associated lymphoma?
Multicentric Castleman's Disease
79
Why are most antivirals not effective against latent viruses?
Most antiviral drugs target at least one sequence in the replication cycle of a virus; latent viruses are not replicated
80
Why can't HIV be 'cured'?
Because it targets and infected T lymphocytes = T memory cell seeding (memory cells are 'permanent' and some never become activated)
81
What is the PREP treatment for HIV?
Pre-exposure prophylactics; prophylactic anti-viral therapy can prevent infection (reduces transmission by 68%)
82
What are the 7 drug classes used in treatment of HIV?
- Nucleotide RT inhibitors
- Nucleoside RT inhibitors
- Non-nucleoside RT inhibitors
- Protease inhibitors
- Integrase inhibitors
- Fusion inhibitors
- Co-receptor inhibitors
83
What 3 enzymes does HIV requires?
- Reverse Transcriptase
- Integrase
- Protease
84
How do fusion inhibitors work in HIV treatment?
Prevent binding of virus to CD4 molecule by binding to CD4
85
What drug blocks the R5 co-receptor for HIV? What are potential problems associated with having a drug for only one of the co-receptors?
- Maraviroc
- Problem bc more virulent HIV strains use X4
- Probable development of resistance and shift to usage of X4 receptor by the virus
86
Many HIV patients also have Hep C and/or Hep B. Which disease are some of the antiretroviral drugs effective against?
Hep B ONLY
87
What are two primary care antiviral drugs?
Acyclovir
| Valacyclovir
88
What are two first generation Hep C treatment drugs?
Ribavirin
| Interferons
89
What are two second generation Hep C treatment drugs? What enzyme do they inhibit?
- Telaprevir, Boceprevir
| - Hep C specific protease
90
What are four common live vaccines?
- MMR
- VZ
- HZ
- Flumyst
91
What are 3 neuraminidase inhibitors? Mode?
Zanamivir - dry powder inhaler
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) - PO
Peramivir - IV
92
What are neuraminidase inhibitors derivates of?
amantidine
93
Which drug has a secondary antiviral function? Primary function?
Amantidine - inhibits viral M2 protein and blocks viral replication
Dopamine agonist used to treat Parkinson's
94
What is rimantidine have fever adverse effects associated with antiviral usage than amantidine?
Rimantidine is a hydrophilic analog of amantidine and therefore cannot cross the BBB = reduced CNS AE
95
What is the difference between valacyclovir and acyclovir?
Valacyclovir is a prodrug formulation of acyclovir with MUCH greater bioavailability (IV serum levels)
96
How is acyclovir metabolized?
- guanosine analog
- converted by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells to acyclovir monophosphate
- AMP is then converted into ATP
- ATP completes w/ endogenous substrates for binding to viral DNA Pol
- Once incorporated, rep halts
97
What 5 herpes viruses are acyclovir/valacyclovir effective against?
- HSV 1, HSV 2, VZV
| - Some against CMV and EBV
98
What two drugs are used to treat oral herpes? Differences?
- Penciclovir and Famciclovir
- P has poor oral bioavailability (topical only)
- F is a prodrug form w/ higher bioavailability
99
Which drug is primarily indicated in treating CMV, particularly in immunocompromised patients? Modes? AE?
- Ganciclovir (guanine nucleoside analog)
- PO = suppression, IV = treatment; intravitreal device = CMV retinitis
- Neutropenia in 30-40%
100
How does Foscarnet effective as an anti-viral?
Binds and inactivates DNA Pol without any requirement for phosphorylation by TK
101
When is cidofovir indicated?
Intolerant or foscarnet/ganciclovir resistance CMV-infected AIDS patients
102
What is foscarnet most commonly used to treat?
Treatment resistant CMV or HSV
103
What is the primary AE associated with foscarnet/cidofovir? Precautions?
- Nephrotoxicity
- Both IV drugs
- Pre-hydrate with normal saline
104
In addition to normal saline, what is an additional precaution before administering cidofovir?
- oral doses of probenecid
| - prevents secretion of drug (movement of substances from capillaries into the tubules)
105
What is cidofovir used to treat?
HSV 1 and 2, VZ, EBV, CMV
106
What is the most common clinical use of Ribavirin?
Heptidic diseases
107
How is ribavirin administrated?
PO
108
How are interferons typically administered?
IM/SC injection
109
AE associated with ribavirin?
nausea, HA, lethargy, ANEMIA
110
AE associated with interferons? What precaution must be taken before administering interferons?
"flu like" symptoms, depression, suicidal ideations
| - must treat suicidal ideation/depression beforehand
111
What is pegylation?
process of covalent attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) polymer chains to another molecule, normally a drug or therapeutic protein
112
What kinds of molecules are ribavirin and interferons?
- guanosine nucleoside (requires phos to TP form)
| - glycoproteins
113
2nd gen Hep C drugs are intended for use with what other drugs?
Peg-interferon alpha and ribavirin
114
What are amantidine/rimantidine used to treat?
Influenza A (inhibits M2 viral protein which is an integral membrane ion pump that transfers H+ from endosome into viral capsid for uncoating purposes)
115
Which drug type is effective about BOTH influenza A and B?
Neuraminidase inhibitors
116
What is the function of neuraminidase?
- enzyme critical in maturation/infectivity of newly produced viral particles
- neuraminidase proteins dot surface of viral particles and binds new particles to each other -- enzymatic cleavage of these bonds releases newly infected viral particles
117
What are neuraminidase inhibitors not effective after 48 hours of symptom onset?
Once enough of the virus has been cleaved by neuraminidase and spread, drugs that inhibit the cleavage enzyme are no longer effective
118
Which neuraminidase inhibitors is contraindicated in asthmatics?
Zanamivir (dry powder diskhaler)
119
Which antiviral drug is a known teratogen?
Ribavirin
120
What two characteristics are associated with cell associated progeny viruses?
- acquired envelope in cytoplasm (ER, Golgi, nuclear)
| - Bud for release
121
What 3 viral families receive their envelope from ER/Golgi?
Flavi, Corona, Bunya
122
What role does VA dsRNA play in adenovirus replication?
- early RNA that interferes with active components (Pkr) of the interferon antiviral system
123
What protein is important in pan-handle formation/transcription in adenovirus replication?
55k protein
124
What enzyme is used to transcribe the early genes in adenovirus replication from the r and l strands?
Host RNA Pol II
125
What killed vaccines are available?
RIP Always - Rabies, Influenza (injected), SalK Polio, HAV
126
What live attenuated vaccines are available?
LIVE! see SMALL (pox) YELLOW (fever) CHICKENS (VZV) get vaccinated with SABIN's (polio) and MMR! It's INcredible (influenza, INtranasal)
127
All DNA viruses have dsDNA, except _____
Parvoviridae ("part-of-a-virus") = ssDNA
128
Which 3 DNA viruses do NOT have linear genomes?
PAP (papilloma) POL (polyoma) HEP (hepadnaviruses) = circular
129
What are the positive stranded RNA viruses?
- I went to a retro (retrovirus) toga (togavirus) party, where I drank flavored (flavivirus) Corona (coronavirus) and ate hippy (hepevirus) California (calocivirus) pickles (picornavirus)
130
Which RNA virus family has dsRNA?
reoviruses (repeato-virus)
131
Purified nucleic acids of which two dsDNA viruses is NOT infectious?
Poxviruses, HBV
132
Which two RNA viruses do NOT replicate in the cytoplasm?
Influenza, Retroviruses
133
```
Paramyxo = parainfluenza
Orthomyxo = influenza A, B, C
```
BAH!
134
What 8 viral families are naked?
give PAPP (DNA: papilloma, adeno, parvo, polyoma) smears and CPR (RNA: calicivirus, picornavirus, reovirus) to a naked HEPpy (RNA: hepevirus)
135
Where are herpesvirus envelopes acquired?
nuclear membrane
136
What are the 7 DNA viruses?
HHAPPPy viruses = hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma
137
What are 4 clinical manifestations of adenoviruses?
- Febrile pharyngitis
- Acute hemorrhagic cystitis
- pneumonia
- conjunctivitis
138
What are clinical manifestations of B19 in sickle cell, children, fetus, and adults?
- aplastic crisis in sickle cell/thalassemia/leukemia patients
- erythema infectiousum (slapped cheek) rash in children
- hydrops fetalis and death due to RBC destruction in fetus
- RBC aplasia and arthritis/arthralgia in adults
139
What 4 HPV viruses cause warts?
1, 2, 6, and 11
140
What does JC virus cause in HIV patients?
Polyomavirus
| Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy
141
Which HHV's cause roseola?
HHV6 and 7
142
How is HHV-8 transmitted?
sexually
143
What 3 cancers are associate with EBV?
- Burkitt's lymphoma
- Hodgkins
- nasopharyngeal carcinoma
144
What causes infectious mononucleosis? Clinical manifestations?
EBV - fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical and posterior auricular nodes)
145
7 helical RNA viruses?
PARry (paramyxo) FILls (filo) up with Rad (rhabdo) CORONAs (corona) OR (orthomyxo) ARtsy (arena) BUNs (bunya)
146
What are four paramyxoviruses?
RSV, parainfluenza, measles, mumps
147
What virus and family causes the number one cause of fatal diarrhea in infants?
Rotavirus (reovirus)
148
What are 5 picorna viruses?
```
PERCH
Polio (Salk/Sabin vaccines)
Echovirus (aseptic meningitis)
Rhinovirus (common cold)
Coxsackie virus (aseptic meningitis, herpangina, hand, foot, mouth disease, myocarditis)
HAV - acute
```
149
5 flaviviruses?
HCV, WNV, Dengue, Yellow, St. Louis encephalitis
150
Three togaviruses?
Rubella (3 day German measles), EEE, WEE
151
What are two coronaviruses?
Coronavirus (common cold) and SARS
152
Two arenaviruses?
Lassa Fever virus, Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus
153
Two bunyaviruses?
Hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia)
| California encephalitis
154
Six negative stranded RNA viruses?
Always (arena) Bring (bunya) Polymerase (paramyxo) Or (orthomyxo) Fail (filo) Replication (rhabdo)
155
4 segmented RNA viruses?
BOAR = bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo
156
What is the most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis?
Rotavirus (reo) = vaccination
Villous destruction w/ atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na and loss of K
157
What does RSV cause in infants?
bronchiolitis, pneumonia (Paramyxo)
158
What are the 3 C's of measles?
Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis
159
Two characteristics of measles? 3 sequelae?
- Koplik spots and descending maculopapular rash
| - Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, encephalitis, gian cell pneumonia (IC)
160
Three primary symptoms of mumps?
Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms (parotitis, orchitis, meningitis)
161
Four stages of HIV infection?
1 - flu-like (acute)
2 - feeling fine (latent)
3 - falling count
4 - final crisis (AIDS)
