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foundations exam 3 > Virology > Flashcards

Virology Flashcards

1
Q

Which DNA virus family is not assembled in the nucleus?

A

Pox virus

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2
Q

Prototype of Poxviridae?

A

Variola (small pox)

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3
Q

Seven representatives of Herpes viridae?

A
  • Herpes simplex virus 1 and 2
  • EPV
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Varicella-zoster
  • Human Herpes virus 6
  • Human Herpes virus 8 (Kaposi’s sarcoma)
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4
Q

Prototype of Adenoviridae?

A

Adenovirus

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5
Q

Prototype of Hepadnaviridae?

A

Hepatitis B virus

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6
Q

Prototype of Polyoma viridae?

A

JC virus

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7
Q

Prototype of Papilloma viridae?

A

Papilloma virus

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8
Q

Prototype of Parvoviridae?

A

Parvovirus B19

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9
Q

Structural components of icosahedral viruses in decreasing order of complexity:

A
  • nucleocapsid is made of capsomeres

- capsomere (penton, hexon) is made of 5-6 protomers

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10
Q

What morphological type of virus is Tobacco Mosaic Virus?

A

helical nucleocapsid

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11
Q

What is the material called between the membrane of an enveloped virus and its nucleocapsid?

A

Tegument

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12
Q

What makes Type I complex viruses complex? Three examples?

A
  • capsid is influenced by envelope arrangement

- Pox, Influenza, Arena viruses

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13
Q

What are two variations of Type II complex viruses? Examples of each?

A
  • Lunar module (T2 bacteriophage)

- Bullet shaped (Rhabdo, Marburg viruses)

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14
Q

What is the latent period?

A

Time from the beginning of the infection until progeny virions are found outside the cell (once detected inside the cell, eclipse phase ends, but latent continues until virions detected outside the cell)

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15
Q

What types of proteins are produce in the early and late phases of viral replication?

A
  • Early: proteins for replication

- Late: proteins for construction of virions

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16
Q

What are the receptor and co-receptors for HIV?

A

CD4

CCR5, CXCR4

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17
Q

What general virus types must bring their own polymerases to generate mRNA?

A

negative ss and ds RNA viruses

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

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18
Q

What is the attachment protein for adenovirus?

A

Fiber protein

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19
Q

What are the attachment proteins for herpesviridae?

A

gD and gB

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20
Q

What is the receptor and target cell for EBV?

A
  • C3 complement receptor CR2

- B lymphocyte

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21
Q

What is the receptor and target cell for rhinovirus?

A
  • ICAM-1

- epithelial cells

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22
Q

What is the receptor and target cell for rabies virus?

A
  • acetylcholine receptor

- neuron

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23
Q

What is the receptor and target cell for influenza A virus?

A
  • Sialyl oligosaccharides

- epithelial cells

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24
Q

What is the receptor and target cell for Herpes simplex virus?

A
  • Heparan sulfate

- epithelial cells

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25
Q

In Pox viruses, what two enzymes are produced by early transcription?

A
  • Uncoatase

- DNA polymerase

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26
Q

With Pox viruses, where does DNA replication take place?

A
  • membrane-bound virosome (Guanieri’s body)
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27
Q

Picornavirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?

A
  • continuous positive strand RNA

- large poly protein

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28
Q

Picornavirus prototype?

A

Poliovirus

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29
Q

Paramyxovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?

A
  • negative strand RNA

- multiple distinct mRNAs –> several different polypeptides

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30
Q

Paramyxovirus prototype?

A

Parainfluenza

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31
Q

Orthomyxovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?

A
  • small pieces of negative strand RNA

- multiple distinct mRNAs –> several different polypeptides

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32
Q

Orthomyxovirus prototype?

A

influenza virus

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33
Q

Reovirus constitution, polarity, and primary gene product?

A
  • small pieces of dsRNA

- multiple distinct mRNAs –> several different peptides

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34
Q

What family does Polio, Rhino, Echo, and Coxsackie viridae belong to?

A

Picornaviruses

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35
Q

What family does measles, mumps, and respiratory syncytiovirus virus?

A

Paramyxoviruses

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36
Q

How does the Picornavirus polyprotein get cleaved?

A
  • NCVPoo polyprotein is cleaved into NCVP1 and NCVPo
  • NCVP1 is processed into capsid structural proteins
  • — VPO, VP1, VP3 = procapsids
  • — VP1, 2, 3, 4 = structural capsid proteins
  • NCVPo is processed into non-structural proteins (RNA Pol)
  • — NCVP1, 2, 4
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37
Q

Which NK receptor binds IgA?

A

Fc-alpha-RI (CD89)

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38
Q

Which NK receptor binds IgG?

A

Fc-gamma-RIII (CD16)

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39
Q

What three cytokines secreted by macrophages activate NK cells?

A

IL-12, IL-18, TNF

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40
Q

What cytokine is secreted by NK cells that activates macrophages?

A

TNF-gamma

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41
Q

What cytokine is absolutely required for NK cell development?

A

IL-15

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42
Q

How are NK cells inhibited?

A

Upon binding MHC I, the ITIM is phosphorylated and recruits phosphatases to counteract cellular activation

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43
Q

What three cells secrete Type I interferons? What stimulates secretion?

A

Macrophages, plasmacytoid DC’s, infected epithelial cell; binding of PRR’s on cells

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44
Q

What is the most potent releaser of IFN-Beta?

A

Plasmacytoid DC’s (PDC’s)

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45
Q

What is the difference between antigenic drift and shift in influenza?

A

Drift involves the emergence of point mutants with altered binding sites for protective Ab on the hemagglutinin

Shift involves reassortment of segmented RNA viral genomes of 2 different influenza viruses = LARGE hemagglutinin changes

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46
Q

Where does residual Herpes Simplex infection exist?

A

Trigeminal ganglion

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47
Q

Where does latent Herpes Zoster virus exist and what does re-emergence result in?

A
  • dorsal root ganglia

- Shingles: rash appears in the area of skin served by the infected dorsal root (dermatome)

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48
Q

What disease does EBV cause? What is the result of a latent infection of EBV in B cells?

A
  • infectious mononucleosis

- latently infected B cells can undergo malignant transformation giving rise to Burkitt’s Lymphoma (B cells)

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49
Q

What are two ways Hep C evades the immune system?

A
  • interferes with DC activation and maturation via adaptive response in the liver
  • high mutation rate (RNA Pol lacks proof reading)
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50
Q

How does lymphochoriomeningitis virus result in exhaustion of CD8 T cells?

A
  • CD8 T cells express inhibitory receptors PD-1

- Virus makes ligand PD-L1 which binds the receptor and suppresses CD8 T cell effector function

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51
Q

Togavirus genome and constitution?

A

(+) ssRNA, enveloped icosahedral

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52
Q

4 alphavirus examples of Togavirus

A

Western Equine Encephalitis, EEE, Venezuelan EE, Chikungunya

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53
Q

Flavivirus genome and constitution?

A

(+) ssRNA, enveloped icosahedral

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54
Q

4 examples of Flavivirus?

A

St. Louis encephalitis, Dengue, Yellow Fever, West Nile

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55
Q

Bunyavirus genome and constitution?

A

(-) ssRNA, spherical enveloped (3 RNA containing nucleocapsids - L, M, S)

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56
Q

2 examples of Bunyavirus?

A

California virus, Hantavirus

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57
Q

Reovirus genome and constitution?

A

segmented dsRNA, spherical, unenveloped

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58
Q

2 examples of Reovirus?

A

Rotavirus, Colorado Tick Fever

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59
Q

Arenavirus genome and constitution?

A

enveloped virus

Bisegmented genome: L (-) ssRNA and S (-/+) RNA

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60
Q

2 examples of arenavirus?

A 
Lassa fever (hemorrhagic)
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
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61
Q

Filovirus constitution and genome?

A

enveloped, helical

(-) ssRNA

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62
Q

2 examples of filovirus?

A

Marburg and Ebola hemorrhagic fevers

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63
Q

General constitution and genome of Herpesviruses?

A
  • icosahderal enveloped (nuclear membrane) viruses

- Linear dsDNA

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64
Q

What are the 3 alpha herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?

A
  • HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV

- neurotropic

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65
Q

What are the 3 beta herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?

A
  • CMV, HHV-6, HHV-7

- Lymphotropic

66
Q

What are the two gamma herpes viruses? Lymphotropic or neurotropic?

A
  • EBV, HHV-8

- Lymphotropic

67
Q

Which HHV exhibits owl’s eye cell due to nuclear inclusions?

A

HHV-5/CMV

68
Q

Which herpesvirus promotes cell replication?

A

CMV

69
Q

Which HSV is associated with sexual activity?

A

HSV-2

70
Q

What is gingivostomatitis? Symptoms

A
  • symptomatic primary HSV-1 infection in children

- fever and ulcerative lesions in buccal mucosa, tongue, gum, pharynx

71
Q

What is a viral cause of painful, pustular vesicles in the fingernail area?

A

Herpetic whitlow

72
Q

What is the leading cause of birth defect and disability in the US?

A

Congenital CMV - 10% show symptoms

73
Q

What virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma and infectious mononucleosis?

A

EBV (HHV-4)

74
Q

What two cell types is EBV tropic for?

A

Human B cells and epithelial cells

75
Q

In AIDs patients, what disease is caused by EBV?

A

hairy leukoplakia of the tongue

76
Q

What two HHV target CD4 T cells?

A

HHV-6 and HHV-7

77
Q

Which HHV-8 is also known as Kaposi-sarcoma associated HV? Which cell does it target?

A

HHV-8, B lymphocytes

78
Q

Which disease is associated with giant/angiofollicular LN hyperplasia and adenopathy and is considered to be an AIDs associated lymphoma?

A

Multicentric Castleman’s Disease

79
Q

Why are most antivirals not effective against latent viruses?

A

Most antiviral drugs target at least one sequence in the replication cycle of a virus; latent viruses are not replicated

80
Q

Why can’t HIV be ‘cured’?

A

Because it targets and infected T lymphocytes = T memory cell seeding (memory cells are ‘permanent’ and some never become activated)

81
Q

What is the PREP treatment for HIV?

A

Pre-exposure prophylactics; prophylactic anti-viral therapy can prevent infection (reduces transmission by 68%)

82
Q

What are the 7 drug classes used in treatment of HIV?

A
  • Nucleotide RT inhibitors
  • Nucleoside RT inhibitors
  • Non-nucleoside RT inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
  • Integrase inhibitors
  • Fusion inhibitors
  • Co-receptor inhibitors
83
Q

What 3 enzymes does HIV requires?

A
  • Reverse Transcriptase
  • Integrase
  • Protease
84
Q

How do fusion inhibitors work in HIV treatment?

A

Prevent binding of virus to CD4 molecule by binding to CD4

85
Q

What drug blocks the R5 co-receptor for HIV? What are potential problems associated with having a drug for only one of the co-receptors?

A
  • Maraviroc
  • Problem bc more virulent HIV strains use X4
  • Probable development of resistance and shift to usage of X4 receptor by the virus
86
Q

Many HIV patients also have Hep C and/or Hep B. Which disease are some of the antiretroviral drugs effective against?

A

Hep B ONLY

87
Q

What are two primary care antiviral drugs?

A

Acyclovir

Valacyclovir

88
Q

What are two first generation Hep C treatment drugs?

A

Ribavirin

Interferons

89
Q

What are two second generation Hep C treatment drugs? What enzyme do they inhibit?

A
  • Telaprevir, Boceprevir

- Hep C specific protease

90
Q

What are four common live vaccines?

A
  • MMR
  • VZ
  • HZ
  • Flumyst
91
Q

What are 3 neuraminidase inhibitors? Mode?

A

Zanamivir - dry powder inhaler
Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) - PO
Peramivir - IV

92
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors derivates of?

A

amantidine

93
Q

Which drug has a secondary antiviral function? Primary function?

A

Amantidine - inhibits viral M2 protein and blocks viral replication

Dopamine agonist used to treat Parkinson’s

94
Q

What is rimantidine have fever adverse effects associated with antiviral usage than amantidine?

A

Rimantidine is a hydrophilic analog of amantidine and therefore cannot cross the BBB = reduced CNS AE

95
Q

What is the difference between valacyclovir and acyclovir?

A

Valacyclovir is a prodrug formulation of acyclovir with MUCH greater bioavailability (IV serum levels)

96
Q

How is acyclovir metabolized?

A
  • guanosine analog
  • converted by viral thymidine kinase in infected cells to acyclovir monophosphate
  • AMP is then converted into ATP
  • ATP completes w/ endogenous substrates for binding to viral DNA Pol
  • Once incorporated, rep halts
97
Q

What 5 herpes viruses are acyclovir/valacyclovir effective against?

A
  • HSV 1, HSV 2, VZV

- Some against CMV and EBV

98
Q

What two drugs are used to treat oral herpes? Differences?

A
  • Penciclovir and Famciclovir
  • P has poor oral bioavailability (topical only)
  • F is a prodrug form w/ higher bioavailability
99
Q

Which drug is primarily indicated in treating CMV, particularly in immunocompromised patients? Modes? AE?

A
  • Ganciclovir (guanine nucleoside analog)
  • PO = suppression, IV = treatment; intravitreal device = CMV retinitis
  • Neutropenia in 30-40%
100
Q

How does Foscarnet effective as an anti-viral?

A

Binds and inactivates DNA Pol without any requirement for phosphorylation by TK

101
Q

When is cidofovir indicated?

A

Intolerant or foscarnet/ganciclovir resistance CMV-infected AIDS patients

102
Q

What is foscarnet most commonly used to treat?

A

Treatment resistant CMV or HSV

103
Q

What is the primary AE associated with foscarnet/cidofovir? Precautions?

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Both IV drugs
  • Pre-hydrate with normal saline
104
Q

In addition to normal saline, what is an additional precaution before administering cidofovir?

A
  • oral doses of probenecid

- prevents secretion of drug (movement of substances from capillaries into the tubules)

105
Q

What is cidofovir used to treat?

A

HSV 1 and 2, VZ, EBV, CMV

106
Q

What is the most common clinical use of Ribavirin?

A

Heptidic diseases

107
Q

How is ribavirin administrated?

A

PO

108
Q

How are interferons typically administered?

A

IM/SC injection

109
Q

AE associated with ribavirin?

A

nausea, HA, lethargy, ANEMIA

110
Q

AE associated with interferons? What precaution must be taken before administering interferons?

A

“flu like” symptoms, depression, suicidal ideations

- must treat suicidal ideation/depression beforehand

111
Q

What is pegylation?

A

process of covalent attachment of polyethylene glycol (PEG) polymer chains to another molecule, normally a drug or therapeutic protein

112
Q

What kinds of molecules are ribavirin and interferons?

A
  • guanosine nucleoside (requires phos to TP form)

- glycoproteins

113
Q

2nd gen Hep C drugs are intended for use with what other drugs?

A

Peg-interferon alpha and ribavirin

114
Q

What are amantidine/rimantidine used to treat?

A

Influenza A (inhibits M2 viral protein which is an integral membrane ion pump that transfers H+ from endosome into viral capsid for uncoating purposes)

115
Q

Which drug type is effective about BOTH influenza A and B?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitors

116
Q

What is the function of neuraminidase?

A
  • enzyme critical in maturation/infectivity of newly produced viral particles
  • neuraminidase proteins dot surface of viral particles and binds new particles to each other – enzymatic cleavage of these bonds releases newly infected viral particles
117
Q

What are neuraminidase inhibitors not effective after 48 hours of symptom onset?

A

Once enough of the virus has been cleaved by neuraminidase and spread, drugs that inhibit the cleavage enzyme are no longer effective

118
Q

Which neuraminidase inhibitors is contraindicated in asthmatics?

A

Zanamivir (dry powder diskhaler)

119
Q

Which antiviral drug is a known teratogen?

A

Ribavirin

120
Q

What two characteristics are associated with cell associated progeny viruses?

A
  • acquired envelope in cytoplasm (ER, Golgi, nuclear)

- Bud for release

121
Q

What 3 viral families receive their envelope from ER/Golgi?

A

Flavi, Corona, Bunya

122
Q

What role does VA dsRNA play in adenovirus replication?

A
  • early RNA that interferes with active components (Pkr) of the interferon antiviral system
123
Q

What protein is important in pan-handle formation/transcription in adenovirus replication?

A

55k protein

124
Q

What enzyme is used to transcribe the early genes in adenovirus replication from the r and l strands?

A

Host RNA Pol II

125
Q

What killed vaccines are available?

A

RIP Always - Rabies, Influenza (injected), SalK Polio, HAV

126
Q

What live attenuated vaccines are available?

A

LIVE! see SMALL (pox) YELLOW (fever) CHICKENS (VZV) get vaccinated with SABIN’s (polio) and MMR! It’s INcredible (influenza, INtranasal)

127
Q

All DNA viruses have dsDNA, except _____

A

Parvoviridae (“part-of-a-virus”) = ssDNA

128
Q

Which 3 DNA viruses do NOT have linear genomes?

A

PAP (papilloma) POL (polyoma) HEP (hepadnaviruses) = circular

129
Q

What are the positive stranded RNA viruses?

A
  • I went to a retro (retrovirus) toga (togavirus) party, where I drank flavored (flavivirus) Corona (coronavirus) and ate hippy (hepevirus) California (calocivirus) pickles (picornavirus)
130
Q

Which RNA virus family has dsRNA?

A

reoviruses (repeato-virus)

131
Q

Purified nucleic acids of which two dsDNA viruses is NOT infectious?

A

Poxviruses, HBV

132
Q

Which two RNA viruses do NOT replicate in the cytoplasm?

A

Influenza, Retroviruses

133
Q 
Paramyxo = parainfluenza
Orthomyxo = influenza A, B, C
A

BAH!

134
Q

What 8 viral families are naked?

A

give PAPP (DNA: papilloma, adeno, parvo, polyoma) smears and CPR (RNA: calicivirus, picornavirus, reovirus) to a naked HEPpy (RNA: hepevirus)

135
Q

Where are herpesvirus envelopes acquired?

A

nuclear membrane

136
Q

What are the 7 DNA viruses?

A

HHAPPPy viruses = hepadna, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma

137
Q

What are 4 clinical manifestations of adenoviruses?

A
  • Febrile pharyngitis
  • Acute hemorrhagic cystitis
  • pneumonia
  • conjunctivitis
138
Q

What are clinical manifestations of B19 in sickle cell, children, fetus, and adults?

A
  • aplastic crisis in sickle cell/thalassemia/leukemia patients
  • erythema infectiousum (slapped cheek) rash in children
  • hydrops fetalis and death due to RBC destruction in fetus
  • RBC aplasia and arthritis/arthralgia in adults
139
Q

What 4 HPV viruses cause warts?

A

1, 2, 6, and 11

140
Q

What does JC virus cause in HIV patients?

A

Polyomavirus

Progressive multifocal leukencephalopathy

141
Q

Which HHV’s cause roseola?

A

HHV6 and 7

142
Q

How is HHV-8 transmitted?

A

sexually

143
Q

What 3 cancers are associate with EBV?

A
  • Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Hodgkins
  • nasopharyngeal carcinoma
144
Q

What causes infectious mononucleosis? Clinical manifestations?

A

EBV - fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical and posterior auricular nodes)

145
Q

7 helical RNA viruses?

A

PARry (paramyxo) FILls (filo) up with Rad (rhabdo) CORONAs (corona) OR (orthomyxo) ARtsy (arena) BUNs (bunya)

146
Q

What are four paramyxoviruses?

A

RSV, parainfluenza, measles, mumps

147
Q

What virus and family causes the number one cause of fatal diarrhea in infants?

A

Rotavirus (reovirus)

148
Q

What are 5 picorna viruses?

A 
PERCH
Polio (Salk/Sabin vaccines)
Echovirus (aseptic meningitis)
Rhinovirus (common cold)
Coxsackie virus (aseptic meningitis, herpangina, hand, foot, mouth disease, myocarditis)
HAV - acute
149
Q

5 flaviviruses?

A

HCV, WNV, Dengue, Yellow, St. Louis encephalitis

150
Q

Three togaviruses?

A

Rubella (3 day German measles), EEE, WEE

151
Q

What are two coronaviruses?

A

Coronavirus (common cold) and SARS

152
Q

Two arenaviruses?

A

Lassa Fever virus, Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

153
Q

Two bunyaviruses?

A

Hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia)

California encephalitis

154
Q

Six negative stranded RNA viruses?

A

Always (arena) Bring (bunya) Polymerase (paramyxo) Or (orthomyxo) Fail (filo) Replication (rhabdo)

155
Q

4 segmented RNA viruses?

A

BOAR = bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo

156
Q

What is the most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis?

A

Rotavirus (reo) = vaccination

Villous destruction w/ atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na and loss of K

157
Q

What does RSV cause in infants?

A

bronchiolitis, pneumonia (Paramyxo)

158
Q

What are the 3 C’s of measles?

A

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

159
Q

Two characteristics of measles? 3 sequelae?

A
  • Koplik spots and descending maculopapular rash

- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, encephalitis, gian cell pneumonia (IC)

160
Q

Three primary symptoms of mumps?

A

Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms (parotitis, orchitis, meningitis)

161
Q

Four stages of HIV infection?

A

1 - flu-like (acute)
2 - feeling fine (latent)
3 - falling count
4 - final crisis (AIDS)

foundations exam 3 (3 decks)

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