Viro exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to?
a. Stain the virus and make it visible
b. Detect any viral proteins
c. Amplify the viral DNA
d. Detect antibodies
A
c. Amplify the viral DNA
2
Q
Which is not a step of PCR?
a. Annealing
b. Processing
c. Extension
d. Denaturing
A
b. Processing
3
Q
True or False?
Metagenomics is used to detect specific pathogens in a sample?
A
False- used for random detection
4
Q
Which diagnostic test allows hundreds of pathogens to be screened at the same time using one chip?
a. PCR
b. Metagenomics
c. Microarrays
d. ELISA
A
c. Microarrays
5
Q
Acyclovir is used for the treatment of?
a. Herpesviruses
b. HIV
c. Poxviruses
d. Flu viruses
A
a. Herpesviruses
6
Q
Which is not true about Acyclovir?
a. Administered as a prodrug
b. Synthetic form of Guanosine
c. Prevents elongation of NA sequence
d. Toxic to the host cell
A
d. Toxic to the host cell
7
Q
Amantadine is used to treat the flu virus and works on the ____?
a. M1 channel
b. M2 channel
c. P53
d. Rb
A
b. M2 channel
8
Q
Which pair is incorrect?
a. Oseltamivir—> influenza A & B
b. Zidovudine(ZVD)/ Azidothymidine (AZT)—> thymine copycat
c. Zidovudine(ZVD)/ Azidothymidine (AZT)—> Nucleoside Analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors k
d. Protease inhibitors—> HIV
e. All are correct
A
e. All are correct
9
Q
Which is not a form of a “live-attenuated” vaccine?
a. Attenuation of viruses by serial passage in cultured cells
b. Attenuation of viruses by serial passage in heterologous hosts
c. Attenuation by selection of cold-adapted mutants/reassortments
d. Using inactivated/non-replicating viruses as vaccines
A
d. Using inactivated/non-replicating viruses as vaccines
10
Q
What type of vaccine would you use if you wanted to later test to see who was vaccinated or naturally infected?
a. Live attenuated
b. DIVA
c. Inactivated vaccines
d. Vaccines made from only viral proteins
A
b. DIVA
11
Q
True or False
Sterilization destroys/eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens
A
True
12
Q
Which type of Poxviruses are ovoid and resemble a ball of yarn?
a. Parapoxviruses
b. Orthopoxviruses
c. Suipoxviruses
d. None of the above
A
a. Parapoxviruses
13
Q
True or False?
Only the extracellular enveloped visions of poxviruses are infectious
A
False. both EEV and IMV forms are infectious
14
Q
What is the correct order of the Poxvirus “Symphony”?
a. Ma-pu-pa-ve-sca
b. Pu-ma-ve-sca
c. Ma-pa-ve-pu-sca
A
c. Ma-pa-ve-pu-sca
15
Q
Which is false?
a. Poxviruses are resistant to detergents/disinfectants(low lipid)
b. Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm
c. Main species of concern in Cowpox are cows
d. Sheep show a systemic form of the disease in sheep
A
c. Main species of concern in Cowpox are cows
16
Q
Which poxvirus shows a classical “horseshoe” shaped area of scabs?
a. Suipoxvirus
b. Cowpox
c. Capripox
d. Pseudocowpox
A
d. Pseudocowpox
17
Q
True or False?
Both sheep pox and goat pox are reportable?
A
True
18
Q
Which form of fowlpox is considered the most severe?
a. Cutaneous(dry)
b. Diphtheric(wet)
c. Ocular
d. All equally severe
A
b. Diphtheric(wet)
19
Q
Which poxvirus will you see Bollinger and barrel bodies?
a. Cowpox
b. Suipox
c. Fowlpox
d. Capripox
A
c. Fowlpox
20
Q
True or false?
Circoviruses can replicate in any cell
A
False. can only replicate in an actively dividing cell
21
Q
Which virus causes PMWS in piglets?
a. Porcine circovirus 1
b. Porcine circovirus 2
c. Porcine circovirus 3
d. All porcine circoviruses
A
b. Porcine circovirus 2
22
Q
What type of inclusion bodies are seen in circovirus infections?
a. Bollinger bodies
b. Borrel bodies
c. Cowdry Bodies
d. Botyroid Bodies
A
d. Botyroid Bodies
23
Q
Porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome is caused by?
a. Porcine circovirus 1
b. Porcine circovirus 2
c. Porcine Herpesvirus 1
d. Porcine Herpesvirus 2
A
b. Porcine circovirus 2
24
Q
What genus is the chicken anemia virus in?
a. Gyrovirus
b. Circovirus
A
a. Gyrovirus
25
What are the clinical signs of chicken infectious anemia? (2 answers)
a. Diarrhea
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Immunosuppression
d. Autoimmnue
b. Aplastic anemia
| c. Immunosuppression
26
Which is false?
a. Herpesviruses don't survive well in the environment
b. Herpesviruses replicated in the nucleus
c. All have persistent infections and can from Synctia
d. Have Botyroid bodies
d. Have Botyroid bodies
27
True or False?
Alphaherpesvirinae members have the longest replication cycle
False. they have a short replication cycle and are the fastest
28
Which subtype is the "genital" type in bovine herpesvirus 1 infections?
a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 1.3
d. 1.4
b. 1.2
29
Bovine herpesvirus 1 goes latent in which two nerves?
a. Sciatic
b. Facial
c. Trigeminal
d. Cephalic
a. Sciatic
| c. Trigeminal
30
True or False?
The respiratory form (1.1) of Bovine herpesvirus 1 causes infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
True
31
How can you differentiate the ocular form of BHV-1 from true "pink eye"?
a. BHV-1 is only in the aqueous humor
b. Pink eye is caused by BHV-1
c. BHV-1 is confined to the conjunctiva
d. BHV-1 spreads to the keratoconjunctiva
c. BHV-1 is confined to the conjunctiva
32
Which BHV-1 vaccine can cause abortion in pregnant cows?
a. Parental Vaccine
b. Intranasal vaccine
c. Both
d. Neither
a. Parental Vaccine
33
Bovine Ulcerative Mammillitis is caused by?
a. BHV-1 (sometimes 4)
b. BHV-2( sometimes 4)
c. Only BHV-2
d. Only BHV-4
b. BHV-2( sometimes 4)
34
True or False?
Porcine herpesvirus 1 causes "mad itch" in Pigs?
False. pigs rarely itch with these infections but mad itch is seen in the other hosts.
35
Which strain is the most virulent?
a. Equine herpesvirus 4
b. Equine herpesvirus 1
c. Equine herpesvirus 2
d. Equine herpesvirus 5
b. Equine herpesvirus 1
36
Which is not a characteristic of EHV-1 infections?
a. Abortion storms every 3 years
b. Encephalomyelopathy
c. Cutaneous warts
d. Respiratory disease
c. Cutaneous warts
37
Canine herpesvirus 1 infections are most serious in?
a. Prenatal/Neonatal puppies
b. Adult dogs
a. Prenatal/Neonatal puppies
38
Which is an important factor in CHV-1 infections?
a. Confections with other pathogens
b. Body temperature of puppies
c. Breed
d. Number of puppies in litter
b. Body temperature of puppies
39
Feline herpesvirus 1 causes?
a. Infectous feline rhinotracheitis
b. Abortions (not directly due to the virus though)
c. Corneal edema
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
40
True or False?
Gallid herpesvirus 1 causes infectious laryngotracheitis?
True
41
Which is false regarding galled herpesvirus 1?
a. Pump handle respiration
b. Latency in trigeminal nerve
c. Forms diphtheric membranes
d. Severe epizootic form most common
d. Severe epizootic form most common
42
True or False?
B19 chickens are resistant to Marecks disease?
False. B21 are resistant
43
Porcine herpesvirus 2 causes? (2 answers)
a. Inclusion body rhinitis
b. Mareks disease
c. Malignant catarrhal fever
d. Reproductive issues
a. Inclusion body rhinitis
| d. Reproductive issues
44
Zebra striping is seen in?
a. Alphaherpesvirinae
b. Betaherpesvirinae
c. Gammaherpesvirinae
d. Deltaherpesvirinae
c. Gammaherpesvirinae
45
What is the biological vector for African swine fever?
a. Hard ticks
b. Soft ticks
c. Cullicoides
d. Lice
b. Soft ticks
46
True or False?
Blackberry jam spleen is seen in african swine fever infections?
True
47
What treatment should you start if you suspect a case of african swine fever?
a. Antibiotics
b. Supportive therapy until authorities arrive
c. Just leave
d. Report to authorities but don't attempt treatment
d. Report to authorities but don't attempt treatment
48
Feline panluekopenia is caused by?
a. Canine parvovirus 1
b. Feline parvovirus
c. Feline herpesvirus
d. Any parvovirus infection
b. Feline parvovirus
49
Which two virulent strains are mostly seen in America?
a. Canine parvovirus 1
b. Canine parvovirus 2a
c. Canine parvovirus 2b
d. Canine parvovirus 2c
c. Canine parvovirus 2b
| d. Canine parvovirus 2c
50
True or False?
Porcine parvovirus mainly manifests as diarrhea and GI disease?
False. SMEDI
51
True or False?
Abortions are a common feature of porcine parvovirus infections?
False. stillbirth embryonic death, mummification and fertility are common but abortion is not
52
Which is false in regards to papillomaviruses?
a. E6-->p53
b. E7-->Rb
c. Fibropapilloma--> Bovine types 1,2,5
d. Sarcoids--> Equine type 2
d. Sarcoids--> Equine type 2
53
Which combination is associated with alimentary carcinomas in bovine species?
a. Bracken fern and BPV-2
b. Bracken fern and BPV-4
c. Bracken fern and any BVP strain
d. Bracken fern and BVP-1
b. Bracken fern and BPV-4
54
Which horse breed is resistant to sarcoids?
a. Arabian
b. Appaloosa
c. Standardbred
d. American quarter horse
c. Standardbred
55
Which adenovirus genus contains bifurcated penton fibers?
a. Mastadenovirus
b. Aviadenovirus
b. Aviadenovirus
56
How was infectious canine hepatitis distinguished from the viruses?
a. Ferrets were susceptible to ICH but resistant to kennel cough
b. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to kennel cough
c. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to Canine distemper
d. Ferrets were susceptible to ICH but resistant to canine distemper
c. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to Canine distemper
57
Which vaccine can actually pose a risk for development of corneal edema?
a. CAV-1 vaccine
b. CAV-2 vaccine
c. Both
d. Neither
a. CAV-1 vaccine
58
True or False?
Canine adenovirus 2 causses kennel cough?
True
59
Which strain causes severe respiratory disease in SCID foals?
a. EAV-3
b. EAV-2
c. EAV-1
d. All equine adenovirus strains cause these issues
c. EAV-1
60
Marble spleen disease is seen in?
a. Chickens
b. Pheasants
c. Turkeys
d. Ducks
b. Pheasants
61
Alcephaline herpesvirus-1 is transmitted to what animal?
a. Cattle
b. Porcine
c. Sheep
d. Wildebeest
a. Cattle
62
What virus causes balanoposthitis?
a. Bovine herpes virus-1
b. Bovine herpes virus-2
c. Bovine herpes virus-3
d. Equine herpes virus-1
a. Bovine herpes virus-1
63
Which of the following diagnostic tests is useful to study virus load?
a. Genome sequencing
b. Metagenomics
c. Phylogenetic analysis
d. Real time PCR
d. Real time PCR
64
True or False?
Chicken infectious anemia virus is diagnosable if the following is showed on a CBC- Low PCV, anemia, and thrombocytopenia
True
65
Marble spleen disease in pheasants occurs in what virus?
a. Aviadenovirus
b. Avipoxvirus
c. Chicken infectious anemia virus
d. Mareks's disease
a. Aviadenovirus
66
A secondary host of pseudorabies can be ruminants- what is a key clinical sign in these ruminants?
a. Abortions
b. Attacking other cattle
c. Intense pruritus
d. Tremors and padding
c. Intense pruritus
67
True or False?
If contagious ecthyma caused by orf is not present on your farm you should admin the vaccine as a precaution?
False
68
Which vaccines are produced from inactivated whole virions?
a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccines
c. Non-replicating virus vaccines
69
Abortion storms in equines are commonly seen in which herpes virus?
a. Equine herpes virus-1
b. Equine herpes virus-4
a. Equine herpes virus-1
70
True or False?
Porcine parvovirus can cause persistent infection?
True
71
True or False?
EAV- is associated with severe respiratory disease in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) foals?
True
72
True or False?
Isolation applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease?
False
73
Pseudorabies is primarily a disease of what animal?
a. Cats
b. Cows
c. Dogs
d. Equine
e. Pigs
e. Pigs
74
Which of the following is not a characteristic of canine parvovirus?
a. Cholecystitis
b. Enteritis
c. Myocarditis
d. Panleukopenia
a. Cholecystitis
75
Which virus has the presence of characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies such as type B(guarnieri inclusion bodies)?
a. Circovirus
b. Gyrovirus
c. Herpesvirus
d. Poxvirus
d. Poxvirus
76
True or False?
Equine herpesvirus-4 is more pathogenic than equine herpesvirus-1
False
77
What virus is not part of the subfamily alphaherpesvirinae?
a. Bovine herpesvirus-1
b. Feline herpesvirus-1
c. Ovine herpesvirus-2
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1
c. Ovine herpesvirus-2
78
What vaccines are produced from naturally occurring attenuated viruses?
a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccine
b. Live-attenuated vaccine
79
Which vaccine was discontinued in many countries because it produced transient unilateral or bilateral opacities of the cornea and may be shed in the urine?
a. Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccine
b. CAV-2 attenuated live vaccine
a. Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccine
80
True or False?
Oral ulcers are commonly seen in cats with FHV-1?
False
81
True or False?
Pink eye is a common finding in typical "red nose"?
False
82
True or False?
Next generation sequencing is more expensive, quicker, needs more DNA, has high throughput and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?
False
83
Cyanotic skin blotching on the ears, tails, lower legs and hams is sign of what virus?
a. African swine fever
b. Inclusion body rhinitis
c. Orthopoxvirus
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1
e. Suipoxvirus
a. African swine fever
84
True or False?
Genus gyrovirus is a circular-single stranded ambisense DNA?
False
85
Which virus has 12 pentane capsomeres each with a fiber protruding from the surface of capsid?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. Parvovirus
d. Poxvirus
a. Adenovirus
86
True or False?
Pseudorabies is shed in the urine and feces?
False
87
What is a big criteria when preventing fading puppy syndrome?
a. Euthanize puppies after birth
b. Give vaccine to pregnant bitch
c. Reducing hypothermia
d. Take away from mother and bottle feed
c. Reducing hypothermia
88
Which of the following viruses is part of the subfamily Betaherpesvirinae?
a. Alcelaphine herpesvirus-1
b. Bovine herpesvirus-2
c. Porcine herpesvirus-1
d. Porcine herpesvirus-2
d. Porcine herpesvirus-2
89
What virus will have a necropsy finding of a tracheal plug?
a. Fowlpox virus
b. Gallid herpesvirus type-1
c. Gallid herpesvirus type-2
d. Inclusion body rhinitis
b. Gallid herpesvirus type-1
90
True or False?
Disinfection is a term used to describe a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface safe to handle?
False
91
Feline herpesvirus does not cause what?
a. Enteritis
b. Myocarditis
c. Oral ulcers
d. Panleukopenia
c. Oral ulcers
92
Which of the following is not a form of lymphoid tumors in a bird with Marek's disease (Gallid HV-2)
a. All of them are
b. Cutaneouss lymphomatous
c. Neuro lymphomatosis
d. Ocular lymphomatosis
e. Visceral lymphomatosis
a. All of them are
93
Which vaccines are produced by attenuation of viruses by serial passage in cultured cells?
a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccine
b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine
94
True or False?
In sheep pox, pox lesions occur only on the skin?
False
95
ASF virus is the only known DNA arbovirus. What is the biological vector?
a. Flies
b. Lice
c. Mosquitoes
d. Ticks
d. Ticks
96
True or False?
You do not have to quarantine an animal if it was exposed to a contagious disease?
False
97
True or False?
The advantage of using microarrays is that hundreds of pathogens can be screened simultaneously using a single microarray chip?
True
98
True or False?
Sheep pox and goat pox are not systemic diseases?
False
99
What is the most common form of transmission of porcine circovirus type-2?
a. Direct contact
b. Fecal-oral
c. Inhalation
d. Transplacental infection
b. Fecal-oral
100
True or false?
Persistent infection with periodic or continuous shedding occurs in some herpesvirus infections?
False. It occurs in ALL herpesvirus infections
101
True or False?
Acyclovir is admin as a non-prodrug?
False
102
The study of virus evolution using genome sequence data is known as?
a. Metagenomics
b. Microarray
c. PCR
d. Phylogenetics
d. Phylogenetics
103
Ingestion of what will cause bovine papillomavirus-4 to transition to invasive carcinoma of the alimentary tract?
a. Bracken fern
b. Liquid nitrogen
c. Moldy corn
d. Onion
a. Bracken fern
104
In which species is it rare to contract hepatitis with avian adenovirus?
a. Chickens
b. Ducks
c. Pheasants
d. Quail
e. Turkeys
b. Ducks
105
What species does not get mad itch when infected with pseudorabies?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. Pigs
d. Pigs
106
True or false?
In regards to bovine herpes virus, if the virus is latent at the trigeminal nerve then this is associated with respiratory disease?
True
107
What is the etiology of pseudorabies?
a. Canine herpesvirus-1
b. Feline herpesvirus-1
c. Gallid herpesvirus-2
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1
108
what is the most common clinical sign of malignant catarrhal fever in cattle?
a. Diarrhea
b. Head and eye
c. Skin nodules
d. Sudden death
b. Head and eye
109
True or False?
Since there is no damage by CPV to myocardial or cerebellar cells, you can give any vaccination available to pregnant dogs or colostrum-deprived puppies?
False
110
True or False?
The only way to distinguish between sheep pox and goat pox is to perform serology?
False
111
Which virus has blackberry jam spleen and apparent cyanotic skin blotching?
a. ASF
b. Aviadenovirus
c. Pseudocowopox virus
d. Suipox virus
a. ASF
112
True or False?
There are no vaccines for porcine herpes virus?
False
113
Which of the following is defined as the study of the collective set of microbial populations in a sample by analyzing the sample's entire nucleotide sequence content, and is a powerful method for random detection of existing and new pathogens?
a. Metagenomics
b. Next gen sequencing
c. Phylogenic analysis
d. Real time PCR
a. Metagenomics
114
Type A cowry bodies and formation of syncytium is a general characteristic of what virus?
a. Circovirus
b. Herpes virus
c. Parvovirus
d. Poxvirus
b. Herpes virus
115
True or False?
Papillomas causes equine sarcoids?
True
116
Which vaccine is the safest to use for Gallid herpesvirus-1?
a. Chicken embryo origin (CEO)
b. Pox-vectored recombinant vaccine
c. Tissue culture origin (TCO)
c. Tissue culture origin (TCO)
117
True or False?
The genome of poxviruses consists of a triple molecule of of linear double-stranded DNA?
False
118
Latency is a hallmark of which of the following viruses?
a. ASF
b. Herpesvirus
c. Mastadenovirus
d. Parvovirus
b. Herpesvirus
119
Which virus is a major cause of SMEDI?
a. Canine parvovirus
b. Equine parvovirus
c. Feline parvovirus
d. Porcine parvovirus
d. Porcine parvovirus
120
True or False?
You don't have to isolate and animal until the test positive by a diagnostic test?
False
121
True or False?
After an acute infection of canine adenovirus-1 the virus can be shed in the urine for 6-9 months?
True
122
What virus causes contagious ecthyma?
a. cowpox virus
b. Orf virus
c. Pseudocowpox virus
d. Sheep pox virus
b. Orf virus
123
True or False?
Acyclovir is a synthetic nucleoside analog of dTTP?
False
124
True or False?
The best way to produce immunity fro ASF is to vaccinate?
False
125
Sheep pox is commonly transmitted by?
a. Aerosol route
b. Direct contact with contaminated objects
c. Mechanical transmission by arthropods
d. Skin injury
a. Aerosol route
126
Infectious pustular vaginitis is a genital disease of what virus?
a. Bovine herpesvirus-1
b. Bovine herpesvirus-2
c. Equine herpesvirus-1
d. Equine herpesvirus-4
a. Bovine herpesvirus-1
127
Which virus leaves a horseshoe shaped ring of small scabs?
a. Contagious ecthyma
b. Cowpox
c. Lumpy skin disease
d. Pseudocow pox
e. Sheep pox
d. Pseudocow pox
128
Which of the following are the correct antigenic variants of canine parvovirus 2?
a. All of them
b. CPV-2a
c. CPV-2b
d. CPV-2c
a. All of them
129
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Equine herpesvirus?
a. Abortion
b. Encephlalomyelopathy
c. Respiratory disease
d. Ulcerative mammalitis
d. Ulcerative mammalitis
130
What form of fowlpox cause death by asphyxiation?
a. Cutaneous form
b. Diptheritic form
c. Dry form
d. Ocular form
b. Diptheritic form
131
What is the most common form of fowlpox?
a. Cutaneous form
b. Diptheritic form
c. Ocular form
a. Cutaneous form
132
True or False?
Corneal adema (blue eye) is seen prior to infection of canine adenovirus-1 (CAV-1) (canine hepatitis)-
False
133
What virus causes PDNS (porcine dermatitis and nephorpathy syndrome)?
a. Porcine circovirus type-2
b. Porcine circovirus type-1
c. Porcine herpesvirus-1
d. Porcine herpesvirus-2
a. Porcine circovirus type-2
134
Which of the following is not a molecular test?
a. Agar gel immunodiffusion
b. Microarray
c. PCR
d. Real time PCR
b. Microarray
135
Which drug inhibits replication of most strains of influenza A viruses by blocking uncoating of the virus?
a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Didanosine
d. Zidovudine
b. Amantadine
136
Which of the following is not effective for ASF?
a. Administer vaccine for prevention
b. Boil swill for 30 mins and allow to cool before feeding
c. Pigs should be kept in well constructed pig sites under hygienic conditions with controlled entry
d. Pigs should not be fed swill that might contain remains of pigs
a. Administer vaccine for prevention
137
True or False?
Pox viruses are DNA viruses, and therefor, predominantly replicate in the nucleus of the host cell?
False
138
True or False
Pseudocowpox is zoonotic?
True
139
Orf is caused by?
a. Orthopoxviruses
b. Parapoxviruses
b. Parapoxviruses
140
True or False
Sheeppox and goatpox cannot be distinguished from each other using serological techniques?
True
141
True or False
Herpes viruses are stable in dry environments?
False
142
Which one of the following species is considered the primary host of pseudorabies?
a. Dogs
b. Cattle
c. Horse
d. Pigs
d. Pigs
143
True or False
In EHV-1 infection of pregnant mares, the majority of cases of abortion are seen during the first trimester of pregnancy?
False
144
True or False?
In-utero infection with canine herpesvirus-1 usually results in puppies that survive with neurological disorders?
False
145
True or False
Feline herpesvirus-1 crosses the placenta and causes abortion in infected queen cats?
False
146
Zebra striping like congestion streaks in colon are seen in?
a. Pseudorabies
b. Malignant catarrhal fever
c. Cowpox
d. Bovine infectious rhinotracheitis
b. Malignant catarrhal fever
147
Marble spleen disease is caused by?
a. Canine adenovirus
b. Equine adenovirus
c. Avian adenovirus
d. Porcine adenovirus
c. Avian adenovirus
148
Where is the primary site of viral replication of pseudorabies in pigs?
a. Bloodstream
b. Upper resp tract
c. CNS
d. Lower resp tract
b. Upper resp tract
