Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Virology > Viro exam 2 > Flashcards

Viro exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used to?

a. Stain the virus and make it visible
b. Detect any viral proteins
c. Amplify the viral DNA
d. Detect antibodies

A

c. Amplify the viral DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which is not a step of PCR?

a. Annealing
b. Processing
c. Extension
d. Denaturing

A

b. Processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

True or False?

Metagenomics is used to detect specific pathogens in a sample?

A

False- used for random detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which diagnostic test allows hundreds of pathogens to be screened at the same time using one chip?

a. PCR
b. Metagenomics
c. Microarrays
d. ELISA

A

c. Microarrays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acyclovir is used for the treatment of?

a. Herpesviruses
b. HIV
c. Poxviruses
d. Flu viruses

A

a. Herpesviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is not true about Acyclovir?

a. Administered as a prodrug
b. Synthetic form of Guanosine
c. Prevents elongation of NA sequence
d. Toxic to the host cell

A

d. Toxic to the host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Amantadine is used to treat the flu virus and works on the ____?

a. M1 channel
b. M2 channel
c. P53
d. Rb

A

b. M2 channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which pair is incorrect?

a. Oseltamivir—> influenza A & B
b. Zidovudine(ZVD)/ Azidothymidine (AZT)—> thymine copycat
c. Zidovudine(ZVD)/ Azidothymidine (AZT)—> Nucleoside Analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors k
d. Protease inhibitors—> HIV
e. All are correct

A

e. All are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is not a form of a “live-attenuated” vaccine?

a. Attenuation of viruses by serial passage in cultured cells
b. Attenuation of viruses by serial passage in heterologous hosts
c. Attenuation by selection of cold-adapted mutants/reassortments
d. Using inactivated/non-replicating viruses as vaccines

A

d. Using inactivated/non-replicating viruses as vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of vaccine would you use if you wanted to later test to see who was vaccinated or naturally infected?

a. Live attenuated
b. DIVA
c. Inactivated vaccines
d. Vaccines made from only viral proteins

A

b. DIVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False

Sterilization destroys/eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of Poxviruses are ovoid and resemble a ball of yarn?

a. Parapoxviruses
b. Orthopoxviruses
c. Suipoxviruses
d. None of the above

A

a. Parapoxviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False?

Only the extracellular enveloped visions of poxviruses are infectious

A

False. both EEV and IMV forms are infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the correct order of the Poxvirus “Symphony”?

a. Ma-pu-pa-ve-sca
b. Pu-ma-ve-sca
c. Ma-pa-ve-pu-sca

A

c. Ma-pa-ve-pu-sca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is false?

a. Poxviruses are resistant to detergents/disinfectants(low lipid)
b. Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm
c. Main species of concern in Cowpox are cows
d. Sheep show a systemic form of the disease in sheep

A

c. Main species of concern in Cowpox are cows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which poxvirus shows a classical “horseshoe” shaped area of scabs?

a. Suipoxvirus
b. Cowpox
c. Capripox
d. Pseudocowpox

A

d. Pseudocowpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False?

Both sheep pox and goat pox are reportable?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which form of fowlpox is considered the most severe?

a. Cutaneous(dry)
b. Diphtheric(wet)
c. Ocular
d. All equally severe

A

b. Diphtheric(wet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which poxvirus will you see Bollinger and barrel bodies?

a. Cowpox
b. Suipox
c. Fowlpox
d. Capripox

A

c. Fowlpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false?

Circoviruses can replicate in any cell

A

False. can only replicate in an actively dividing cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which virus causes PMWS in piglets?

a. Porcine circovirus 1
b. Porcine circovirus 2
c. Porcine circovirus 3
d. All porcine circoviruses

A

b. Porcine circovirus 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of inclusion bodies are seen in circovirus infections?

a. Bollinger bodies
b. Borrel bodies
c. Cowdry Bodies
d. Botyroid Bodies

A

d. Botyroid Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Porcine dermatitis and nephropathy syndrome is caused by?

a. Porcine circovirus 1
b. Porcine circovirus 2
c. Porcine Herpesvirus 1
d. Porcine Herpesvirus 2

A

b. Porcine circovirus 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What genus is the chicken anemia virus in?

a. Gyrovirus
b. Circovirus

A

a. Gyrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the clinical signs of chicken infectious anemia? (2 answers)

a. Diarrhea
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Immunosuppression
d. Autoimmnue

A

b. Aplastic anemia

c. Immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which is false?

a. Herpesviruses don’t survive well in the environment
b. Herpesviruses replicated in the nucleus
c. All have persistent infections and can from Synctia
d. Have Botyroid bodies

A

d. Have Botyroid bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or False?

Alphaherpesvirinae members have the longest replication cycle

A

False. they have a short replication cycle and are the fastest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which subtype is the “genital” type in bovine herpesvirus 1 infections?

a. 1.1
b. 1.2
c. 1.3
d. 1.4

A

b. 1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Bovine herpesvirus 1 goes latent in which two nerves?

a. Sciatic
b. Facial
c. Trigeminal
d. Cephalic

A

a. Sciatic

c. Trigeminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False?

The respiratory form (1.1) of Bovine herpesvirus 1 causes infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How can you differentiate the ocular form of BHV-1 from true “pink eye”?

a. BHV-1 is only in the aqueous humor
b. Pink eye is caused by BHV-1
c. BHV-1 is confined to the conjunctiva
d. BHV-1 spreads to the keratoconjunctiva

A

c. BHV-1 is confined to the conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which BHV-1 vaccine can cause abortion in pregnant cows?

a. Parental Vaccine
b. Intranasal vaccine
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. Parental Vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Bovine Ulcerative Mammillitis is caused by?

a. BHV-1 (sometimes 4)
b. BHV-2( sometimes 4)
c. Only BHV-2
d. Only BHV-4

A

b. BHV-2( sometimes 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or False?

Porcine herpesvirus 1 causes “mad itch” in Pigs?

A

False. pigs rarely itch with these infections but mad itch is seen in the other hosts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which strain is the most virulent?

a. Equine herpesvirus 4
b. Equine herpesvirus 1
c. Equine herpesvirus 2
d. Equine herpesvirus 5

A

b. Equine herpesvirus 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which is not a characteristic of EHV-1 infections?

a. Abortion storms every 3 years
b. Encephalomyelopathy
c. Cutaneous warts
d. Respiratory disease

A

c. Cutaneous warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Canine herpesvirus 1 infections are most serious in?

a. Prenatal/Neonatal puppies
b. Adult dogs

A

a. Prenatal/Neonatal puppies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which is an important factor in CHV-1 infections?

a. Confections with other pathogens
b. Body temperature of puppies
c. Breed
d. Number of puppies in litter

A

b. Body temperature of puppies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Feline herpesvirus 1 causes?

a. Infectous feline rhinotracheitis
b. Abortions (not directly due to the virus though)
c. Corneal edema
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

True or False?

Gallid herpesvirus 1 causes infectious laryngotracheitis?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which is false regarding galled herpesvirus 1?

a. Pump handle respiration
b. Latency in trigeminal nerve
c. Forms diphtheric membranes
d. Severe epizootic form most common

A

d. Severe epizootic form most common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False?

B19 chickens are resistant to Marecks disease?

A

False. B21 are resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Porcine herpesvirus 2 causes? (2 answers)

a. Inclusion body rhinitis
b. Mareks disease
c. Malignant catarrhal fever
d. Reproductive issues

A

a. Inclusion body rhinitis

d. Reproductive issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Zebra striping is seen in?

a. Alphaherpesvirinae
b. Betaherpesvirinae
c. Gammaherpesvirinae
d. Deltaherpesvirinae

A

c. Gammaherpesvirinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the biological vector for African swine fever?

a. Hard ticks
b. Soft ticks
c. Cullicoides
d. Lice

A

b. Soft ticks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

True or False?

Blackberry jam spleen is seen in african swine fever infections?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What treatment should you start if you suspect a case of african swine fever?

a. Antibiotics
b. Supportive therapy until authorities arrive
c. Just leave
d. Report to authorities but don’t attempt treatment

A

d. Report to authorities but don’t attempt treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Feline panluekopenia is caused by?

a. Canine parvovirus 1
b. Feline parvovirus
c. Feline herpesvirus
d. Any parvovirus infection

A

b. Feline parvovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which two virulent strains are mostly seen in America?

a. Canine parvovirus 1
b. Canine parvovirus 2a
c. Canine parvovirus 2b
d. Canine parvovirus 2c

A

c. Canine parvovirus 2b

d. Canine parvovirus 2c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or False?

Porcine parvovirus mainly manifests as diarrhea and GI disease?

A

False. SMEDI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

True or False?

Abortions are a common feature of porcine parvovirus infections?

A

False. stillbirth embryonic death, mummification and fertility are common but abortion is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which is false in regards to papillomaviruses?

a. E6–>p53
b. E7–>Rb
c. Fibropapilloma–> Bovine types 1,2,5
d. Sarcoids–> Equine type 2

A

d. Sarcoids–> Equine type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which combination is associated with alimentary carcinomas in bovine species?

a. Bracken fern and BPV-2
b. Bracken fern and BPV-4
c. Bracken fern and any BVP strain
d. Bracken fern and BVP-1

A

b. Bracken fern and BPV-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which horse breed is resistant to sarcoids?

a. Arabian
b. Appaloosa
c. Standardbred
d. American quarter horse

A

c. Standardbred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which adenovirus genus contains bifurcated penton fibers?

a. Mastadenovirus
b. Aviadenovirus

A

b. Aviadenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How was infectious canine hepatitis distinguished from the viruses?

a. Ferrets were susceptible to ICH but resistant to kennel cough
b. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to kennel cough
c. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to Canine distemper
d. Ferrets were susceptible to ICH but resistant to canine distemper

A

c. Ferrets were resistant to ICH but susceptible to Canine distemper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which vaccine can actually pose a risk for development of corneal edema?

a. CAV-1 vaccine
b. CAV-2 vaccine
c. Both
d. Neither

A

a. CAV-1 vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

True or False?

Canine adenovirus 2 causses kennel cough?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which strain causes severe respiratory disease in SCID foals?

a. EAV-3
b. EAV-2
c. EAV-1
d. All equine adenovirus strains cause these issues

A

c. EAV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Marble spleen disease is seen in?

a. Chickens
b. Pheasants
c. Turkeys
d. Ducks

A

b. Pheasants

61
Q

Alcephaline herpesvirus-1 is transmitted to what animal?

a. Cattle
b. Porcine
c. Sheep
d. Wildebeest

A

a. Cattle

62
Q

What virus causes balanoposthitis?

a. Bovine herpes virus-1
b. Bovine herpes virus-2
c. Bovine herpes virus-3
d. Equine herpes virus-1

A

a. Bovine herpes virus-1

63
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests is useful to study virus load?

a. Genome sequencing
b. Metagenomics
c. Phylogenetic analysis
d. Real time PCR

A

d. Real time PCR

64
Q

True or False?

Chicken infectious anemia virus is diagnosable if the following is showed on a CBC- Low PCV, anemia, and thrombocytopenia

A

True

65
Q

Marble spleen disease in pheasants occurs in what virus?

a. Aviadenovirus
b. Avipoxvirus
c. Chicken infectious anemia virus
d. Mareks’s disease

A

a. Aviadenovirus

66
Q

A secondary host of pseudorabies can be ruminants- what is a key clinical sign in these ruminants?

a. Abortions
b. Attacking other cattle
c. Intense pruritus
d. Tremors and padding

A

c. Intense pruritus

67
Q

True or False?

If contagious ecthyma caused by orf is not present on your farm you should admin the vaccine as a precaution?

A

False

68
Q

Which vaccines are produced from inactivated whole virions?

a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccines

A

c. Non-replicating virus vaccines

69
Q

Abortion storms in equines are commonly seen in which herpes virus?

a. Equine herpes virus-1
b. Equine herpes virus-4

A

a. Equine herpes virus-1

70
Q

True or False?

Porcine parvovirus can cause persistent infection?

A

True

71
Q

True or False?

EAV- is associated with severe respiratory disease in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) foals?

A

True

72
Q

True or False?

Isolation applies to those who have been exposed to a contagious disease?

A

False

73
Q

Pseudorabies is primarily a disease of what animal?

a. Cats
b. Cows
c. Dogs
d. Equine
e. Pigs

A

e. Pigs

74
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of canine parvovirus?

a. Cholecystitis
b. Enteritis
c. Myocarditis
d. Panleukopenia

A

a. Cholecystitis

75
Q

Which virus has the presence of characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies such as type B(guarnieri inclusion bodies)?

a. Circovirus
b. Gyrovirus
c. Herpesvirus
d. Poxvirus

A

d. Poxvirus

76
Q

True or False?

Equine herpesvirus-4 is more pathogenic than equine herpesvirus-1

A

False

77
Q

What virus is not part of the subfamily alphaherpesvirinae?

a. Bovine herpesvirus-1
b. Feline herpesvirus-1
c. Ovine herpesvirus-2
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1

A

c. Ovine herpesvirus-2

78
Q

What vaccines are produced from naturally occurring attenuated viruses?

a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccine

A

b. Live-attenuated vaccine

79
Q

Which vaccine was discontinued in many countries because it produced transient unilateral or bilateral opacities of the cornea and may be shed in the urine?

a. Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccine
b. CAV-2 attenuated live vaccine

A

a. Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccine

80
Q

True or False?

Oral ulcers are commonly seen in cats with FHV-1?

A

False

81
Q

True or False?

Pink eye is a common finding in typical “red nose”?

A

False

82
Q

True or False?

Next generation sequencing is more expensive, quicker, needs more DNA, has high throughput and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?

A

False

83
Q

Cyanotic skin blotching on the ears, tails, lower legs and hams is sign of what virus?

a. African swine fever
b. Inclusion body rhinitis
c. Orthopoxvirus
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1
e. Suipoxvirus

A

a. African swine fever

84
Q

True or False?

Genus gyrovirus is a circular-single stranded ambisense DNA?

A

False

85
Q

Which virus has 12 pentane capsomeres each with a fiber protruding from the surface of capsid?

a. Adenovirus
b. Herpesvirus
c. Parvovirus
d. Poxvirus

A

a. Adenovirus

86
Q

True or False?

Pseudorabies is shed in the urine and feces?

A

False

87
Q

What is a big criteria when preventing fading puppy syndrome?

a. Euthanize puppies after birth
b. Give vaccine to pregnant bitch
c. Reducing hypothermia
d. Take away from mother and bottle feed

A

c. Reducing hypothermia

88
Q

Which of the following viruses is part of the subfamily Betaherpesvirinae?

a. Alcelaphine herpesvirus-1
b. Bovine herpesvirus-2
c. Porcine herpesvirus-1
d. Porcine herpesvirus-2

A

d. Porcine herpesvirus-2

89
Q

What virus will have a necropsy finding of a tracheal plug?

a. Fowlpox virus
b. Gallid herpesvirus type-1
c. Gallid herpesvirus type-2
d. Inclusion body rhinitis

A

b. Gallid herpesvirus type-1

90
Q

True or False?

Disinfection is a term used to describe a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface safe to handle?

A

False

91
Q

Feline herpesvirus does not cause what?

a. Enteritis
b. Myocarditis
c. Oral ulcers
d. Panleukopenia

A

c. Oral ulcers

92
Q

Which of the following is not a form of lymphoid tumors in a bird with Marek’s disease (Gallid HV-2)

a. All of them are
b. Cutaneouss lymphomatous
c. Neuro lymphomatosis
d. Ocular lymphomatosis
e. Visceral lymphomatosis

A

a. All of them are

93
Q

Which vaccines are produced by attenuation of viruses by serial passage in cultured cells?

a. DIVA
b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine
c. Non-replicating virus vaccine

A

b. Live-attenuated virus vaccine

94
Q

True or False?

In sheep pox, pox lesions occur only on the skin?

A

False

95
Q

ASF virus is the only known DNA arbovirus. What is the biological vector?

a. Flies
b. Lice
c. Mosquitoes
d. Ticks

A

d. Ticks

96
Q

True or False?

You do not have to quarantine an animal if it was exposed to a contagious disease?

A

False

97
Q

True or False?

The advantage of using microarrays is that hundreds of pathogens can be screened simultaneously using a single microarray chip?

A

True

98
Q

True or False?

Sheep pox and goat pox are not systemic diseases?

A

False

99
Q

What is the most common form of transmission of porcine circovirus type-2?

a. Direct contact
b. Fecal-oral
c. Inhalation
d. Transplacental infection

A

b. Fecal-oral

100
Q

True or false?

Persistent infection with periodic or continuous shedding occurs in some herpesvirus infections?

A

False. It occurs in ALL herpesvirus infections

101
Q

True or False?

Acyclovir is admin as a non-prodrug?

A

False

102
Q

The study of virus evolution using genome sequence data is known as?

a. Metagenomics
b. Microarray
c. PCR
d. Phylogenetics

A

d. Phylogenetics

103
Q

Ingestion of what will cause bovine papillomavirus-4 to transition to invasive carcinoma of the alimentary tract?

a. Bracken fern
b. Liquid nitrogen
c. Moldy corn
d. Onion

A

a. Bracken fern

104
Q

In which species is it rare to contract hepatitis with avian adenovirus?

a. Chickens
b. Ducks
c. Pheasants
d. Quail
e. Turkeys

A

b. Ducks

105
Q

What species does not get mad itch when infected with pseudorabies?

a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Dogs
d. Pigs

A

d. Pigs

106
Q

True or false?

In regards to bovine herpes virus, if the virus is latent at the trigeminal nerve then this is associated with respiratory disease?

A

True

107
Q

What is the etiology of pseudorabies?

a. Canine herpesvirus-1
b. Feline herpesvirus-1
c. Gallid herpesvirus-2
d. Porcine herpesvirus-1

A

d. Porcine herpesvirus-1

108
Q

what is the most common clinical sign of malignant catarrhal fever in cattle?

a. Diarrhea
b. Head and eye
c. Skin nodules
d. Sudden death

A

b. Head and eye

109
Q

True or False?

Since there is no damage by CPV to myocardial or cerebellar cells, you can give any vaccination available to pregnant dogs or colostrum-deprived puppies?

A

False

110
Q

True or False?

The only way to distinguish between sheep pox and goat pox is to perform serology?

A

False

111
Q

Which virus has blackberry jam spleen and apparent cyanotic skin blotching?

a. ASF
b. Aviadenovirus
c. Pseudocowopox virus
d. Suipox virus

A

a. ASF

112
Q

True or False?

There are no vaccines for porcine herpes virus?

A

False

113
Q

Which of the following is defined as the study of the collective set of microbial populations in a sample by analyzing the sample’s entire nucleotide sequence content, and is a powerful method for random detection of existing and new pathogens?

a. Metagenomics
b. Next gen sequencing
c. Phylogenic analysis
d. Real time PCR

A

a. Metagenomics

114
Q

Type A cowry bodies and formation of syncytium is a general characteristic of what virus?

a. Circovirus
b. Herpes virus
c. Parvovirus
d. Poxvirus

A

b. Herpes virus

115
Q

True or False?

Papillomas causes equine sarcoids?

A

True

116
Q

Which vaccine is the safest to use for Gallid herpesvirus-1?

a. Chicken embryo origin (CEO)
b. Pox-vectored recombinant vaccine
c. Tissue culture origin (TCO)

A

c. Tissue culture origin (TCO)

117
Q

True or False?

The genome of poxviruses consists of a triple molecule of of linear double-stranded DNA?

A

False

118
Q

Latency is a hallmark of which of the following viruses?

a. ASF
b. Herpesvirus
c. Mastadenovirus
d. Parvovirus

A

b. Herpesvirus

119
Q

Which virus is a major cause of SMEDI?

a. Canine parvovirus
b. Equine parvovirus
c. Feline parvovirus
d. Porcine parvovirus

A

d. Porcine parvovirus

120
Q

True or False?

You don’t have to isolate and animal until the test positive by a diagnostic test?

A

False

121
Q

True or False?

After an acute infection of canine adenovirus-1 the virus can be shed in the urine for 6-9 months?

A

True

122
Q

What virus causes contagious ecthyma?

a. cowpox virus
b. Orf virus
c. Pseudocowpox virus
d. Sheep pox virus

A

b. Orf virus

123
Q

True or False?

Acyclovir is a synthetic nucleoside analog of dTTP?

A

False

124
Q

True or False?

The best way to produce immunity fro ASF is to vaccinate?

A

False

125
Q

Sheep pox is commonly transmitted by?

a. Aerosol route
b. Direct contact with contaminated objects
c. Mechanical transmission by arthropods
d. Skin injury

A

a. Aerosol route

126
Q

Infectious pustular vaginitis is a genital disease of what virus?

a. Bovine herpesvirus-1
b. Bovine herpesvirus-2
c. Equine herpesvirus-1
d. Equine herpesvirus-4

A

a. Bovine herpesvirus-1

127
Q

Which virus leaves a horseshoe shaped ring of small scabs?

a. Contagious ecthyma
b. Cowpox
c. Lumpy skin disease
d. Pseudocow pox
e. Sheep pox

A

d. Pseudocow pox

128
Q

Which of the following are the correct antigenic variants of canine parvovirus 2?

a. All of them
b. CPV-2a
c. CPV-2b
d. CPV-2c

A

a. All of them

129
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Equine herpesvirus?

a. Abortion
b. Encephlalomyelopathy
c. Respiratory disease
d. Ulcerative mammalitis

A

d. Ulcerative mammalitis

130
Q

What form of fowlpox cause death by asphyxiation?

a. Cutaneous form
b. Diptheritic form
c. Dry form
d. Ocular form

A

b. Diptheritic form

131
Q

What is the most common form of fowlpox?

a. Cutaneous form
b. Diptheritic form
c. Ocular form

A

a. Cutaneous form

132
Q

True or False?

Corneal adema (blue eye) is seen prior to infection of canine adenovirus-1 (CAV-1) (canine hepatitis)-

A

False

133
Q

What virus causes PDNS (porcine dermatitis and nephorpathy syndrome)?

a. Porcine circovirus type-2
b. Porcine circovirus type-1
c. Porcine herpesvirus-1
d. Porcine herpesvirus-2

A

a. Porcine circovirus type-2

134
Q

Which of the following is not a molecular test?

a. Agar gel immunodiffusion
b. Microarray
c. PCR
d. Real time PCR

A

b. Microarray

135
Q

Which drug inhibits replication of most strains of influenza A viruses by blocking uncoating of the virus?

a. Acyclovir
b. Amantadine
c. Didanosine
d. Zidovudine

A

b. Amantadine

136
Q

Which of the following is not effective for ASF?

a. Administer vaccine for prevention
b. Boil swill for 30 mins and allow to cool before feeding
c. Pigs should be kept in well constructed pig sites under hygienic conditions with controlled entry
d. Pigs should not be fed swill that might contain remains of pigs

A

a. Administer vaccine for prevention

137
Q

True or False?

Pox viruses are DNA viruses, and therefor, predominantly replicate in the nucleus of the host cell?

A

False

138
Q

True or False

Pseudocowpox is zoonotic?

A

True

139
Q

Orf is caused by?

a. Orthopoxviruses
b. Parapoxviruses

A

b. Parapoxviruses

140
Q

True or False

Sheeppox and goatpox cannot be distinguished from each other using serological techniques?

A

True

141
Q

True or False

Herpes viruses are stable in dry environments?

A

False

142
Q

Which one of the following species is considered the primary host of pseudorabies?

a. Dogs
b. Cattle
c. Horse
d. Pigs

A

d. Pigs

143
Q

True or False

In EHV-1 infection of pregnant mares, the majority of cases of abortion are seen during the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

False

144
Q

True or False?

In-utero infection with canine herpesvirus-1 usually results in puppies that survive with neurological disorders?

A

False

145
Q

True or False

Feline herpesvirus-1 crosses the placenta and causes abortion in infected queen cats?

A

False

146
Q

Zebra striping like congestion streaks in colon are seen in?

a. Pseudorabies
b. Malignant catarrhal fever
c. Cowpox
d. Bovine infectious rhinotracheitis

A

b. Malignant catarrhal fever

147
Q

Marble spleen disease is caused by?

a. Canine adenovirus
b. Equine adenovirus
c. Avian adenovirus
d. Porcine adenovirus

A

c. Avian adenovirus

148
Q

Where is the primary site of viral replication of pseudorabies in pigs?

a. Bloodstream
b. Upper resp tract
c. CNS
d. Lower resp tract

A

b. Upper resp tract

Virology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions