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RUSVM Virology > Viro Exam 2 > Flashcards

Viro Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How does PCR work?

A

Denaturation -> annealing -> extension/elongation

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2
Q

What is real-time polymerase chain rxn?

A

Real-time PCR or quantitative PCR is an advanced form of PCR that allows monitoring and quantification of increasing accumulation of PCR products/nucleic acid load as the reaction progress . Useful to study virus load in patient

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3
Q

T/F Genome sequencing is DNA sequencing that refers to the process by which the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule is elucidated/can be obtained and read.

A

True

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4
Q

T/F next generation sequencing is much more expensive, quicker, needs significantly less DNA, has high throughput, and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?

A

False- why?
next generation sequencing is much more cheaper, quicker, needs significantly less DNA, has high throughput, and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?

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5
Q

Define Metagenomics

A

Metagenomics is the study of the collective set of microbial populations in a sample by analyzing the sample’s entire nucleotide sequence content, and is a powerful method for random detection of existing and new pathogens.

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6
Q

What is phylogenetic analysis

A

The use of virus genome sequence data to study evolution of viruses and genetic relationships among viruses

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7
Q

Acyclovir is used to treat what virus

A

Herpes

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8
Q

Acyclovir is a synthetic what?

A

Nucleoside analog of deoxyguanosine

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9
Q

T/F Acyclovir is toxic to the uninfected host cell?

A

False- is non-toxic to the uninfected host cell

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10
Q

Amantadine inhibits what

A

inhibits replication of most strains of influenza A viruses by blocking uncoating of the virus.

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11
Q

M2 ion channel is the target of what antiviral drug

A

Amantadine

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12
Q

What happens in the presence of Amantadine

A

Viral RNA’s remain bound to M1 and cannot enter the nucleus. Virus replication is inhibited.

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13
Q

What drug is a a neuraminidase inhibitor

A

Oseltamivir (tamiflu)

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14
Q

What is a neuraminidase inhibitor

A

Inhibitors of neuraminidase [NA] enzymes synthesized by influenza A and B viruses

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15
Q

Which drugs are nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

A

AZT (Azidothymidine) + ZDV (Zidovudine)

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16
Q

Which drug has been shown to reduce clinical sign s in FIV positive cats when admin at dose of 10mg/kg 2x daily- SQ for a period of 3 weeks.

A

AZT (azidothymidine)

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17
Q

What is required to cleave the HIV polyproteins into functional proteins

A

Proteases

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18
Q

Which vaccination has subunit ‘marker vaccines’

A

DIVE (differentiating infected from vax animals)

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19
Q

When do you isolate an animal/person

A

when they are known to be clinically ill with a contagious disease

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20
Q

When do you quarantine a animal?

A

when they have been exposed to a contagious disease .

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21
Q

Define decontamination

A

used to describe a process of treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface to handle.

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22
Q

Define Sterilization

A

a process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens, including highly resistant pathogens such as bacteria with spores

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23
Q

Define disinfection

A

a process that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except bacterial spores on inanimate objects

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24
Q

T/F Disinfection is less effective than sterilization

A

True

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25
Q

T/F Moist heat is used via autoclave

A

True

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26
Q

T/F non-ionizing (UV radiation) and Gamma rays, x-rays (ionizing) are forms of Radiation

A

True

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27
Q

Where does replications of poxviruses occur?

A

The Cytoplasm

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28
Q

T/F poxviruses can survive many years in dried scabs and other virus laden material

A

True

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29
Q

Genus Orthopoxvirus is also called what?

A

Cowpox

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30
Q

Genus Parapoxvirus is also called what?

A

Pseudocowpox (cattle, humans)

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31
Q

Pseudocow pox can also infect humans and the condition is commonly referred to as what?

A

Milker’s nodule

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32
Q

Which virus leaves a horseshoe-shaped ring of small scabs

A

Psuedocow pox

Genus: parapoxvirus

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33
Q

Contagious Ecthyma is caused by what virus and what is the genus of that virus

A

Caused by ORF virus the genus is parapoxvirus

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34
Q

Contagious ecthyma is transmitted to healthy animals primarily through what?

A

Damaged skin

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35
Q

T/F In no circumstances should the vaccine be used on farms that do not have a problem with orf.

A

TRUE

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36
Q

Sheep pox, goat pox, and lumpy skin disease are affected by what genus?

A

Capripoxvirus

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37
Q

What is the common/important route of transmission for Sheeppox and goatpox

A

Aerosol (respiratory route)

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38
Q

T/F Sheep pox is a systemic disease

A

True

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39
Q

what are the two forms of sheeppox

A

-Malignant and benign form

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40
Q

T/F sheeppox is not notifiable

A

False- it is.

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41
Q

Lumpy skin disease is a member of what genus

A

Capripoxvirus

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42
Q

What viruses are under the genus Capripoxvirus

A

Sheep pox / Goat pox / Lumpy skin disease (cattle)

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43
Q

What pox is under the genus Suipoxvirus

A

Swine pox

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44
Q

What is the mechanical vector of swinepox (suipoxvirus)

A

Pig louse -> Haematopinus suis.

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45
Q

T/F there is evidence of transplacental infection of neonatal pigs in swinepox

A

True

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46
Q

T/F the use of a commercially available vaccine will take care of swine pox.

A

False- no commercially avail. vaccine

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47
Q

Fowlpox and chickenpox are the same virus

A

False- chicken pox is caused by human herpesvirus 3 (varicella zoster virus)

48
Q

What are the 3 forms of fowlpox

A
  1. Cutaneous form (dry form)
  2. Diphtheritic form (wet form)
  3. Ocular form
49
Q

What is the most common form of fowlpox

A

Cutaneous form (dry form)

50
Q

Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is caused by what?

A

Porcine Circovirus type 2

51
Q

What is the most common method of spreading porcine post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome

A

fecal-oral transmission

52
Q

Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS) pathogenesis is characterized by what?

A

“botryoid” (grape-like) intra-cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in virus infected macrophages

53
Q

What are the two genus of ciroviridae

A
  1. Circovirus

2. Gyrovirus -> chicken infectious anemia

54
Q

T/F Gyrovirus is highly contagious to older chickens 2-4 years old

A

False- young chickens 2-4 weeks old

55
Q

How is gyrovirus (chicken infectious anemia) transmitted?

A
  • virus shed in feces and feather dander
  • Horizontal transmission through inhalation or oral exposure
  • Virus also transmitted vertically through egg.
56
Q

What is the virus morphology of Herpesviridae

A
  • Enveloped, spherical to pleomorphic

- The capsid is surrounded by a layer of globular material, known as tegument

57
Q

Where does viral replication and encapsidation occur in Herpesviridae

A

The nucleus

58
Q

T/F Latently infected animals with herpesvirus serve as reservoir for transmission

A

True

59
Q

What are the subfamilies of herpesviridae

A
  1. Alphaherpesvirinae
  2. Betaherpesvirinae
  3. Gammaherpesvirinae
60
Q

What are the subtypes of BHV-1

A

BHV-1.1 (respiratory subtype)

BHV-1.2 (genital subtype)

61
Q

Sites of latency of BHV-1

A

Trigeminal nerve = resp. disease

Sciatic nerve =genital disease

62
Q

what is Balanoposthitis

A

inflammation and pustules in the mucosa of the penis and prepuce.

63
Q

What are the disorders associated with Bovine Herpesvirus 1

A
  • infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
  • infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
  • ocular form of IBR
  • Abortion
  • Systemic disease of newborn calves
64
Q

What are the disorders associated with Bovine Herpesvirus 2

A
  • Bovine ulcerative mammiliitis

- Pseudo-lumpy skin disease

65
Q

What is the transmission of bovine ulcerative mammaillitis

A
  • Direct-contact and fomite mediated , trauma to skin

- Mech. transmission by stable flies and other arthropods

66
Q

What is the etiology of pseudorabies (aujeszky disease, mad itch)

A

Porcine herpesvirus 1/ suid herpesvirus 1

67
Q

How is pseudorabies transmitted?

A
  • Virus shed in saliva, nasal discharge and milk of infected pigs.
  • Virus not shed in feces or urine.
  • Transmission can occur by licking, biting, aerosol, ingestion of contaminated carcass, water and feed
68
Q

What is the primary site of viral replication in pseudorabies

A

upper resp. tract

69
Q

How is equine herpes virus 1 transmitted

A

Inhalation of infected aerosols, direct and indirect contact with nasal discharges, aborted fetuses, placenta or placental fluids

70
Q

Which EHV is more virulent?

A

EHV -1

71
Q

What is the virus that is responsible for highly fatal generalized hemorrhagic disease of puppies

A

Canine Herpes Virus 1 (CHV-1)

72
Q

How is Canine herpes virus 1 transmitted to neonates

A
  • Contact w/ infected oral, nasal or vaginal secretions of dam
  • In-utero transmission
  • From passage through birth canal
73
Q

What is a clear clinical sign in puppies that they may have CHV-1

A

Passing soft, odorless, greenish stool.

74
Q

What are the two most common causes of infectious respiratory disease of cats

A
  1. Feline Herpes Virus 1 (FHV-1)

2. Feline Calicivirus (FCV)

75
Q

What are the clinical signs of Feline Herpes Virus -1 in kittens

A
  • Severe upper resp. disease
  • Extensive rhinotracheitis
  • Fatal bronchopneumonia (from secondary bacT inf.) may develop
  • Conjunctivitis, and ulcerative keratitis.
76
Q

What are the two avian diseases of alphaherpesvirinae

A
  1. Infectious laryngotracheitis (Gallid HV-1)

2. Marek’s Disease (Gallid HV-2)

77
Q

What subfamily causes inclusion body rhinitis

A

Betaherpesvirinae

78
Q

What is the etiology of inclusion body rhinitis

A

Porcine Herpesvirus 2 aka Porcine cytomegalovirus (PCMV)

79
Q

What is the host of Porcine Herpesvirus 2 aka Porcine cytomegalovirus subfamily: betaherpesvirinae

A

-Pigs ; severe disease in piglets

80
Q

How is Porcine herpesvirus 2 transmitted

A
  • Primarily inhalation

- Transplacental transmission

81
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever is causes by viruses in what subfamily?

A

subfam: gammaherpesvirinae

82
Q

What are the two most important malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) viruses ?

A
  • Alcelaphine herpesvirus-1 (AHV-1) known as wildebeest-associated MCF
  • Ovine herpesvirus-2 (OvHV-2) -known as sheep-assocaited MCF
83
Q

T/F AHV-1 aka wildebeest-associated MCF does not cause any disease in the principle host- the wildebeest?

A

True

84
Q

Ovine herpes virus-2 is transmitted from sheep to what animal

A

Sheep to Cattle.

85
Q

T/F In africa, MCF is predominantly found where cattle are in close contact with blue or black wildebeest, while outside Africa, is it usually associated with contact between sheep and susceptible species.

A

True

86
Q

How is Alcelaphine Herpes virus-1 transmitted from wildebeest to cattle ?

A
  • AHV-1 is present in nasal and ocular secretions of young wildebeest in cell-free state.
  • Ingestion of pasture contaminated with nasal or ocular secretions from young wildebeest.
  • Direct or close contact -inhalation of aerosol with young wildebeest -or with wildebeest during calving
  • virus in cell-associated form in adult wildebeest, so rarely transmitted from adults.
87
Q

How is Ovine Herpesvirus-2 transmitted from sheep to cattle

A
  • Not known

- Presumably by inhalation or ingestion

88
Q

African Swine Fever is the member of what family

A

Asfarviridae

89
Q

What is the biological vector of African Swine Fever

A

Ornithodorus sp. - Soft ticks

90
Q

What are the reservoir host of ASF (african swine fever)

A

-Wart Hog, Giant forest hog, Bush pig

91
Q

Which virus gets an enlarged friable spleen (blackberry jam spleen)

A

African Swine Fever

92
Q

What is the disease caused by feline parvovirus

A

Feline panleukopenia (FPV)

93
Q

How is feline panleukopenia transmitted

A
  • Cats are infected oro-nasally by exposure to infected animals, their feces, secretions or contaminated fomites.
  • In-utero transmission occurs
  • Mechanical transmission by flies
94
Q

What is the etiology of feline panleukopenia ?

A

Feline Parvovirus

95
Q

When giving modified live vaccines to cats for FPV it should not be admin to what?

A
  • Pregnant cats
  • Immunocompromised cats
  • Sick cats
  • Kittens less than 4 weeks old
96
Q

How is porcine parvovirus transmitted?

A
  • oronasal in the non-immune pregnant sow followed by transplacental transmission.
  • Venereal transmission is possible.
97
Q

Can porcine parvovirus have a vaccine that can be administered ?

A

Yes- There are a number of inactivated and live vaccine available to prevent PPV infection.
BEST WAY= vaccinate all susceptible breeding stock twice, 2 weeks apart, several weeks before breeding.

98
Q

What virus is the major cause of SMEDI?

A

Porcine Parvovirus

99
Q

T/F Unlike most parvoviruses porcine parvovirus can cause persistent infection

A

True

100
Q

What does episomal mean?

A

not integrated in the host-cell DNA & persist as an autonomously replicating episome.

101
Q

T/F Fibropapilloma is mostly caused by bovine papillomavirus types 1, 2 & 5.

A

True

102
Q

T/F Cutaneous papillomas is mostly caused by bovine papillomavirus type 3.

A

True

103
Q

What do bovines eat that can result in transition of papillomavirus 4 to invasive carcinoma of the alimentary tract

A

Bracken Fern

104
Q

Papillomavirus types 1 & 2 when mixed with consumed bracken fern can contribute to what syndrome

A

“enzootic hematuria” -> hematuria and/or urinary bladder cancer.

105
Q

T/F there is such a thing as wart vaccine

A

True

106
Q

T/F progression to squamous cell carcinoma in canine oral papillomas is common.

A

False- it is very rare

107
Q

T/F Equine Sarcoids are associated with bovine papillomavirus 1 & 2.

A

True

108
Q

What is the morphology of adenoviridae

A
  • Non enveloped - hexagonal in outline

- 12 vertex penton capsomeres each with a fiber protrude from the surface of capsid.

109
Q

What is the etiology of infectious canine hepatitis (ICH, Rubarth’s disease)

A

Canine adenovirus -1 (CAV-1)

110
Q

How is canine adenovirus -1 transmitted

A
  • Found in all secretions/excretions

- Afterward virus is shed in urine for atleast 6-9 months

111
Q

T/F Corneal edema (blue eye) is seen in dogs during recovery or chronic cases of infectious canine hepatitis

A

True

112
Q

Which vaccine is best to use to prevent infectious canine hepatitis

A

CAV-2 attenuated live virus strain

113
Q

Why dont you want to give Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccines to prevent infectious canine hepatitis

A

They produce a transient unilateral or bilateral opacities of the cornea. This vaccine may cause mild subclinical interstitial nephritis and may be shed in urine

114
Q

What is the etiology of canine infectious tracheobronchitis (ITB/Kennel Cough)

A
  • There are many
  • CAV-2 (Canine Adenovirus 2)
  • Bordetella bronchiseptica (primary pathogen)
115
Q

What virus is associated with severe resp. diseases in severe combined immunodeficicency (SCID) foals ?

A

Equine Adenovirus-1

116
Q

Marble spleen disease is caused in pheasants by what virus?

A

Aviadenovirus

RUSVM Virology (2 decks)

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