Viro Exam 2 Flashcards
How does PCR work?
Denaturation -> annealing -> extension/elongation
What is real-time polymerase chain rxn?
Real-time PCR or quantitative PCR is an advanced form of PCR that allows monitoring and quantification of increasing accumulation of PCR products/nucleic acid load as the reaction progress . Useful to study virus load in patient
T/F Genome sequencing is DNA sequencing that refers to the process by which the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule is elucidated/can be obtained and read.
True
T/F next generation sequencing is much more expensive, quicker, needs significantly less DNA, has high throughput, and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?
False- why?
next generation sequencing is much more cheaper, quicker, needs significantly less DNA, has high throughput, and is more accurate and reliable than Sanger sequencing?
Define Metagenomics
Metagenomics is the study of the collective set of microbial populations in a sample by analyzing the sample’s entire nucleotide sequence content, and is a powerful method for random detection of existing and new pathogens.
What is phylogenetic analysis
The use of virus genome sequence data to study evolution of viruses and genetic relationships among viruses
Acyclovir is used to treat what virus
Herpes
Acyclovir is a synthetic what?
Nucleoside analog of deoxyguanosine
T/F Acyclovir is toxic to the uninfected host cell?
False- is non-toxic to the uninfected host cell
Amantadine inhibits what
inhibits replication of most strains of influenza A viruses by blocking uncoating of the virus.
M2 ion channel is the target of what antiviral drug
Amantadine
What happens in the presence of Amantadine
Viral RNA’s remain bound to M1 and cannot enter the nucleus. Virus replication is inhibited.
What drug is a a neuraminidase inhibitor
Oseltamivir (tamiflu)
What is a neuraminidase inhibitor
Inhibitors of neuraminidase [NA] enzymes synthesized by influenza A and B viruses
Which drugs are nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
AZT (Azidothymidine) + ZDV (Zidovudine)
Which drug has been shown to reduce clinical sign s in FIV positive cats when admin at dose of 10mg/kg 2x daily- SQ for a period of 3 weeks.
AZT (azidothymidine)
What is required to cleave the HIV polyproteins into functional proteins
Proteases
Which vaccination has subunit ‘marker vaccines’
DIVE (differentiating infected from vax animals)
When do you isolate an animal/person
when they are known to be clinically ill with a contagious disease
When do you quarantine a animal?
when they have been exposed to a contagious disease .
Define decontamination
used to describe a process of treatment that renders a medical device, instrument or environmental surface to handle.
Define Sterilization
a process that destroys or eliminates all forms of microbial life/pathogens, including highly resistant pathogens such as bacteria with spores
Define disinfection
a process that eliminates many or all pathogenic microorganisms, except bacterial spores on inanimate objects
T/F Disinfection is less effective than sterilization
True
T/F Moist heat is used via autoclave
True
T/F non-ionizing (UV radiation) and Gamma rays, x-rays (ionizing) are forms of Radiation
True
Where does replications of poxviruses occur?
The Cytoplasm
T/F poxviruses can survive many years in dried scabs and other virus laden material
True
Genus Orthopoxvirus is also called what?
Cowpox
Genus Parapoxvirus is also called what?
Pseudocowpox (cattle, humans)
Pseudocow pox can also infect humans and the condition is commonly referred to as what?
Milker’s nodule
Which virus leaves a horseshoe-shaped ring of small scabs
Psuedocow pox
Genus: parapoxvirus
Contagious Ecthyma is caused by what virus and what is the genus of that virus
Caused by ORF virus the genus is parapoxvirus
Contagious ecthyma is transmitted to healthy animals primarily through what?
Damaged skin
T/F In no circumstances should the vaccine be used on farms that do not have a problem with orf.
TRUE
Sheep pox, goat pox, and lumpy skin disease are affected by what genus?
Capripoxvirus
What is the common/important route of transmission for Sheeppox and goatpox
Aerosol (respiratory route)
T/F Sheep pox is a systemic disease
True
what are the two forms of sheeppox
-Malignant and benign form
T/F sheeppox is not notifiable
False- it is.
Lumpy skin disease is a member of what genus
Capripoxvirus
What viruses are under the genus Capripoxvirus
Sheep pox / Goat pox / Lumpy skin disease (cattle)
What pox is under the genus Suipoxvirus
Swine pox
What is the mechanical vector of swinepox (suipoxvirus)
Pig louse -> Haematopinus suis.
T/F there is evidence of transplacental infection of neonatal pigs in swinepox
True
T/F the use of a commercially available vaccine will take care of swine pox.
False- no commercially avail. vaccine
Fowlpox and chickenpox are the same virus
False- chicken pox is caused by human herpesvirus 3 (varicella zoster virus)
What are the 3 forms of fowlpox
- Cutaneous form (dry form)
- Diphtheritic form (wet form)
- Ocular form
What is the most common form of fowlpox
Cutaneous form (dry form)
Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is caused by what?
Porcine Circovirus type 2
What is the most common method of spreading porcine post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome
fecal-oral transmission
Post-weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS) pathogenesis is characterized by what?
“botryoid” (grape-like) intra-cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in virus infected macrophages
What are the two genus of ciroviridae
- Circovirus
2. Gyrovirus -> chicken infectious anemia
T/F Gyrovirus is highly contagious to older chickens 2-4 years old
False- young chickens 2-4 weeks old
How is gyrovirus (chicken infectious anemia) transmitted?
- virus shed in feces and feather dander
- Horizontal transmission through inhalation or oral exposure
- Virus also transmitted vertically through egg.
What is the virus morphology of Herpesviridae
- Enveloped, spherical to pleomorphic
- The capsid is surrounded by a layer of globular material, known as tegument
Where does viral replication and encapsidation occur in Herpesviridae
The nucleus
T/F Latently infected animals with herpesvirus serve as reservoir for transmission
True
What are the subfamilies of herpesviridae
- Alphaherpesvirinae
- Betaherpesvirinae
- Gammaherpesvirinae
What are the subtypes of BHV-1
BHV-1.1 (respiratory subtype)
BHV-1.2 (genital subtype)
Sites of latency of BHV-1
Trigeminal nerve = resp. disease
Sciatic nerve =genital disease
what is Balanoposthitis
inflammation and pustules in the mucosa of the penis and prepuce.
What are the disorders associated with Bovine Herpesvirus 1
- infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
- infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
- ocular form of IBR
- Abortion
- Systemic disease of newborn calves
What are the disorders associated with Bovine Herpesvirus 2
- Bovine ulcerative mammiliitis
- Pseudo-lumpy skin disease
What is the transmission of bovine ulcerative mammaillitis
- Direct-contact and fomite mediated , trauma to skin
- Mech. transmission by stable flies and other arthropods
What is the etiology of pseudorabies (aujeszky disease, mad itch)
Porcine herpesvirus 1/ suid herpesvirus 1
How is pseudorabies transmitted?
- Virus shed in saliva, nasal discharge and milk of infected pigs.
- Virus not shed in feces or urine.
- Transmission can occur by licking, biting, aerosol, ingestion of contaminated carcass, water and feed
What is the primary site of viral replication in pseudorabies
upper resp. tract
How is equine herpes virus 1 transmitted
Inhalation of infected aerosols, direct and indirect contact with nasal discharges, aborted fetuses, placenta or placental fluids
Which EHV is more virulent?
EHV -1
What is the virus that is responsible for highly fatal generalized hemorrhagic disease of puppies
Canine Herpes Virus 1 (CHV-1)
How is Canine herpes virus 1 transmitted to neonates
- Contact w/ infected oral, nasal or vaginal secretions of dam
- In-utero transmission
- From passage through birth canal
What is a clear clinical sign in puppies that they may have CHV-1
Passing soft, odorless, greenish stool.
What are the two most common causes of infectious respiratory disease of cats
- Feline Herpes Virus 1 (FHV-1)
2. Feline Calicivirus (FCV)
What are the clinical signs of Feline Herpes Virus -1 in kittens
- Severe upper resp. disease
- Extensive rhinotracheitis
- Fatal bronchopneumonia (from secondary bacT inf.) may develop
- Conjunctivitis, and ulcerative keratitis.
What are the two avian diseases of alphaherpesvirinae
- Infectious laryngotracheitis (Gallid HV-1)
2. Marek’s Disease (Gallid HV-2)
What subfamily causes inclusion body rhinitis
Betaherpesvirinae
What is the etiology of inclusion body rhinitis
Porcine Herpesvirus 2 aka Porcine cytomegalovirus (PCMV)
What is the host of Porcine Herpesvirus 2 aka Porcine cytomegalovirus subfamily: betaherpesvirinae
-Pigs ; severe disease in piglets
How is Porcine herpesvirus 2 transmitted
- Primarily inhalation
- Transplacental transmission
Malignant catarrhal fever is causes by viruses in what subfamily?
subfam: gammaherpesvirinae
What are the two most important malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) viruses ?
- Alcelaphine herpesvirus-1 (AHV-1) known as wildebeest-associated MCF
- Ovine herpesvirus-2 (OvHV-2) -known as sheep-assocaited MCF
T/F AHV-1 aka wildebeest-associated MCF does not cause any disease in the principle host- the wildebeest?
True
Ovine herpes virus-2 is transmitted from sheep to what animal
Sheep to Cattle.
T/F In africa, MCF is predominantly found where cattle are in close contact with blue or black wildebeest, while outside Africa, is it usually associated with contact between sheep and susceptible species.
True
How is Alcelaphine Herpes virus-1 transmitted from wildebeest to cattle ?
- AHV-1 is present in nasal and ocular secretions of young wildebeest in cell-free state.
- Ingestion of pasture contaminated with nasal or ocular secretions from young wildebeest.
- Direct or close contact -inhalation of aerosol with young wildebeest -or with wildebeest during calving
- virus in cell-associated form in adult wildebeest, so rarely transmitted from adults.
How is Ovine Herpesvirus-2 transmitted from sheep to cattle
- Not known
- Presumably by inhalation or ingestion
African Swine Fever is the member of what family
Asfarviridae
What is the biological vector of African Swine Fever
Ornithodorus sp. - Soft ticks
What are the reservoir host of ASF (african swine fever)
-Wart Hog, Giant forest hog, Bush pig
Which virus gets an enlarged friable spleen (blackberry jam spleen)
African Swine Fever
What is the disease caused by feline parvovirus
Feline panleukopenia (FPV)
How is feline panleukopenia transmitted
- Cats are infected oro-nasally by exposure to infected animals, their feces, secretions or contaminated fomites.
- In-utero transmission occurs
- Mechanical transmission by flies
What is the etiology of feline panleukopenia ?
Feline Parvovirus
When giving modified live vaccines to cats for FPV it should not be admin to what?
- Pregnant cats
- Immunocompromised cats
- Sick cats
- Kittens less than 4 weeks old
How is porcine parvovirus transmitted?
- oronasal in the non-immune pregnant sow followed by transplacental transmission.
- Venereal transmission is possible.
Can porcine parvovirus have a vaccine that can be administered ?
Yes- There are a number of inactivated and live vaccine available to prevent PPV infection.
BEST WAY= vaccinate all susceptible breeding stock twice, 2 weeks apart, several weeks before breeding.
What virus is the major cause of SMEDI?
Porcine Parvovirus
T/F Unlike most parvoviruses porcine parvovirus can cause persistent infection
True
What does episomal mean?
not integrated in the host-cell DNA & persist as an autonomously replicating episome.
T/F Fibropapilloma is mostly caused by bovine papillomavirus types 1, 2 & 5.
True
T/F Cutaneous papillomas is mostly caused by bovine papillomavirus type 3.
True
What do bovines eat that can result in transition of papillomavirus 4 to invasive carcinoma of the alimentary tract
Bracken Fern
Papillomavirus types 1 & 2 when mixed with consumed bracken fern can contribute to what syndrome
“enzootic hematuria” -> hematuria and/or urinary bladder cancer.
T/F there is such a thing as wart vaccine
True
T/F progression to squamous cell carcinoma in canine oral papillomas is common.
False- it is very rare
T/F Equine Sarcoids are associated with bovine papillomavirus 1 & 2.
True
What is the morphology of adenoviridae
- Non enveloped - hexagonal in outline
- 12 vertex penton capsomeres each with a fiber protrude from the surface of capsid.
What is the etiology of infectious canine hepatitis (ICH, Rubarth’s disease)
Canine adenovirus -1 (CAV-1)
How is canine adenovirus -1 transmitted
- Found in all secretions/excretions
- Afterward virus is shed in urine for atleast 6-9 months
T/F Corneal edema (blue eye) is seen in dogs during recovery or chronic cases of infectious canine hepatitis
True
Which vaccine is best to use to prevent infectious canine hepatitis
CAV-2 attenuated live virus strain
Why dont you want to give Attenuated CAV-1 live vaccines to prevent infectious canine hepatitis
They produce a transient unilateral or bilateral opacities of the cornea. This vaccine may cause mild subclinical interstitial nephritis and may be shed in urine
What is the etiology of canine infectious tracheobronchitis (ITB/Kennel Cough)
- There are many
- CAV-2 (Canine Adenovirus 2)
- Bordetella bronchiseptica (primary pathogen)
What virus is associated with severe resp. diseases in severe combined immunodeficicency (SCID) foals ?
Equine Adenovirus-1
Marble spleen disease is caused in pheasants by what virus?
Aviadenovirus
