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RUSVM Virology > Final Exam Material > Flashcards

Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 genera of the family Rhabdoviridae

A
  • Lyssavirus
  • Vesiculovirus
  • Ephemerovirus
  • Novirhabdovirus
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2
Q

What virus causes rabies like disease?

A

Lyssavirus

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3
Q

What are the virion properties of rhabdoviruses?

A
  • RNA Virus
  • Genome is single stranded, linear, negative sense RNA
  • Enveloped
  • Rod or cone -shaped
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4
Q

T/F Virions of rhabdovirus is not stable in the environment?

A

False they are relatively stable in the environment

  • can withstand alkaline pH
  • Sensitive to UV
  • Detergent based disinfectants are effective disinfectants
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5
Q

Where does replication of rhabdoviruses take place?

A

Cytoplasm

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6
Q

What sp. of bats is a common reservoir of rabies virus in many parts of the world?

A

Silver-haired bats

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7
Q

In central and south america rabies is transmitted to cattle by what bat?

A

Vampire bats

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8
Q

What virus has the presence of eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (negri bodies) in neurons

A

Rabies

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9
Q

What is the gold standard test for diagnosing rabies

A

Fluorescent antibody test (FAT)

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10
Q

What virus causes vesicular stomatitis?

A

Vesiculovirus -vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV)

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11
Q

T/F Vesiculovirus is clinically indistinguishable from other vesicular diseases of swine and cattle (e.g FMD)

A

True

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12
Q

T/F Vesicular lesions in horses are only characteristic of VSV infection

A

True

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13
Q

T/F Vesicular stomatitis is NOT a zoonotic disease?

A

False- it is zoonotic

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14
Q

What are the virion properties of picornavirus

A
  • Non-enveloped, single stranded, positive sense RNA viruses

- Genomic RNA is infectious

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15
Q

Is picornaviruses stable in mucus and feces?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Can picornaviruses withstand strong sunlight?

A

Yes

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17
Q

What is an effective disinfectant of picornaviruses?

A

Sodium Carbonate

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18
Q

What is a distinct clinical sign of foot-and-mouth disease virus?

A

-Vesicles on the coronary bands and interdigital space

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19
Q

How is FMD transmitted?

A
  • Respiratory aerosols (survives 1-2 days in human resp. tract)
  • Direct contact
  • Indirect contact via fomites
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20
Q

What are the clinical features of Ephemerobvirus- Bovine ephemeral fever virus

A
  • Immediate drop in milk production

- Occasionally nasal and ocular discharge

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21
Q

What are the 3 genus in the family Reoviridae that we need to know?

A
  • Orbivirus
  • Rotavirus
  • Orthoreovirus
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22
Q

Family reoviridae ; genus orbivirus causes what viruses?

A
  • African Horse Sickness virus

- Bluetoungue virus

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23
Q

Family reoviridae; genus rotavirus causes what virus?

A

RVA (Group A Rotavirus)

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24
Q

Family reoviridae; genus Orthoreovirus causes what virus?

A

Avian Reovirus

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25
Q

Blue tongue effects what species?

A

Most susceptible/common host: sheep (particularly fine wool and mutton breeds that are common in Europe) and some species of Deer, such as white tail deer.

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26
Q

T/F Bluetongue is a “List A” disease of the office of international epizootics (OIE).

A

True

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27
Q

How is blue tongue virus transmitted?

A
  • Arthropod (insect)-borne transmission (major route of transmission)
  • Transmitted biologically by certain species of Culicoides, a genus of biting midge
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28
Q

What are some of the less significant routes of transmission of blue tongue virus?

A
  • Trans-placental transmission

- Venereal transmission

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29
Q

Clinical findings of BTV in sheep

A
  • Cyanosis, necrotic ulceration of tongue
  • Erosion of dental pad, Necrosis, Hyperemia, Ulceration in oral cavity.
  • Coronitis and Laminitis causing lameness
  • Extensive facial swelling
  • Aborted, macerated fetus
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30
Q

How to prevent BTV?

A
  • Vaccination: attenuated vaccine.
  • Vector control
  • Reduce exposure to biting insects
  • Slaughter of sick or viremic animals
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31
Q

T/F African Horse Sickness (AHS) is infectious, non-contagious, arthropod-borne disease of horses, donkeys and mules.

A

True

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32
Q

T/F dogs sometimes contract a highly fatal form of AHS, resulted from the ingestion of infected carcass material from horses that have died from AHS.

A

True

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33
Q

T/F AHS is a “List A infectious Disease”

A

True

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34
Q

African Horse Sickness (AHS) is caused by a virus belonging to what genus?

A

Orbivirus

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35
Q

How is AHS transmitted?

A

Transmitted by Culicoides species

-Zebras are inapparently infected, reservoir

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36
Q

What are the clinical findings of AHS?

A
  • Acute (pulmonary) Horse Sickness (Dunkop)

- Subacute (cardiac) Horse Sickness (Dikkop)

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37
Q

T/F Rotaviruses are one of the major causes of severe viral diarrhea in young mammals and birds.

A

True

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38
Q

How is Rotavirus transmitted in animals and humans?

A
  • Infected stool contains large number of viruses
  • Fecal-oral transmission is the most likely route of infection
  • Virus can survive in enviornment
  • Main site of viral multiplication is the mature enterocytes on the villi of upper small intestine.
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39
Q

What are some Rotavirus symptoms?

A
  • Severe diarrhea in young different animals
  • Profuse diarrhea, anorexia, dehydration and occasionally mild fever.
  • Uncomplicated cases usually recover within 3-4 days
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40
Q

T/F Rotaviruses are not zoonotic

A

False- They are zoonotic

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41
Q

What is the predominant host of avian Reovirus ?

A

Viral arthritis/tenosynovitis is predominantly a disease of meat-type chickens (broilers) and is an important cause of leg weakness.

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42
Q

How is avian reovirus transmitted?

A

-Fecal-roal route, transovarial and inhalation

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43
Q

What is the pathogenesis of avian reovirus?

A

After intestinal replication, the virus spreads via the bloodstream to all parts of the body. Pathogenic viruses localize in the hock joint, where they cause arthritis.

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44
Q

What are some clinical findings of avian reovirus?

A
  • Lameness
  • Viral arthritis/tenosynovitis
  • swollen and inflamed hock joints
  • Clear synovial fluid and inflammation of synovial membranes.
  • Ruptured gastrocnemius tendons
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45
Q

How do you prevent avian reovirus?

A

-Live and attenuated vaccines are available

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46
Q

What is the common biological vector of bluetongue virus

A

Culicoides

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47
Q

Rotavirus is primarily transmitted by?

A

Fecal-oral route

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48
Q

Dunkop and Dikkop forms are clinical forms of what virus?

A

African Horse Sickness

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49
Q

What are the viruses associated with Togaviridae?

A
  • Eastern equine encephalitis virus
  • Western equine encephalitis virus
  • Highlands J Virus
  • Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus
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50
Q

What are the three equine viral encephalitis caused by alphaviruses?

A
  • Western Equine encephalitis virus (WEEV)
  • Eastern Equine encephalitis virus (EEEV)
  • Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis virus (VEEV)
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51
Q

T/F Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus (EEEV) is a zoonotic disease transmitted by mosquitoes.

A

True

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52
Q

T/F Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus (EEEV) is a zoonotic disease transmitted by mosquitoes.

A

True

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53
Q

Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus transmission cycle is maintained how?

A

maintained between passerine birds as reservoirs/amplification host and Culiseta melanura (insect) is the main enzootic vector in swamp habitats.

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54
Q

T/F WEEV appears to be less virulent than EEEV.

A

True

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55
Q

T/F in WEEV and EEEV humans and horses are both dead-end host.

A

True

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56
Q

T/F In the enzootic cycle of VEEV human and equine are accidental host?

A

True

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57
Q

T/F In the epizootic cycle of VEEV only humans are the dead-end host?

A

True

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58
Q

What are some clinical signs of VEEV in horses?

A

-Non-suppurative encephalomyelitis

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59
Q

How do we control and prevent equine encephalitis ?

A
  • Formalin inactivated EEEV and WEEV vaccines are available.
  • VEEV have a tissue culture attenuated vaccine.
  • There is no vaccine for humans
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60
Q

Transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs belongs to what genus ?

A

Genus= Coronavirus of the family = coronaviridae

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61
Q

T/F Transmissible gastroenteritis is classified as OIE list B disease

A

True

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62
Q

What is the major route of transmission of TGE virus

A

Fecal-oral

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63
Q

What are clinical signs of transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in pigs?

A
  • Profuse diarrhea in piglets
  • Vomiting, severe depression & dehydration
  • Watery, yellow-green stool with offensive odor
  • Feces containing clots of undigested milk
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64
Q

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea (PED) is caused by what?

A

Coronavirus (group 1b).

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65
Q

How is porcine epidemic diarrhea virus spread?

A

Spread via the fecal-oral route.

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66
Q

Winter dysentery in cows is caused by what?

A

bovine Coronavirus

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67
Q

How is FIP spread?

A

Major = fecal-oral transmission

-inhalation & transplacental

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68
Q

T/F Avirulent and Virulent forms of FIP are simultaneously circulating in cat populations

A

True

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69
Q

T/F cats with effusive (wet) form of FIP have a weak cell mediated immunity and strong humoral response?

A

True

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70
Q

T/F Virulent form of FIP replicate efficiently in monocytes and macrophages?

A

True

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71
Q

T/F the vaccine for FIP is highly recommended.

A

False

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72
Q

What is avian infectious bronchitis caused by?

A

coronavirus infectious bronchitis virus

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73
Q

Where is the pathology of avian infectious bronchitis commonly observed?

A

In respiratory tract, some strains are highly nephropathogenic.

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74
Q

T/F there are vaccines available for infectious bronchitis virus.

A

True- live and inactivate vaccines

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75
Q

T/F Torovirus is doughnut shaped

A

True

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76
Q

T/F porcine epidemic diarrhea has been reported in the USA

A

True

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77
Q

T/F It is believed that critical mutations in the feline enteric coronavirus genome results in emergence coronaviruses that cause feline infectious peritonitis

A

True

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78
Q

T/F Birds infected with Avian infectious bronchitis virus exhibit only clinical signs of respiratory disease

A

False

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79
Q

What are the two genus in the family Caliciviridae that we are responsible for?

A
  • Vesivirus

- Norovirus

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80
Q

Feline Calicivirus belongs to what genus and family?

A 
genus = Vesivirus
family = Caliciviridae
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81
Q

How is feline calicivirus spread?

A

Virus is shed in oral, nasal and conjunctival secretions.

- Largely by direct contact

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82
Q

Where are the most prominent lesions located in feline calicivirus?

A

Tongue ulcers

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83
Q

T/F feline calicivirus is occasionally associated with lameness (limping syndrome)

A

True

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84
Q

T/F Feline calicivirus also has a virulent systemic disease?

A

True

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85
Q

Vesicular exanthema of swine (VES) is in what genus?

A

Calicivirus

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86
Q

Vesicular exanthema of swine is characterized by what?

A

fever and formation of vesicles on the snout, oral mucosa, soles of the feet, the coronary band and between the toes.

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87
Q

T/F in pigs vesicular exanthema of swine -the clinical signs are indistinguishable from foot-and-mouth disease, vesicular stomatitis and swine vesicular disease.

A

True

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88
Q

Infectious bursal disease (IBD) is in what genus?

A

Birnavirus

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89
Q

What is the predilection site for infectious bursal disease

A

Bursa of fabricius

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90
Q

what is another name for infectious bursal disease?

A

Gumboro disease

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91
Q

T/F Serotype 2 of infectious bursal disease is pathogenic to chickens?

A

False- serotype 2 is asymptomatic in chicken and turkeys

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92
Q

T/F serotype 1 of infectious bursal disease is pathogenic to chickens

A

true

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93
Q

how is infectious bursal disease transmitted?

A
  • Virus excreted by infected birds

- Fecal-oral transmission

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94
Q

T/F Infectious bursal disease is very stable in nature. It can survive in poultry houses even after cleaning and disinfection. It can also be detected in water and feed even after 52 days.

A

True

95
Q

T/F there are vaccines for infectious bursal disease

A

true

96
Q

T/F for infectious bursal disease– mild vaccine strains that cause no bursal lesions cannot be used effectively in chicks with maternal-derived antibodies until about 4 weeks of age as they are neutralized.

A

TRUE

97
Q

What are the two subfamilies or retroviridae

A
  • Orthoretrovirinae

- Spumaretrovirinae

98
Q

T/F all retroviruses replicate with use of the reverse transcriptase, an enzyme encoded by the virus

A

True

99
Q

What are the 6 genus’s of orthroretrovirinae ?

A
  • Alpha
  • Beta
  • Gamma
  • Delta
  • Epsilon
  • Lentivirus
100
Q

Alpharetroviruses are represented by what?

A

-Avian leukosis and Sarcoma Virus

101
Q

T/F Exogenous retroviruses are those viruses transmitted horizontally and are rarely transmitted via in-utero or germ line infection

A

True

102
Q

Endogenous retroviruses are those viruses included in the genome of most if not all animals

A

True

103
Q

What are the 4 members of alpharetrovirus genus?

A
  • Avain leucosis virus
  • Avian sarcoma virus
  • Avian myeloblastosis virus
  • Rous sarcoma virus
104
Q

What retrovirus has the largest number of members? and what are some of them?

A
  • Gammaretroviruses

- These include murine leukemia virus, feline leukemia virus etc.

105
Q

What are the members of gammaretroviruses?

A
  • *FELINE LEUKEMIA VIRUS**
  • Feline Sarcoma virus
  • Avian reticuloendothelosis virus
106
Q

T/F Deltaretroviruses are complex retroviruses

A

True

107
Q

What are two famous examples of deltaretroviruses?

A

human-T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV) and Bovine leukemia virus

108
Q

In regards to deltaretroviruses what does the genom consist of ?

A

gag, pro, pol, env, and regulatory genes rex and tax.

109
Q

T/F Rex and Tax control synthesis and processing of viral RNA

A

True

110
Q

T/F exogenous retroviruses are found only in a few mammals

A

True

111
Q

T/F Epsilonretroviruses are complex retroviruses?

A

True

112
Q

What is the prototype epsilonretrovirus?

A

Walleye dermal sarcoma virus

113
Q

T/F Lentiviruses are complex viruses?

A

True

114
Q

What are the most important members of lentiviruses?

A
  • HIV
  • FIV
  • Caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus
  • Meadi-visna virus
115
Q

T/F Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV) is a gammaretrovirus

A

True

116
Q

T/F cats with FeLV viremia act as a source of infection

A

True

117
Q

T/F FeLV has tropism to lymphoid tissue

A

True

118
Q

T/F Feline immunodeficiency virus is a lentivirus

A

True

119
Q

What treatment can be used to eliminate FIV?

A

-None

120
Q

Retroviruses that infect chicken belong to two distinct retrovirus genera -what are they?

A
  • Alpharetroviruses- avian leucosis, myeloblastosis and sarcoma virus
  • Gammaretroviruses- reticuloendotheloisis virus
121
Q

T/F Oncogenis viruses are transmitted horizontally or vertically through infectious virus or provirus integrated into host germ cells DNA

A

True

122
Q

T/F when chickens are horizontally infected at 5-6 days of age they are unlikely to develop leukemia

A

True

123
Q

T/F If retrovirus is transmitted vertically (congenitally), chicken may develop persistent viremia for life due to immune tolerance

A

True

124
Q

T/F Lymphoid leukosis is a disease caused by avian retroviruses

A

True

125
Q

What disease is caused by replication-defective avian retrovirus?

A

Osteoporosis- “thick leg syndrome”

126
Q

What is an example of cellular transformation of oncogenic viruses?

A

Erythroblastosis

127
Q

Equine Infectious anemia virus (swamp fever) is what genus?

A

Lentivirus

128
Q

How is equine infectious anemia virus transmitted?

A

Blood- instruments, biting insects.

129
Q

Paramyxoviruses belong to what order

A

Mononegavirales

130
Q

Mononegavirales encompass virus families such as what?

A

Rhabdoviridae (rabies), Filoviridae (ebola virus), Bornaviridae (Borna disease virus)

131
Q

What are some of the examples of paramyxoviruses ?

A

Rinderpest, canine distemper virus, newcastle disease virus, nipah, measles, mumps.

132
Q

What is the sub-families of paramyxoviridae ?

A
  • Paramyxovirinae

- Pneumonvirinae

133
Q

Newcastle Disease is a member of what family in what genus?

A

Member of paramyxoviridae family in the genus Avulavirus

134
Q

T/F turkeys develop severe signs from new castle disease

A

False- chickens do.

135
Q

How is new castle disease transmitted?

A

Direct contact- w/ secretions of infected birds via ingestion and inhalation

  • Fomites;
  • Hatching chicks may be infected through the egg
136
Q

How long is the incubation period of newcastle disease?

A

2-15 days

137
Q

T/F Clinical signs alone are enough to present a reliable diagnosis of new castle disease?

A

False- they do NOT present a reliable basis for diagnosis of newcastle disease

138
Q

T/F Lentogenic strains are usually associated with subclinical disease marked by mild respiratory symptoms, coughing, gasping, sneezing and rales.

A

True

139
Q

T/F Mesogenic strains may cause acute respiratory disease but mortality rate is usually low.

A

True

140
Q

T/F Velogenic strains cause severe disease in chickens with a high mortality rate

A

True

141
Q

T/F Velogenic strains show later clinical signs of greenish, or white watery diarrhea, dyspnea, inflammation of the head and neck often with cyanotic discoloration.

A

True

142
Q

T/F Velogenic strains have neurologic signs that are manifested as: tremors, tonic/clonic spasms, wing/leg paresis, or paralysis, torticollia, and aberrant circling behavior

A

True

143
Q

T/F There are vaccines available for lentogenic and mesogenic strains

A

True

144
Q

What does Nipah virus cause?

A

Causes encephalitis and respiratory illness

145
Q

T/F Nipah virus is an emerging zoonosis

A

True

146
Q

The virus Henipavirus causes what disease in pigs?

A

Severe, Resp. Disease

147
Q

How is Henipavirus transmitted?

A

The reservoir host is flying foxes (fruit bats)

-It is unclear how the virus was transmitted from bats to pigs

148
Q

T/F Henipavirus -dogs and cats in close contact with infected pigs may transmit the virus

A

True

149
Q

Henipavirus has what clinical signs in young swine (>1-6 months old)

A
  • Acute fever
  • Laboured breathing, nasal discharge, loud non-productie cough (“barking pig syndrome” or “one-mile coughing”)
  • Neurological signs
150
Q

Henipavirus has what clinical signs in older swine (>6 months old)

A
  • Marked neurologic signs
  • Resp. signs
  • Morbidity approaches 100%
151
Q

T/F Nipah virus is classified as a BSL 4 agent

A

True

152
Q

T/F There is no vaccine for Nipah virus

A

True

153
Q

Canine distemper virus belongs to what genus?

A

Morbilivirus genus

154
Q

T/F Canine distemper virus is a rare disease in dogs in the developed world

A

True

155
Q

Which distinct lineage of canine distemper virus is circulating in raccoons in the USA

A

America-1

156
Q

What are the clinical features of canine distemper

A
  • 50% of infections are subclinical or mild
  • Mild canine distemper: is inappetence, fever, signs of resp. tract infections
  • Severe generalized distemper is fever, inflammation of the upper resp. tract (serous or mucopurulent nasal discharge)
157
Q

How is canine distemper transmitted

A
  • Virus is shed in all secretions and excretions
  • Transmitted through direct contact, droplets and aerosols
  • Young dogs are highly susceptible
158
Q

What is the pathogenesis of canine distemper virus

A
  • Virus replicates in the upper resp. tract macrophages
  • Spreads to tonsils and lymph nodes
  • Virus infects all cells expressing CD150
  • Virus then enters the blood stream and infects T and B cells
159
Q

T/F Fowl plague is recognized as a filterable agent

A

True

160
Q

What are the genera of orthomyxoviridae?

A
  • Influenza A
  • Influenza B
  • Influenza C
  • Thogotovirus
  • Isavirus
161
Q

T/F Influenza A genus contains human, equine, swine and domestic poultry viruses

A

True

162
Q

T/F Orthomyxoviruses cause diseases referred to as “influenza” hence generally called influenza viruses

A

True

163
Q

How are influenza viruses classified?

A

based on type of hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

164
Q

T/F orthomyxoviruses genome is segmented

A

True

165
Q

T/F Influenza C lack neurminidase

A

True

166
Q

T/F influenza viruses are sensitive to heat, acidic pH and lipid solvents

A

True

167
Q

Where does the replication of orthomyxoviruses take place

A

Nucleus

168
Q

T/F Equine influenza viruses is the most important viral respiratory disease of horses.

A

True

169
Q

T/F Avian influenza is a notifiable disease

A

True

170
Q

In birds where does avian influenza replicate?

A

-Intestinal and resp. tract

171
Q

T/F Swine influenza does not infect humans

A

False- it does.

172
Q

What virus causes yellow fever and was transmitted by mosquitoes

A

Flaviviruses

173
Q

Flaviviridae contains 3 genera: what are the 3?

A
  • Flavivirus*
  • Pestivirus*
  • Hepacivirus
174
Q

T/F Flaviviridae is a single stranded RNA genome of a positive sense

A

True

175
Q

Where does replication take place in Flaviviridae viruses

A

Cytoplasm

176
Q

How are flaviviruses inactivated

A
  • Heat
  • Common disinfectants
  • Lipid solvents
177
Q

T/F Classical swine fever virus is stable in meat and meat products

A

True

178
Q

T/F In west nile virus (flavivirus) human and horses (domestic animals) are accidental hosts

A

True

179
Q

What are some clinical signs of a horse infected with west nile virus

A
  • Fever
  • Weakness
  • Abnormality in gait
  • Recumbence
180
Q

What is the pathogenesis of west nile virus in birds

A
  • High viremia

- Post-mortem: widespread necrosis, hemorrhage and inflammation in several organs

181
Q

What is the pathogenesis of west nile virus in horses

A
  • Low viremia
  • CNS lesions occur with minimal or no involvement of other organs
  • Necrotic foci in neuronal tissue
182
Q

How is West Nile Virus diagnosed

A

-IgM ELISA

183
Q

Bovine Viral Diarrhea Virus is from what genus

A

Pestivirus

184
Q

Bovine Viral Diarrhea virus may cause high morbidity and mortality

A

True

185
Q

How is bovine viral diarrhea transmitted?

A

from herd to herd by feed and fomites contaminated with urine, oral and nasal secretions, feces and amniotic fluid

186
Q

What are some clinical features of infection in non-pregnant cattle

A
  • Mild clinical course
  • Biphasic fever
  • Diarrhea
  • Ulceration on lips, muzzle, oral cavity
187
Q

What are some clinical features of infection in pregnant cattle

A
  • Depends on fetus age
  • Infection in early pregnancy - embryonic death and resorption
  • retarted growth “weak calf syndrome”
188
Q

What are some clinical features of infection in persistent infection in calves and mucosal disease

A
  • Fail to thrive
  • Mucosal disease develops when co-infection with a cytopathic virus strain
  • Profuse watery diarrhea
189
Q

How can you diagnosis bovine viral diarrhea virus

A

-Detection of viral antigen in ear notch samples

190
Q

T/F Classical swine fever virus is a notifiable disease

A

True

191
Q

Classical swine fever is also called what

A

Hog Cholera

192
Q

Classical swine fever virus has tropism for what

A

-vascular endothelium, mononuclear phagocytes

193
Q

What are the clinical features of classical swine fever

A
  • Disease is accompanied by very high fever
  • Diffuse hyperemia on the abdomen and ears
  • Morbidity and mortality may approach 100%
  • Chronic diarrhea (moderately virulent strain)
194
Q

T/F Classical swine fever low virulence strain may have no visible clinical signs

A

True

195
Q

How do you control classical swine fever

A

Cull infected animals

196
Q

Arteriviridae belongs to what order?

A

Nidovirales

197
Q

What are the two viruses we need to know that are Arteriviruses

A
  • Equine Arteritis Virus

- Porcine repro and resp. syndrome virus

198
Q

T/F GP5 is responsible for induction of neutralizing antibodies

A

True

199
Q

Where do arteriviruses replicate mainly?

A

Macrophages

200
Q

How is equine arteritis virus mostly spread?

A

mostly spread by non-symptomatically infected stallions

201
Q

What are some clinical features of equine arteritis virus

A
  • Mostly asymptomatic
  • Infection occurs through resp. or venereal routes
  • Incubation period is 3-14 days
  • Excessive lacrimation
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Edema
  • Abortion
  • Virus is confined to the repro. system during persistence
202
Q

What is the pathogensis of Equine Arteritis Virus

A
  • Replication, in alveolar macrophages and endothelial cells

- Virus also infects mesothelium, smooth muscles of the media of arteries and uterine wall

203
Q

What is the pathology of Equine Arteritis Virus

A
  • Edema, Congestion, Hemorrhage

- Excessive fluid in peritoneal and pleural cavities

204
Q

How to prevent Equine Arteritis virus

A
  • ID carrier stallions

- Vaccinate before pregnancy

205
Q

T/F Porcine repro. and resp. syndrome virus - reproductive failure is mainly observed in gilts or sows and less frequent in boars

A

True

206
Q

How is Porcine repro. and resp. syndrome virus transmitted

A
  • Nasal secretion, Urine, Semen, mammary gland secretions
  • Spreads by contact
  • Mosquitoes and house flies may act as fomites to spread the virus!
207
Q

what are key clinical signs Porcine repro. and resp. syndrome virus

A
  • Cyanosis of ears, abdomen, and vulva

- Decrease semen quality in boars

208
Q

How do you diagnosis Porcine repro. and resp. syndrome virus

A
  • Clinical signs and history are often suggestive of PRRSV infection
  • Virus isolation, fluorescent antibody test, or IMHC, genome detection by PCR
209
Q

How do you control Porcine repro. and resp. syndrome virus

A

-No single successful control measure

210
Q

What are the top 5 genera of Bunyaviridae

A
  • Orthrobunyavirus
  • Phelbovirus
  • Nairovirus
  • Hantavirus
  • Tospovirus
211
Q

Orthrobunyavirus, Phlebovirus, Nairovirus are what viruses?

A

-Arboviruses = arthropod borne viruses

212
Q

Akabane virus causes what

A
  • Hydraencephaly

- Arthrogryposis

213
Q

T/F Akabane virus replicates in nervous system to fetus

A

True

214
Q

Akabane is what type of virus

A

Orthobunyavirus

215
Q

Rift valley fever virus is what type of virus

A

Phlebovirus

216
Q

Rift valley fever virus is a disease of what species

A

Sheep, Goat, and Cattle

217
Q

How is rift valley fever virus transmitted

A

Mosquitoes- Aedes spp.

218
Q

What are some clinical signs that animals infected with Rift Valley Fever develop?

A
  • Fever
  • Inappetence
  • Mucopurulent nasal discharge
  • Bloody Diarrhea
219
Q

What is the usual cause of death of animals infected with Rift Valley fever?

A

Hepatic Necrosis, renal failure

220
Q

T/F If Rift Valley Fever is detected, it is treated as an emergence- it is a zoonotic pathogen and a BSL-3 Agent

A

True

221
Q

T/F Borna disease virus is the only member of the genus Bornavirus

A

True

222
Q

T/F The G protein in Bornavirus is responsible for induction of neutralizing antibodies

A

True

223
Q

Where does replication of Bornavirus take place

A

Nucleus

224
Q

T/F Borna disease virus is a natural infection in horses and sheep

A

True

225
Q

T/F Borna disease virus is a rare neurological disease that may be fatal

A

True

226
Q

T/F How is Borna Virus transmitted

A

Oronasal transmission

227
Q

What are some clinical signs of Borna virus

A
  • Fever
  • Abnormal behavior- chewing motion, without food intake
  • Head pressing
  • At later stages paralysis, nystagmus, pupillary reflex dysfunction, blindness
228
Q

T/F Borna virus has a pathology of extensive perivascular cuffing with T cells, macrophages and plasma cells

A

True

229
Q

Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies in neurons called “Joest-Degen” bodies are pathognomonic for what virus ?

A

Borna Disease Virus

230
Q

Avian bornavirus causes what

A
  • Proventricular dilatation disease

- Paralytic dilatation of the oesophagus and proventriculus

231
Q

T/F Astrovirus causes fatal disease only in birds

A

True

232
Q

What are the virion properties of Astrovirus?

A
  • non-eveloped
  • Linear, positive sense, single-stranded RNA
  • Virions resistant to low pH and lipid solvents
233
Q

T/F Astrovirus RNA is infectious

A

True

234
Q

The abnormal protein of prion is called what

A

PrPSC

RUSVM Virology (2 decks)

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