Veterinary Science Flashcards
Animal identification is a management practice which aids in biosecurity control.
To which of the following animals would this management practice most likely
apply?
A. Pig
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Rabbit
Pig
Which of the following type of hormones helps the body prepare for conception and pregnancy? A. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. Epinephrine D. Progesterone
Progesterone
A guide dog would be an example of which of the following? A. Working animal B. Food production animals C. Non-domestic animal D. Endangered animal
Working Animal
In regards to research animals, which of the following is NOT a guarantee set forth by the Animal Welfare Act? A. Veterinary care B. Anesthesia or pain relievers C. Entertainment apparatuses D. Opportunity for exercise daily
Entertainment Apparatuses
Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall? A. Right atrium B. Left atrium C. Right ventricle D. Left ventricle
Left Ventricle
Which of the following is also known as a hemostat? A. Scissors B. Clamping forceps C. Tweezers D. Burdizzo
Clamping forceps
Which of the following species is considered a hindgut-fermenter? A. Dog B. Cat C. Sheep D. Horse
Horse
Which of the following is considered the “master gland” of the endocrine system? A. Pituitary gland B. Hypothalamus C. Medulla D. Adrenal gland
Pituitary gland
Your veterinarian prescribed a dose of medication for your pig which is 1 mL/20lbs. Your pig currently weighs 100 lbs. How many milliliters should you give your pig. A. 1 mL B. 2 mL C. 5 mL D. 10 mL
5 mL
Which of the following organizations identifies the minimum standards required to enter the veterinarian profession and to remain in practice?
A. American Veterinarian Medical Association
B. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
C. Veterinarian Practice Association
D. Board of Veterinary Medicine
American Veterinarian Medical Association
After an injury, what generally happens to blood platelets? A. They increase B. They decrease C. They stay the same D. They die
They increase
While examining your dog during his annual physical exam, the veterinarian palpates his belly in order to check for which of the following? A. Enlarged organs B. Dehydration C. Elevated heart rate D. Anemia
Enlarged organs
Ring worm, avian influenza and West Nile virus are classified as which of the following type of disease? A. Bacterial B. Zoonotic C. Parasitic D. Protozoal
Zoonotic
The process of lifting and folding the skin of the animal prior to giving a subcutaneous injection is called which of the following? A. Tenting B. Aspirating C. Injecting D. Vaccinating
Tenting
Antibiotics are most effective on which of the following types of diseases and/or infections? A. Bacterial B. Viruses C. Allergies D. Fungal
Bacterial
The normal urine pH level for your cat is 6.5. This level would be considered to be which of the following? A. Neutral B. Mildly acidic C. Alkaline D. Mildly alkaline
Mildly acidic
Prescription drugs are sometimes referred to as which of the following? A. Extralabel B. Legend C. Analgesics D. Common
Legend
Which of the following is a deficiency of red blood cells and hemoglobin in the blood? A. Hypothermia B. Anemia C. Arrhythmia D. Hyperthermia
Anemia
Which of the following is the process of eliminating or killing bacteria and other living organisms? A. Lubrication B. Sterilization C. Washing D. Cleaning
Sterilization
Which of the following describes dyspnea? A. Hypothermia B. Anemia C. Arrhythmia D. Labored breathing
Labored breathing
Which of the following prefixes means “above”? A. Sub B. Peri C. Post D. Supra
Supra
A cat’s pulse was measured at 120 beats per minute. How many beats did the veterinarian count during the 15 second measuring interval? A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50
30
In wound care, which of the follow is defined as the removal of dead tissue? A. Debridement B. Enema C. Prophylaxis D. Trimming
Debridement
Once instruments are scrubbed, rinsed, dried and wrapped, the surgery pack is placed in which of the following to complete the sterilization process? A. Radiograph B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Endoscope
Autoclave
An IV catheter is placed in which of the following veins before surgery? A. Caudal B. Jugular C. Cephalic D. Saphenous
Cephalic
According to the presentation, which of the following is the first step to presurgical care? A. Insert an IV catheter B. Insert an endotracheal tube C. Administer an induction agent D. Administer pre-medication
Administer pre-medication
After an animal is anesthetized, which of the following is attached to the animal to measure his heart rate and respiration? A. Endotracheal tube B. Pulse oximeter C. Reservoir bag D. IV catheter
Pulse oximeter
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how long does Swann Animal Clinic leave their patients attached to the oxygen machine after a surgical procedure? A. 30 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 5 minutes
5 minutes
When should the endotracheal tube be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after taking the patient off oxygen
B. Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow
C. Once the patient’s eyes are open
D. After detaching the pulse oximeter
Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow
After surgery, a patient’s temperature may lower. Which of the following terms is used to define low temperature? A. Hyperthermic B. Hypothermic C. Hypotemp D. Hypertemp
Hypothermic
When should the IV catheter be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after surgery
B. Once the endotracheal tube is removed
C. Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage
D. Once the patient is placed into a recovery cage
Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage
What anatomical parts are removed from a female dog or cat during a spay surgery? A. Testes B. Scrotum C. Uterus and ovaries D. Vagina
Uterus and ovaries
During a spay surgery, the female is placed in which of the following positions? A. Lateral recumbency B. Dorsal recumbency C. Ventral recumbency D. Sternal recumbency
Dorsal recumbency
Which of the following terms is defined as tying up or closing off, sometimes with a suture? A. Dissect B. Excise C. Inversion D. Ligate
Ligate
How long does it take for a bull to be castrated using the banding method? A. Approximately a week B. Approximately two weeks C. Approximately one month D. Approximately five days
Approximately two weeks
What is an induction agent? A. Steroid B. Antibiotic C. Anesthetic D. Anti-inflammatory
Anesthetic
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, the Swann Animal Clinic uses which of the following to scrub an animal before surgery? A. Bleach B. Clorox® and bleach C. Lubricant D. Chlorhexidine and alcohol
Chlorhexidine and alcohol
Which of the following was signed into effect in 1966 seeking to regulate who may
possess or sell certain animals and to regulate animal living conditions?
A. Lacey Act
B. Animal Welfare Act
C. Endangered Species Act
D. Rights Act
Animal Welfare Act
Which of the following is NOT an animal rights group?
A. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA)
B. Local animal rights group
C. Mercy for Animals
D. National Animal Interest Alliance
National Animal Interest Alliance
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the beliefs and actions of animal rights groups?
A. Use violence to portray their message
B. Animals have the right to live their own lives
C. Humans do not have the right to use animals
D. Support regulations of animal recreational sports
Support regulations of animal recreational sports
Which of the following is NOT an example of common practices for law enforcement in regards to animals?
A. Prohibiting the running at large of animals, specifically cats and dogs
B. Limiting the number of animals a resident may own
C. Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals
D. Controlling animal noise such as barking dogs
Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals
In which year was the Endangered Species Act signed into law? A. 1937 B. 1983 C. 1973 D. 1990
1973
Which type of animal can breed on their own but have undergone physiological or behavioral changes due to captivity? A. Semi-domesticated animals B. Tamed wild animals C. Domesticated animals D. Undomesticated animals
Semi-domesticated animals like bison, elephants, and deer
Which act prohibits the illegal trade of any fish or wild animals which were taken, possessed, transported or sold in violation of any law, treaty or regulation of the United States? A. Animal Welfare Act B. Endangered Species Act C. Lacey Act D. Roe versus Wade
Lacey Act
Which of the following is NOT a federal law, but organizations must comply with it in order to receive funding from PHSP member agencies? A. Public Health Service Policy B. Laboratory Welfare Animal Act C. The 28 Hour Law D. Animal Control
Public Health Service Policy
Which animal rights activist protested animal cruelty and research in “A Dog’s Tale”? A. Fred Meyers B. Mark Twain C. Peter Singers D. Ingrid Newkirk
Mark Twain
What does PETA stand for?
A. People, Ethics & Trust with Animals
B. Pets & Ethical Treatment Association
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D. People for the Ethical Training of Animals
People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
Which of the following is responsible for enforcing the Endangered Species Act?
A. U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service
B. PETA
C. HSUS
D. National Fish and Wildlife Foundation
U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service
Which of the following addresses transporting animals across state lines?
A. The Lacey Act
B. The 28 Hour Law
C. The Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards Act
D. The Companion Animals Act
The 28 Hour Law
In addition to the bald eagle, the Bald Eagle Protection Act also includes protection of which of the following? A. White-tailed eagle B. Gold eagle C. Greater spotted eagle D. Imperial eagle
Gold eagle
Before building dams, builders must consult with which group to prevent fish migration from being inhibited?
A. Game wardens
B. National Fish & Wildlife Foundation
C. Humane Society
D. Bureau of Fisheries
Bureau of Fisheries
At what age must wild horses be in order to be sold? A. 18 B. 14 C. 12 D. 10
10
In what year was The Humane Society of the United States founded? A. 1950 B. 1954 C. 1966 D. 1974
1954
Who was the initial chairman of the National Animal Control Association? A. Henry Bergh B. Ingrid Newkirk C. Mike Burgwin D. Fred Meyers
Mike Burgwin
Which of the following is the largest animal rights organization in the world?
A. Mercy for Animals
B. Humane Society
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D. American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals
People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
The Animal Welfare Council was founded in which of the following years? A. 1990 B. 1980 C. 1897 D. 1979
1979
Who founded People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals? A. Fred Meyers B. Henry Bergh C. Ingrid Newkirk D. Mike Burgwin
Ingrid Newkirk
Pet owners spend the most money on which of the following? A. Veterinary expenses B. Food C. Supplies/medicine D. Grooming
Food
Which law provides legal recourse to people who purchase animals from pet dealers which are later found to have a disease or defect? A. PPP law B. Pet saving law C. Pet purchase protection law D. Apple law
Pet purchase protection law
Who created the Companion Animal Care Guidelines? A. CVM B. Veterinary Board C. PETA D. AVMA
AVMA
Which of the following is currently NOT a pet spending trend? A. Organic and natural food products B. Clothes and costumes C. Increased veterinary spending D. Pet medical insurance
Increased veterinary spending
How many states have adopted laws allowing for pet protection orders? A. 56 B. 11 C. 26 D. 32
26
Which of the following is NOT an example of animal classifications? A. Domestic B. Semi-domestic C. Multi-domestic D. Non-domestic
Multi-domestic
Which of the following types of animals depend on humans for food and shelter? A. Wild animals B. Semi-domesticated C. Domesticated D. Non-domesticated
Domesticated
Which of the following animals are raised and cared for by humans to produce food? A. Livestock animals B. Zoo animals C. Semi-domesticated D. Working animals
Livestock animals
Which animals are threatened with extinction? A. Wild animals B. Endangered animals C. Domesticated animals D. Research animals
Endangered animals
Which of the following is NOT an example of a production animal? A. Goats B. Cattle C. Sheep D. Horses
Horses
Which animal shares the most common behavioral and biological characteristics with humans? A. Cats B. Non-human primates C. Mice D. Pigs
Non-human primates
Which of the following is the science of chemical substances and their effects on living organisms? A. Virology B. Toxicology C. Implementation D. Testing
Toxicology
Which animal has been used in research pertaining to the eyes? A. Mice B. Rabbits C. Cats D. Rats
Rabbits
Which of the following animals can contract a condition similar to human AIDS? A. Dog B. Mice C. Cat D. Rabbit
Cat
Which animal is most often used in research and contains more than 90 percent of the same genes as humans? A. Rabbit B. Pig C. Mice D. Cat
Mice
Who regulates the Animal Welfare Act? A. APHIS B. OHSA C. FDA D. IACUC
APHIS
Which of the following provides federal funding for animal research facilities? A. PHS B. APHIS C. FDA D. AVMA
PHS
What does IACUC stand for?
A. Immediate Animal Care & Use Committee
B. Institutional Animal Care of the United States
C. Institutional Animal Care & Use Committee
D. International Animal Care & Use Council
Institutional Animal Care & Use Committee
Which year was the Animal Welfare Act signed into law? A. 1956 B. 1976 C. 1986 D. 1966
1966
Which group is a branch of the Unites States Department of Agriculture? A. OHSA B. IACUC C. FDA D. PETA
IACUC
Who was amongst the first to experiment on animals? A. Aristotle B. Charles Darwin C. Claude Bernard D. Peter Singer
Aristotle
Which researcher was known as the prince of vivisection? A. Charles Darwin B. Ivan Pavlov C. Louis Pasteur D. Claude Bernard
Claude Bernard
Who created the Theory of Evolution? A. Ivan Pavlov B. Charles Darwin C. Aristotle D. Rudolf Jaenisch
Charles Darwin
Who invented the process of pasteurization? A. Louis Pasteur B. Rudolf Jaenisch C. Claude Bernard D. Peter Singer
Louis Pasteur
Which researcher used mice to produce the first transgenic mammal? A. Charles Darwin B. Aristotle C. Rudolf Jaenisch D. Ivan Pavlov
Rudolf Jaenisch
Which of the following is the transplantation of living tissue from one species to another? A. Radiograph B. Xenograft C. CAT scan D. Skin graft
Xenograft
Which human disease is related to the simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), which effects non-human primates? A. Hepatitis B. Diabetes C. HIV D. Respiratory disease
HIV
Which of the following was discovered after testing on cats and prevents the clotting of blood? A. Antibiotics B. Antiblood C. Anticoagulants D. Anesthesia
Anticoagulants
Which act requires minimum standards of treatment and care for animals? A. Animal Care Act B. Animal Rights Act C. Animal Health Act D. Animal Welfare Act
Animal Welfare Act
Who wrote against animal experimentation with his book Animal Liberation? A. Peter Singer B. Ivan Pavlov C. Charles Darwin D. Aristotle
Peter Singer
Who was the first to divide organisms into two groups– plants and animals? A. Charles Darwin B. Aristotle C. Louis Pasteur D. Claude Bernard
Aristotle
In the late nineteenth century, who experimented on dogs to evaluate their “conditioned” responses, like salivation? A. Ivan Pavlov B. Rudolf Jaenisch C. Claude Bernard D. Louis Pasteur
Ivan Pavlov
Who suggested primates were capable of human emotions? A. Rudolf Jaenisch B. Peter Singer C. Louis Pasteur D. Charles Darwin
Peter Singer
Which of the following administers licenses and registration to research facilities? A. PHSP B. APHIS C. IACUC D. FDA
APHIS
Surgical procedures were often first studied on which animal? A. Dog B. Cat C. Non-human primate D. Pig
Dog
Cats represent what percentage of potential clinical growth? A. 100 percent B. 80 percent C. 50 percent D. 60 percent
80 percent
What tool is used to help veterinarians successfully bond with their clients? A. Annual check-ups B. Alternative treatments C. Social media D. Insurance
Social media
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the increased cost of animal care? A. Significant fee increases B. More sophisticated care C. Shorter animal life span D. Increased hospital fees
Shorter animal life span
Which of the following is key to veterinary growth? A. Dog friendly practices B. Providing therapeutic care C. Performing new procedures D. Cat friendly practices
Cat friendly practices
Veterinary job growth is expected to increase by which of the following percentage by 2016? A. 26.7 percent B. 27.6 percent C. 30 percent D. 25 percent
27.6 percent
Where must veterinarians be licensed? A. In only one state B. They do not need a license C. In each state they practice D. In each city they practice
In each state they practice
According to the presentation, which of the following types of insurance should a veterinarian have? A. Limited liability insurance B. Basic health insurance C. Professional liability insurance D. They do not need insurance
Professional liability insurance
Which of the following ensures animal drugs are safe and effective before approval? A. USDA B. FDA C. Veterinarians D. EPA
FDA
Posting appropriate warning or identification signs is required by which of the following agencies? A. USDA B. EPA C. FDA D. OSHA
OSHA
In order to show proof of a veterinarian-client-patient relationship, how long must a veterinarian maintain patients records? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years
Two years
Who is responsible for creating the Veterinarian Oath and Principles of Veterinary Ethics? A. OSHA B. MAVA C. AVMA D. USDA
AVMA
How many principles of veterinary medical ethics are there in which a veterinarian must uphold? A. Seven B. Six C. Eight D. Five
Eight
A veterinarian shall respect the law and also recognize a responsibility to seek changes to which of the following? A. Regulations B. Owners C. Animals D. Rules
Regulations
What must a veterinarian safeguard in the confines of the law? A. Clients B. Colleagues C. Health professionals D. Medical information
Medical information
A veterinarian has the right to choose whom to serve, with whom to associate and the environment in which to provide patient care, except in which of the following instances? A. Emergencies B. When working in a different state C. When working in a different hospital D. When working in a different country
Emergencies
Who enforces the Controlled Substances Act of 1970? A. DEA B. FDA C. USDA D. OSHA
DEA
Who regulates the wholesale and pharmacy distribution of veterinary drugs?
A. Veterinarians
B. Center of Veterinary Medicine
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. United States Department of Agriculture
Board of Pharmacy
Which of the following identifies the minimum standards required to enter the veterinarian profession and to remain in practice?
A. American Veterinarian Medical Association
B. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
C. Veterinarian Practice Association
D. Veterinarian Certificate Association
American Association of Veterinary State Boards
Which agency protects the health and safety of the public and animals through the regulation of the practice of veterinary medicine?
A. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
B. American Veterinary Medical Association
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. Board of Veterinary Medicine
Board of Veterinary Medicine
Which agency requires appropriate warning or identification signs within a veterinarian office? A. USDA B. OSHA C. AVMA D. FDA
OSHA
The Center for Veterinary Medicine is a part of which of the following administrations? A. USDA B. EPA C. FDA D. AVMA
FDA
The USDA regulates vaccines through which of the following centers? A. Center of Veterinary Biologics B. Center of Veterinary Medicine C. American Veterinary Center D. Center of Veterinary Rules
Center of Veterinary Biologics
Who enforces the Animal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994? A. FDA B. USDA C. OHSA D. AVMA
FDA
“I will practice my profession conscientiously, with dignity, and in keeping with the principles of veterinary medical ethics.” Where is this quote from? A. Veterinary Ethical Values B. A famous veterinarian C. Veterinarian’s Oath D. Principles of Veterinary Ethics
Veterinarian’s Oath
Which of the following administrations requires a summary of occupational injuries, illnesses and records? A. FDA B. USDA C. OSHA D. EPA
OSHA
Which of the following decontaminates and sterilizes surgical instruments? A. Centrifuge B. Auto cleaner C. Dish washer D. Autoclave
Autoclave
After cleaning, how do you know the contents are sterilized?
A. Instruments will be wet
B. Indicator tape will have black lines
C. Indicator tape will have no lines
D. Checking for any residue or spots on the instruments
Indicator tape will have black lines
A fecal examination is used for which of the following?
A. Identifying an inflammatory infection
B. Identifying number of red blood cells
C. Identifying parasite infection
D. Identifying a disease
Identifying parasite infection
Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing a urine analysis?
A. Identifying an inflammatory infection
B. Identifying a disease
C. Identifying bladder stones or infection
D. Identifying parasites in the urine
Identifying parasites in the urine
At what temperature must the autoclave be set in order to sterilize general surgical packs and wrapped items? A. 500°F (260°C) B. 300°F (149°C) C. 250°F (121°C) D. 200°F (93°C)
250°F (121°C)
What is used to detect a fetus in a pregnant animal? A. Endoscope B. X-ray C. Radiograph D. Ultrasound
Ultrasound
Which of the following examines the esophagus, stomach, rectum, bowel, colon, cecum and upper intestines? A. Radiograph B. Endoscope C. Electrocardiograph D. Ultrasound
Endoscope
Which of the following is also known as an ECG or EKG? A. Radiograph B. Electrocardiograph C. Ultrasound D. Endoscope
Electrocardiograph
Which of the following detects heart disease or an irregular heart beat? A. Endoscope B. Ultrasound C. Electrocardiograph D. Radiograph
Electrocardiograph
What should a veterinarian or staff always wear when using a radiograph (x-ray) machine? A. A mask B. Latex gloves and gown C. Sterilized suit D. Lead gloves and lead apron
Lead gloves and lead apron
Which of the following is also known as a hemostat? A. Needle holder B. Clamping forceps C. Scalpel D. Tubes
Clamping forceps
Which of the following are used as a locking mechanism to hold a suture needle when applying stitches or closing an incision? A. Cannula B. Tubes C. Scalpels D. Needle holders
Needle holders
Which of the following is a very sharp surgical knife? A. Cannula B. Scalpel C. Forceps D. Catheter
Scalpel
After being rinsed off and soaked in an enzymatic cleaner bath, instruments should be soaked in which of the following? A. Bleach B. Clorox® C. Disinfectant D. Only water
Disinfectant
Which of the following veterinary tools is used to administer fluids into an animal? A. Cannula B. Catheter C. IV Tube D. Trachea Tube
IV Tube
Which of the following instruments is used to insert de-wormer into an animal? A. Drench gun B. Syringe C. Balling gun D. Needle
Drench gun
Which of the following is a very small syringe used with a hollow needle for injections into or under the skin? A. Balling gun B. Drench gun C. Hypodermic syringe D. Hemostat
Hypodermic syringe
Which of the following is the first and most important step before using a hollow needle on an animal?
A. Making sure it is filled with the correct dosage
B. Making sure the area being injected is clean
C. Making sure the needle is sterile
D. Making sure the animal is restrained
Making sure the needle is sterile
Which of the following is most commonly used on cattle to insert an oral medication? A. Tube B. Balling gun C. Drench gun D. Syringe
Balling gun
Which of the following is used to administer oral medication capsules or boluses into an animal? A. Hollow needle B. Balling gun C. Cannula D. Multi-dose hypodermic syringe
Balling gun
Which of the following restricts animals from further agitating wounds? A. Cat restraint bag B. Elizabethan collar C. Muzzles D. Head gates
Elizabethan collar
Which of the following helps prevent hardware disease? A. Muzzles B. Head gates C. Rumen magnets D. Squeeze chutes
Rumen magnets
Which of the following cushions wounds? A. Elasticon B. Roll Gauze C. Vet Wrap D. Vet Pads
Roll Gauze
Which of the following are used to restrain horses in high-stress situations? A. Twitch chains B. Head gates C. Squeeze chutes D. Tourniquets
Twitch chains
Which of the following are used for shaping, finishing and smoothing hooves? A. Tourniquets B. Hoof knives C. Twitch chains D. Hoof rasps
Hoof rasps
Which of the following is a strong, heated container used to decontaminate veterinary tools? A. Auto washer B. Autoclave C. Auto wave D. Auto decontaminator
Autoclave
Which of the following uses a device with a light attached to look inside a body cavity or organ? A. Endoscope B. Ultrasound C. Radiograph D. Electrocardiogram
Endoscope
Which piece of equipment is used for the separation of fluids by spinning the vessel holding the material at a high speed? A. Autoclave B. Ultrasound C. Centrifuge D. X-ray
Centrifuge
Which of the following equipment does NOT allow for a visual examination of body parts? A. Ultrasound B. Radiograph C. Electrocardiograph D. Endoscopy
Electrocardiograph
Which instrument records electrical activity of the heart over a period of time by placing electrode on a patient’s body? A. Endoscope B. Ultrasound C. Electrocardiograph D. Radiograph
Electrocardiograph
Which of the following is one of the first tools used when diagnosing a problem due to illness or injury in an animal? A. Radiograph B. Ultrasound C. Electrocardiograph D. Endoscope
Radiograph
Which instrument is used for grasping, compressing, cutting and pulling tissues? A. Clamping forceps B. Thumb forceps C. Needle holders D. Catheter
Thumb forceps
Which instrument is a drain used to release fluid or gas which has built up in an animal? A. Catheter B. Scalpel C. Cannula D. Syringe
Cannula
Which of the following is the last step in the cleaning and sterilizing process of surgical instruments? A. Scrubbing B. Drying C. Autoclaving D. Soaking
Autoclaving
Which instrument listed below cuts material, other than tissue, which may dull a blade? A. Dissecting scissors B. Utility scissors C. Surgical scissors D. Suture scissors
Utility scissors
Which of the following is known as the foundation of a word? A. Prefix B. Suffix C. Combining form D. Root word
Root word
Which of the following is the type of word which comes before the root word? A. Suffix B. Prefix C. Root word D. Compound word
Prefix
Which of the following is a word which has two or more roots? A. Compound word B. Combining form C. Root word D. Prefix
Compound word
Which of the following is always at the end of a root word? A. Prefix B. Suffix C. Compound word D. Combining form
Suffix
Which of the following is an incomplete word containing a root word, prefix or suffix? A. Compound word B. Prefixes C. Combining forms D. Root words
Combining forms
The body is divided into how many planes? A. Six B. Five C. Four D. Two
Four
Which of the following planes divides the animal into two equal halves? A. Sagittal plane B. Median plane C. Dorsal plane D. Transverse plane
Median plane
Which of the following terms is relating to the underside of an animal? A. Dorsal B. Cranial C. Caudal D. Ventral
Ventral
Which of the following terms means near the tail? A. Cranial B. Caudal C. Proximal D. Rostral
Caudal
Which of the following planes divides the trunk of the animal? A. Sagittal B. Median C. Transverse D. Dorsal
Transverse
Which of the following systems provides the body with the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide? A. Cardiovascular system B. Lymphatic system C. Respiratory system D. Reproductive system
Respiratory system
Which of the following digestive systems contains one large stomach which is divided into four compartments? A. Hindgut-fermenter B. Ruminant C. Monogastric D. Avian
Ruminant
Which of the following systems protects the animal’s body from disease by providing a barrier to viruses and bacteria? A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Digestive D. Integumentary
Integumentary
Which of the following systems is designed to pump and deliver blood to the body’s tissues? A. Cardiovascular B. Respiratory C. Skeletal D. Neurological
Cardiovascular
Which of the following systems is made up of the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi and lungs? A. Respiratory B. Integumentary C. Digestive D. Endocrine
Respiratory
What is a castrate male horse called? A. Stallion B. Gelding C. Mare D. Colt
Gelding
Which of the following is the measurement of the number of times the heart beats per minute? A. Temperature B. Respiration C. Pulse D. Rhythm
Pulse
Which of the following is the meaning for the abbreviation, TID? A. Three times a day B. Once a day C. Every other day D. Four times a day
Three times a day
Which of the following is the meaning for the abbreviation, AD? A. Left ear B. Both ears C. Right ear D. Mouth
Right ear
Which of the following terms is used to describe a dog giving birth? A. Queening B. Foaling C. Kidding D. Whelping
Whelping
Which of the following is an emergency procedure used to keep the heart pumping and oxygen flowing? A. Treatment of shock B. Hydrotherapy C. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation D. Control of bleeding
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Which of the following tests may determine if an animal is infected with internal parasites? A. Urinalysis B. Fecal flotation C. Blood test D. Sensitivity test
Fecal flotation
Which of the following stomachs is found in horses, rabbits, guinea pigs and hamsters? A. Ruminant B. Monogastric C. Avian D. Hindgut-fermenter
Hindgut-fermenter
Which of the following prefixes means “above”? A. Supra B. Sub C. Peri D. Top
Supra
Which system is in charge of transmitting signals to the body and operates basic functions like breathing and digestion? A. Cardiovascular system B. Digestive system C. Neurologic system D. Endocrine system
Neurologic system
What is a castrated male sheep called? A. Gelding B. Wether C. Ram D. Buck
Wether
Which of the following gives a word meaning? A. Combining form B. Suffix C. Prefix D. Root word
Root word
Which of the following terms means “near the center of the body”? A. Proximal B. Caudal C. Ventral D. Saggital
Proximal
What is it called when drugs are administered through the veins of an animal? A. Intravenous injection B. Intramuscular injection C. Parenteral injection D. Subcutaneous injection
Intravenous injection
Which of the following provides support for muscles and other tissues in the body? A. Organs B. Ligaments C. Bones D. Nerves
Bones
The atria are the top two chambers of the heart.
A. True
B. False
True
Long bones are found in the wrist and ankle regions.
A. True
B. False
False
Smooth muscles are involuntary.
A. True
B. False
True
Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
A. True
B. False
True
The small intestine is also known as the colon.
A. True
B. False
False
Which of the following are parts of the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is not a type of bone in dogs and cats? A. Short B. Long C. Round D. Irregular
Round
Which of the following are proteins produced by living organisms and which function as catalysts? A. Enzymes B. Gile Salts C. Electrolytes D. Neurons
Enzymes
Which of the following is a protective tubular sheath of skin covering the penis? A. Scrotum B. Prepuce C. Epididymides D. Prostrate
Prepuce
Which of the following is any disease causing agent such as a virus or bacteria? A. Neuron B. Ion C. Pathogen D. Lymph
Pathogen
What is the name of the highest point on most four legged animals? A. Distal B. Caudal C. Cranial D. Dorsal
Dorsal
Where is the most common place to put a tag which identifies an animal? A. Auricle B. Nares C. Skin D. Vibrissae
Auricle
Which part of the skin houses the hair follicles? A. Keratin B. Caudal C. Epidermis D. Dermis
Dermis
Keratin is NOT found in which of the following locations? A. Hair B. Hooves C. Head D. Tail
Head
Which of the following is NOT an anatomical term? A. Ventral B. Caudal C. Cranial D. Vibrissae
Vibrissae
Which of the following terms is also know as Vibrissae? A. Skin B. Tail C. Nails D. Whiskers
Whiskers
Which of the following is called the area toward the head of the body? A. Cranial B. Proximal C. Distal D. Dorsal
Cranial
Which of the following is NOT contained within the integumentary system? A. Skin B. Hair C. Eyes D. Nares
Eyes
Which of the following terms is the Latin word for tail? A. Distar B. Cauda C. Venter D. Proximus
Cauda
Which external component can be used for defense? A. Bone B. Hair C. Horns D. Dewclaw
Horns
How many chambers are in the heart? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Four
When blood leaves the right atrium, it enters the \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Left atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left ventricle D. None of the above
Right ventricle
The only type of artery in the body which carries deoxygenated blood is \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. A superior vena cava B. An inferior vena cava C. A pulmonary artery D. An aorta
A pulmonary artery
The only type of vein in the body which carries oxygenated blood is \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. A pulmonary vein B. A pulmonary trunk C. A superior vena cava D. An inferior vena cava
A pulmonary vein
The pressure exerted by the left ventricle must push blood where?
A. To the body
B. To the lungs and back to the left atrium
C. To the lungs and back to the right atrium
D. To the aorta only
To the body
Which chamber has the thickest muscular wall? A. The right atrium B. The left atrium C. The right ventricle D. The left ventricle
The left ventricle
The grooves in which the coronary arteries lie are known as which of the following? A. Sulci B. Chordae tendineae C. Papillary muscles D. Cusps
Sulci
The right ventricle must exert enough pressure to push the blood where?
A. To the lungs and back to the left atrium
B. To the lungs and body
C. To the body and back to the left ventricle
D. To the body only
To the lungs and back to the left atrium
Heart attacks can result from a blockage of A. The trachea B. The bronchus C. A coronary artery D. The superior vena cava
A coronary artery
The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is known as the: A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary semi-lunar valve C. Aortic semi-lunar valve D. Bicuspid valve
Bicuspid valve
The lung’s lobed structure:
A. Can be helpful when treating patients with lung cancer
B. Allows removal of part of a lung
C. Has a different number of lobes on each side
D. All of the above
All of the above
The right lung is composed of how many lobes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Three
Expiration is \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_. A. Usually active B. Usually passive C. Always active D. Always passive
Usually passive
Which situation would most likely involve active expiration? A. Sitting at a desk B. Watching a film C. Running a marathon D. Sleeping
Running a marathon
Which structure helps to prevent food from entering the trachea during swallowing? A. The uvula B. The epiglottis C. The vocal cords D. All of the above
All of the above
The cartilaginous rings which make up the trachea are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. O-shaped B. U-shaped C. C-shaped D. All of the above
C-shaped
The trachea divides into two branches called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Sulci B. Bronchi C. Chordae tendineae D. Cusps
Bronchi
What structure helps to prevent food from entering the sinus cavity during swallowing? A. The uvula B. The epiglottis C. The bronchi D. The chordae tendineae
The uvula
The SA node is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Right ventricle B. Right atrium C. Left ventricle D. Left atrium
Right atrium
Which structure holds the chordae tendineae to the interior walls of the heart? A. Sulci B. Bronchi C. Papillary muscles D. None of the above
Papillary muscles
Which structures prevent heart valves from being forced backward into the wrong chamber? A. Sulci B. Bronchi C. Cusps D. None of the above
None of the above
The wall separating the left side of the heart from the right side is the A. Sulcus B. Bronchus C. Atrium D. None of the above
None of the above
Identify the waste gas removed from the blood during expiration. A. Oxygen B. Carbon dioxide C. Water D. All of the above
Carbon dioxide
The left lung is composed of how many lobes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Two
Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Superior vena cava B. Inferior vena cava C. Pulmonary artery D. Pulmonary vein
Pulmonary artery
Prehension is a term referring to: A. How an animal gathers food B. Eating feed or forage C. Chewing food D. Digesting food
How an animal gathers food
What is different about the mouth structure of ruminants compared to that of humans?
A. There is no difference.
B. Humans do not have upper incisors.
C. Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors.
D. Ruminants do not have a true tongue.
Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors.
What is a human’s organ of prehension? A. Mouth B. Teeth C. Hand D. Eye
Hand
Which of the following is not directly involved in mechanical processing? A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Teeth D. Liver
Liver
The body’s release of enzymes, water and acid into food is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Absorption B. Secretion C. Mastication D. Excretion
Secretion
Waves of muscular contractions which push food through the esophagus are part of the process known as \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Peristalsis B. Ingestion C. Digestion D. Mechanical processing
Peristalsis
All venous blood leaving the intestines travels through which structure? A. Bile duct B. Esophagus C. Hepatic portal vessel D. Ileum
Hepatic portal vessel
According to the segment, the most common way to bring a toxin into the body is through ingestion.
A. True
B. False
True
The mesentery carries blood to the \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Mouth B. Esophagus C. Stomach D. None of the above
Stomach
Which part of the large intestine travels across the body inferior to the stomach and the liver? A. Cecum B. Ascending colon C. Transverse colon D. Descending colon
Transverse colon
In ruminants, the esophagus carries feed from the: A. Mouth to the rumen B. Rumen to the mouth C. Stomach to cecum D. Both A and B
Both A and B
Material leaving the omasum enters which structure? A. Abomasum B. Reticulum C. Rumen D. Esophagus
Abomasum
How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have? A. Two B. three C. Four D. Five
Four
Why are magnets administered to cattle? A. To add weight B. To catch wire and bolts C. To help circulation D. To speed digestion
To catch wire and bolts
The "honeycomb" refers to which structure? A. Rumen B. Reticulum C. Omasum D. Abomasum
Reticulum
Which of the following animals are ruminants? A. Cattle B. Sheep C. Deer D. All of the above
All of the above
Which organ produces bile? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Colon D. Esophagus
Liver
Bile is stored and concentrated in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Duodenum B. Appendix C. Gall bladder D. Cecum
Gall bladder
Before traveling to the rest of the body, all absorbed nutrients or toxins must pass through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Gall bladder D. Colon
Liver
The stomach performs which of the following functions? A. Mechanical processing B. Digestion C. Secretion D. All of the above
All of the above
Which stomach compartment of ruminants is considered to be the true "stomach?" A. Rumen B. Reticulum C. Omasum D. Abomasum
Abomasum
Which structure governs the passage of food material into the small intestine? A. Pylorus or pyloric valve B. Omasum C. Cecum D. Large intestine
Pylorus or pyloric valve
Which of the following make up the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Ileum C. Jejunum D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following structures aids in absorption? A. Papillae B. Villi C. Microvilli D. All of the above
All of the above
What is a horse's organ of prehension? A. Lips B. Teeth C. Hoof D. Tail
Lips
Unlike exocrine glands, endocrine glands __________.
A. Are ductless
B. Have ducts
C. Do not secrete hormones
D. Do not secrete directly into the blood
Are ductless
Chemical molecules which travel through blood to affect body systems are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Glands B. Hormones C. Kidneys D. None of the above
Hormones
In males, hormones which stimulate formation of male characteristics are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Androgens D. None of the above
Androgens
Which element is administered to the general population through table salt? A. Oxygen B. Calcium C. Iodine D. Hydrogen
Iodine
Which gland is most closely associated with the thyroid gland? A. Parathyroid B. Pituitary C. Hypothalamus D. Ovaries
Parathyroid
General protection from invading microbes is known as which of the following? A. General immunity B. Specific immunity C. Cell mediated immunity D. Antibody mediated immunity
General immunity
Which of the following surrounds and destroys an invading microbe? A. Antigen B. Hair C. Phagocyte D. Bone marrow
Phagocyte
Weakened or killed antigens purposefully introduced into the body by medical professionals is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Mucus B. White blood cell C. Phagocyte D. Vaccine
Vaccine
T-cells develop in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Thymus B. Hair C. Mucus D. All of the above
Thymus
Both B-cells and T-cells are derived from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Bone marrow B. Lymphocytes C. Thymus D. None of the above
Lymphocytes
Accessory structures of the skin include which of the following? A. Sweat glands B. Scales C. Feathers D. All of the above
All of the above
Hair grows from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Epidermis B. Dermis C. Sweat glands D. All of the above
Dermis
The skin is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ organ of the body. A. Largest B. Heaviest C. Lightest D. Both A and B
Both A and B
What is produced by the skin for protection against harmful ultraviolet light? A. Keratin B. Melanin C. Sweat D. Oil
Melanin
What helps the body create Vitamin D? A. Sweat B. Oil C. The sun D. Keratin
The sun
A neuron has \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Soma B. Axom C. Nucleus D. All of the above
All of the above
The peripheral nervous system includes the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Brain stem B. Spinal cord C. Autonomic nervous system D. Cerebellum
Spinal cord
In humans, which part of the brain contains 80 percent of its weight? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Spiral cord D. Brain stem
Cerebrum
The brain is directly protected by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Spinal cord B. Skull C. Vertebral column D. All of the above
Skull
The central nervous system includes the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Peripheral nervous system B. Spinal cord C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Parasympathetic nervous system
Spinal cord
Humans are considered \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Monopods B. Bipeds C. Tripods D. Quadrupeds
Bipeds
Which bone is present in humans, but absent in four-legged animals? A. Skull B. Femur C. Clavicle D. Pelvis
Clavicle
The bones of the hand are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Long B. Short C. Flat D. Irregular
Short
Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system? A. Protection B. Locomotion C. Blood production D. All of the above
All of the above
The shoulder and hip joints are considered what kind of joints? A. Ball-and-socket joints B. Gliding joints C. Pivot joints D. Fused joints
Ball-and-socket joints
Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue? A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. All of the above
All of the above
Which type of muscle is termed as “voluntary?” A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. All of the above
Skeletal
Tendons attach \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Muscle/muscle B. Bone/bone C. Muscle/bone D. Red fibers/white fibers
Muscle/bone
According to the program, which animal has a higher percentage of slow-twitch muscle fibers? A. Racing quarter horses B. Chickens C. Working draft horses D. None of the above
Working draft horses
Muscle contraction results in muscle fiber becoming \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Shorter B. Longer C. Smooth D. None of the above
Shorter
Which of the following is the most common method used for identification in swine? A. Hot iron branding B. Ear notching C. Microchipping D. Freeze branding
Ear notching
According to the presentation, what does the orange USDA metal tag indicate on cattle?
A. The animal has been vaccinated for brucellosis
B. The animal has been vaccinated for rabies
C. The animal is owned by the USDA
D. The animal is registered through the USDA
The animal has been vaccinated for brucellosis
Which of the following animal behavior categories may result in an animal growling, showing the teeth and pinning the ears? A. Painful B. Timid C. Aggressive D. Happy
Aggressive
Which of the following small animal restraints requires extensive experience to correctly handle aggressive dogs? A. Slip lead B. Net C. Towel D. Control pole
Control pole
For dogs, where is a microchip inserted? A. Behind the ear B. On the hip C. Between the shoulder blades D. On the neck
Between the shoulder blades
For horses, which of the following is NOT used as a form of identification? A. Lip tattooing B. Hot iron branding C. Freeze branding D. Ear notching
Ear notching
Which of the following is used on small animals to decrease anxiety on a slippery table and help restrain an animal’s legs? A. Towel B. Slip lead C. Muzzle D. Net
Towel
Which of the following restraints is used for fractious cats or wild animals? A. Slip lead B. Muzzle C. Net D. Control pole
Net
Where is a tattoo placed on cattle? A. Hip B. Upper lip C. Ear D. Neck
Ear
Horses should always be approached in which of the following ways? A. On their left side B. On their right side C. Directly behind them D. Directly in front of them
On their left side
In swine, what does ear notching help identify?
A. Age and litter number
B. Litter and individual number
C. Age and teeth
D. Individual number and number of offspring
Litter and individual number
For sheep and goats, which of the following is the most common method used for identification? A. Freeze branding B. Microchipping C. Ear notching D. Ear tagging
Ear tagging
Which of the following control mechanisms is placed on a horse’s nose and is used as a distraction for the animal? A. Halter B. Rope C. Slip lead D. Twitch
Twitch
Which of the following is used to keep cattle contained while performing physical exams or other procedures? A. Chute B. Stock C. Stall D. Panel
Chute
How should a small animal be handled while performing a physical exam or other procedures?
A. Apply firm pressure to the legs of the animal
B. Apply firm, gentle pressure around the animal’s body while controlling the head
C. Apply firm pressure to the head of the animal
D. Apply firm pressure to the animal on a short leash
Apply firm, gentle pressure around the animal’s body while controlling the head
Which of the following is NOT an indicator for elevated vital signs? A. Exercise B. Stress C. Hot weather D. Shock
Shock
What is it called when the temperature of an animal is below normal? A. Shock B. Inspiration C. Hypothermia D. Expiration
Hypothermia
Which of the following is defined as the expansion of the chest or thorax? A. Inspiration B. Expiration C. Respiration D. Breathing
Inspiration
Which of the following is NOT an indicator for lowered vital signs? A. Shock B. Stress C. Anemia D. Cold weather
Stress
Which of the following is defined as the number of inspirations per minute? A. Inspiration B. Depth C. Rate D. Rhythm
Rate
What is the average heart rate or pulse for a horse? A. 32 to 42 bpm B. 50 to 42 bpm C. 22 to 32 bpm D. 42 to 52 bpm
32 to 42 bpm
Where is the most accurate place to read an animal’s temperature? A. Mouth B. Ear C. Belly D. Rectally
Rectally
Which of the following is defined as the expulsion of air from the lungs? A. Inspiration B. Expiration C. Respiration D. Breathing
Expiration
Which of the following refers to the intensity or indication of strain during respiration? A. Rhythm B. Sound C. Depth D. Rate
Depth
What is the average temperature for both cats and dogs? A. 98 to 100°F (36.7 to 37.8°C) B. 99 to 104°F (37.2 to 40°C) C. 97 to 101°F (36.1 to 38.3°C) D. 99 to 102°F (37.2 to 38.9°C)
99 to 102°F (37.2 to 38.9°C)
Which of the following is defined as labored breathing? A. Dyspnea B. Anemia C. Hypothermia D. Shock
Dyspnea
What is the average heart rate or pulse for cattle? A. 20 to 40 bpm B. 40 to 80 bpm C. 10 to 30 bpm D. 80 to 100 bpm
40 to 80 bpm
Which of the following is a true statement about a smaller dog’s resting pulse rate?
A. It is usually always lower than a large dog
B. It is the same as a large dog
C. It is usually always higher than a large dog
D. It varies from being higher and lower than a large dog
It is usually always higher than a large dog
What must a veterinarian do in order to correctly identify a pulse rate?
A. Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by four
B. Count the number of beats in 30 seconds and then multiply by four
C. Count the number of beats in 25 seconds and multiply by two
D. Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by six
Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by four
What is the average heart rate or pulse for a cat? A. 120 to 130 bpm B. 120 to 140 bpm C. 110 to 130 bpm D. 32 to 42 bpm
120 to 140 bpm
The liquid portion of blood which plays an important role in transportation throughout the body is known as which of the following? A. Plasma B. Red blood cells C. White blood cells D. Platelets
Plasma
Which of the following carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body using a special protein called hemoglobin? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells C. Plasma D. Platelets
Red Blood Cells
How long does the average red blood cell live? A. 50 days B. 200 days C. 100 days D. 25 days
100 days
Which of the following is also referred to as leukocytes? A. Plasma B. Red blood cells C. White blood cells D. Erythrocytes
White Blood Cells
Which of the following tests is used to determine the percentage of red blood cells within a volume of blood? A. Packed cell volume (PCV) B. Complete blood count (CBC) C. White blood cell test D. Platelet test
Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
After an injury, what happens to platelets? A. They decrease B. They increase C. They stay the same D. They die
They increase
Which of the following has the major role of defending the body from organisms such as bacteria, viruses and fungi? A. Red blood cells B. Hemoglobin C. Plasma D. White blood cells
White blood cells
Which of the following is also referred to as erythrocytes? A. Red blood cells B. White blood cells C. Platelets D. Plasma
Red blood cells
What is the normal packed cell volume (PCV) percentage for dogs? A. 29 to 50 percent B. 30 to 40 percent C. 40 to 59 percent D. 50 to 69 percent
40 to 59 percent
What part of the body produces platelets? A. Kidneys B. Spleen C. Liver D. Bone marrow
Bone marrow
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, which vein can be utilized when drawing blood from a cat but NOT from a dog? A. Jugular B. Cephalic C. Medial saphenous D. Medial cephalic
Medial saphenous
If an animal has been diagnosed with polycythemia, which of the following symptoms typically occurs? A. Diarrhea B. Flaky skin C. Leukemia D. Anemia
Diarrhea
In cattle, which of the following is the best location to obtain a small blood sample? A. Medial tail vein B. Cephalic tail vein C. Saphenous tail vein D. Caudal tail vein
Caudal tail vein
Where is the best location to obtain a large blood sample from a horse? A. Cephalic B. Jugular C. Saphenous D. Caudal
Jugular
Which of the following types of white blood cells are NOT formed in bone marrow? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Monocytes D. Sasophils
Lymphocytes
Which of the following methods is used to inject a drug into the tissue layer between the skin and the muscle? A. Intravenous (IV) B. Intramuscular (IM) C. Subcutaneous (SQ) D. Submuscular (SM)
Subcutaneous (SQ)
Injections are most commonly given with a syringe, which of the following is NOT one of the three main parts of a syringe? A. Barrel B. Tube C. Plunger D. Needle
Tube
Which of the following is the part of the syringe which holds the medicine? A. Barrel B. Tube C. Plunger D. Needle
Barrel
Which of the following statements is true when referring to the diameter of a needle?
A. The lower the gauge of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the needle
B. The lower the gauge of needle, the larger the diameter of the needle
C. The higher the gauge of the needle, the larger the diameter of the needle
D. There is no correlation between needle gauge and diameter size
The lower the gauge of needle, the larger the diameter of the needle
If the dosage for a certain vaccination calls for 5 cc per animal and you are vaccinating 10 animals, how many milliliters of the vaccine will you use? A. 40 mL B. 50 mL C. 60 mL D. 70 mL
50 mL
According to Steve Kennedy, DVM, where is the most common location for an intramuscular injection (IM) on horses and cattle?
A. Triangle area in the shoulder muscle
B. Triangle area in the neck muscle
C. Triangle area in the hindquarter muscle
D. Triangle area underneath the neck
Triangle area in the neck muscle
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, where should feline vaccines be injected? A. Dorsal area B. Cranial area C. Caudal area D. Distal area
Distal area
Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to dogs? A. Rabies B. Distemper C. West Nile D. Parvovirus
West Nile
Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to horses? A. Rhino/flu B. Tetanus C. Distemper D. Brucellosis
Brucellosis
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, after receiving a vaccination, what may develop on a cat’s body? A. Sores B. Sarcoma C. Sarcoid D. Mange
Sarcoma
According to Steve Kennedy, DVM, where are subcutaneous injections performed on cattle? A. Neck B. Hip C. Thigh D. Shoulder
Neck
Which of the following methods is used to inject a drug directly into the vein of an animal? A. Intravenous (IV) B. Intramuscular (IM) C. Subcutaneous (SQ) D. Submuscular (SM)
Intravenous (IV)
Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to cats? A. Rabies B. Calicivirus C. Rhinotracheitis D. Bordetella
Bordetella
Which of the following is the part of the syringe which allows the applicator to push the medication through the syringe? A. Barrel B. Tube C. Plunger D. Needle
Plunger
The capillary refill time on a healthy animal should be which of the following? A. Less than five seconds B. Two seconds or less C. Ten seconds D. No more than four seconds
Two seconds or less
When performing a physical exam on a horse, how does the veterinarian check for dehydration? A. Giving the horse water B. Checking the gums C. Making a skin tent D. Listening to the throat
Making a skin tent
During a small animal examination, how does the veterinarian feel for enlargement of the internal organs and/or masses and fluid within the animal? A. Performing an orthopedic exam B. Listening to the lungs C. Checking the skin D. Palpating the belly
Palpating the belly
Listening for gut motility and function is extremely important when examining a horse. How many quadrants must the veterinarian listen to in order to examine both high and low portions of the gut? A. Four B. Two C. Six D. Three
four
Where is the temperature taken in cattle? A. Mouth B. Ear C. Rectally D. Under skin
Rectally
What is the most common anatomical order when performing a physical exam on any type of animal? A. Top to bottom B. Back to front C. Bottom to top D. Head to tail
Head to tail
Where is the femoral pulse located? A. Inside the front legs B. Inside the hind legs C. On the neck D. Under the belly
Inside the hind legs
What could be the cause for swollen lymph nodes on an animal? A. Mange B. Parasites C. Infection or systemic disease D. Fleas or ticks
Infection or systemic disease
Where are fleas and ticks most commonly found on a small animal? A. Belly B. Neck C. Back D. Rump and neck
Rump and neck
What should be the normal color of an animal’s gums and mucous membranes? A. Pink B. Blue C. Red D. Dark red
Pink
Where are the submandibular lymph nodes located? A. Hind legs B. Chest C. Beneath the jaw D. Under the belly
Beneath the jaw
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a healthy animal? A. Dull coat B. Clear eyes C. Healthy mouth D. Normal vital signs
Dull coat
What is the most common reason for tartar on a small animal’s teeth? A. Poor appetite B. Bad owners C. Age D. Illness
Age
What is the average respiration rate, in breaths per minute, for cattle? A. 10 to 40 B. 10 to 30 C. 15 to 40 D. 15 to 30
10 to 30
Which of the following diseases is NOT detected by the 4Dx SNAP® test? A. Heartworm disease B. Lyme disease C. Blood parasites D. Leukemia
Leukemia
Antibiotics are used to treat which of the following? A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Allergies D. Yeasts
Bacteria
What does the dark blue-green dot, which appears in the upper-left corner of the 4Dx SNAP® test window, confirm? A. The test was run correctly B. The test was run incorrectly C. The animal is positive for a disease D. The animal does not have a disease
The test was run correctly
Which of the following is NOT a common parasite found when performing a fecal flotation on a small animal? A. Roundworm B. Hookworm C. Heartworm D. Coccidia
Coccidia
Which of the following tests might be used to gain more information as to the severity of an infection within the animal? A. Urinalysis B. 4Dx SNAP® C. Microfilaria smear D. Fecal flotation
Microfilaria smear
What does a fecal flotation help veterinarians determine?
A. Whether or not the animal has blood parasites
B. Whether or not the animal has kidney disease
C. Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites
D. Whether or not the animal has a bladder infection
Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how often should dogs be tested for heartworm disease? A. Once a year B. Once every two years C. Once every six months D. Once every five years
Once a year
Which of the following is the most common method used to examine a fecal sample? A. Flotation B. Gross examination C. Direct smear D. Centrifugation
Flotation
In order to simulate the conditions of the body, how long must a culture plate be placed in a heated incubator? A. 12 hours B. 10 hours C. 48 hours D. 24 hours
24 hours
According to Katie Salas, CVT, how long should you leave the microscope cover slip on top of the fecal flotation before examining it under the microscope? A. 20 to 30 minutes B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 10 to 30 minutes D. 45 minutes
10-15 minutes
Which of the following statements is true when the results show three or more dots in the window of the 4Dx SNAP® reader?
A. The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite
B. The dog has tested negative for more than one disease or parasite
C. The test was not performed correctly
D. The dog has tested positive for only one disease or parasite
The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite
What test should be used to specifically identify the strain of bacteria or pathogen affecting the animal? A. Urinary test B. Culture test C. Fecal flotation test D. Complete blood count test
Culture test
Which of the following is true about a dog’s packed cell volume (PCV) when he is dehydrated? A. PCV is high B. PCV is low C. PCV is normal D. PCV is zero
PCV is high
A very strong ammonia smell to an animal’s urine could indicate which of the following?
A. Bleeding in the urinary tract
B. Bacterial infection in the urinary tract
C. Dehydration
D. Intestinal parasites
Bacterial infection in the urinary tract
In order to determine which organisms are most likely the source of a bacterial infection and to determine the most appropriate method of treatment, a veterinarian might perform which of the following tests? A. Culture test B. Flotation test C. Sensitivity test D. Urinalysis test
Sensitivity test
In order for the veterinarian to perform chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, a dog should be positioned in which of the following positions? A. Dorsal recumbency B. Lateral recumbency C. Medial recumbency D. Ventral recumbency
Lateral recumbency
Which of the following is a procedure used by veterinarians to administer certain medications or to remove toxins by flushing the lower intestinal tract? A. Dental prophylaxis B. Enema C. Expressing anal glands D. Radiology
Enema
Which of the following is a procedure routinely used to provide valuable information about an animal’s bones, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, heart and genitourinary system? A. Dental prophylaxis B. Endoscopy C. Ultrasound D. Radiology
Radiology
Which of the following is caused by the body losing a severe amount of blood or fluids? A. Hypothermic shock B. Hyperthermic shock C. Hypovolemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock
Which of the following is defined as the percentage of sperm which are progressively motile? A. Sperm motility B. Sperm concentration C. Sperm count D. Sperm morphology
Sperm motility
Which of the following processes involves collecting sperm cells from a male animal and manually depositing them into the reproductive tract of a female? A. In vitro fertilization B. Semen collection C. Embryo transfer D. Artificial insemination
Artificial insemination
Which of the following is defined as the physical blockage of the respiratory tract? A. Hypothermia B. Hypovolemic C. Hypoxemia D. Hyperthermia
Hypoxemia
Which of the following is administered to animals during surgery to help maintain blood pressure and compensate for blood loss? A. Vaccinations B. Antibiotics C. Fluids D. Anesthetic
Fluids
Which of the following is an everyday practice in all aspects of veterinary medicine and is used to help determine how a patient feels? A. Ultrasound B. Radiology C. Physical monitoring D. Vaccination administration
Physical monitoring
Which of the following is defined as the removal of dead tissue? A. Debridement B. Enema C. Prophylaxis D. Trimming
Debridement
Which of the following is used to help determine pregnancy in an animal? A. Radiology B. Embryo transfer C. Endoscopy D. Ultrasound
Ultrasound
Which of the following is determined by the percentage of sperm which are normal in shape and size? A. Sperm motility B. Sperm morphology C. Sperm count D. Sperm concentration
Sperm morphology
Which of the following is a condition caused by the excessive loss of water from the body? A. Dehydration B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypoexemia D. Hypothermia
Dehydration
Which of the following is defined as the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth? A. Dystocia B. Colostrum C. Recumbent D. Lactose
Colostrum
Which of the following is defined as a disease which can be transmitted to humans from animals? A. Zoonotic B. Bacterial C. Parasitic D. Viral
Zoonotic
Once instruments are scrubbed, rinsed, dried and wrapped, the surgery pack is placed in which of the following to complete the sterilization process? A. Radiograph B. Autoclave C. Centrifuge D. Endoscope
Autoclave
An IV catheter is placed in which of the following veins before surgery? A. Caudal B. Jugular C. Cephalic D. Saphenous
Cephalic
According to the presentation, which of the following is the first step to presurgical care? A. Insert an IV catheter B. Insert an endotracheal tube C. Administer an induction agent D. Administer pre-medication
Administer pre-medication
After an animal is anesthetized, which of the following is attached to the animal to measure his heart rate and respiration? A. Endotracheal tube B. Pulse oximeter C. Reservoir bag D. IV catheter
Pulse oximeter
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how long does Swann Animal Clinic leave their patients attached to the oxygen machine after a surgical procedure? A. 30 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 5 minutes
5 minutes
When should the endotracheal tube be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after taking the patient off oxygen
B. Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow
C. Once the patient’s eyes are open
D. After detaching the pulse oximeter
Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow
After surgery, a patient’s temperature may lower. Which of the following terms is used to define low temperature? A. Hyperthermic B. Hypothermic C. Hypotemp D. Hypertemp
Hyporthermic
When should the IV catheter be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after surgery
B. Once the endotracheal tube is removed
C. Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage
D. Once the patient is placed into a recovery cage
Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage
What anatomical parts are removed from a female dog or cat during a spay surgery? A. Testes B. Scrotum C. Uterus and ovaries D. Vagina
Uterus and ovaries
During a spay surgery, the female is placed in which of the following positions? A. Lateral recumbency B. Dorsal recumbency C. Ventral recumbency D. Sternal recumbency
Dorsal recumbency
Which of the following terms is defined as tying up or closing off, sometimes with a suture? A. Dissect B. Excise C. Inversion D. Ligate
Ligate
How long does it take for a bull to be castrated using the banding method? A. Approximately a week B. Approximately two weeks C. Approximately one month D. Approximately five days
Approximately two weeks
What is an induction agent? A. Steroid B. Antibiotic C. Anesthetic D. Anti-inflammatory
Anesthetic
Which of the following terms is defined as any process which eliminates or kills bacteria and other living microorganism? A. Inversion B. Washing C. Sterilization D. Cleaning
Sterilization
According to Jenna Barber, DVM, the Swann Animal Clinic uses which of the following to scrub an animal before surgery? A. Bleach B. Clorox® and bleach C. Lubricant D. Chlorhexidine and alcohol
Chlorhexidine and alcohol
Which of the following is not a semi-domestic animal? A. Bison B. Snow Leopard C. Red Deer D. Asian Elephant
Snow Leopard
Which of the following drug absorption process is known as cell drinking? A. Passive Diffusion B. Active Transport C. Pinocytosis D. Facilitated Diffusion
Pinocytosis
What does NSAIDS stand for?
Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
Which type of drug is only available with a prescription? A. Legend B. Controlled substance C. Over-the-counter D. Generic
Legend
What is the process of mixing and assembling drugs? A. Mixing B. Combining C. Compounding D. Distributing
Compounding
Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug name? A. Generic B. Brand name C. Chemical D. Compounded
Compounded
Which type of drug is used for the treatment of a condition? A. Diagnostic B. Therapeutic C. Preventative D. Chemical
Therapeutic
Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug source? A. Plants B. Minerals C. Animals D. Humans
Humans
Which of the following requires a drug to be tested in order to demonstrate its safety when following the label directions? A. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act B. Extralabel Drug Use Act C. Animal Drug Use Clarification Act D. New Animal Drug Act
Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
How many years must controlled substance records be kept? A. Three years B. Five years C. Two years D. One year
Two years
What must exist in order for a veterinarian to prescribe a medication? A. Illness B. Sickness C. VCPR D. RPCV
VCPR
What year was the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act put into place? A. 1984 B. 1990 C. 1994 D. 1964
1994
Which governmental agency enforces the Federal Pure Food and Drug Act? A. FDA B. CVM C. ADF C. MVC
FDA
Which drug is used in animals to treat inflammation and allergies? A. Chemotherapeutics B. Antibiotics C. Behavior modifying D. Corticosteroids
Corticosteroids
Which drug is used for restraint of an animal? A. Corticosteroids B. Sedative C. Antibiotic D. NSAID
Sedative
Which drug is used to prevent or kill parasites? A. Chemotherapeutics B. Anti-parasitic C. Antibiotic D. Corticosteroid
Anti-parasitic
Which drug is used to stop the growth of bacteria? A. Antibiotic B. Anti-parasitic C. Corticosteroid D. Anesthetic
Antibiotic
Which drug helps decrease anxiety? A. Antibiotic B. NSAID C. Behavior modifying C. Anti-parasitic
Behavior modifying
What process is known as “cell drinking”? A. Pinocytosis B. Phagocytosis C. Active transport D. Facilitated diffusion
Pinocytosis
What is the first step in the passage of a drug through the body? A. Drug distribution B. Drug administration C. Drug absorption D. Drug elimination
Drug absorption
Which of the following is the chemical alteration of drug molecules into metabolites by body cells? A. Interaction B. Distribution C. Absorption D. Biotransformation
Biotransformation
What allows drugs to gather in high concentration in a cell or body compartment? A. Passive diffusion B. Active Transport C. Facilitated diffusion D. Pinocytosis
Active Transport
What is it called when a drug is moved into a normal cells metabolic pathway and then fails to react, resulting in cell death? A. Inactivation B. Activation C. Modification C. Intoxication
Intoxication
How many rights are there for proper drug administration? A. Four B. Six C. Ten D. Five
six
Which route of drug administration is given by a syringe or needle? A. Oral B. Local C. Parenteral D. Topical
parenteral
Which intravenous administration injects a drug into a small amount of fluid with a syringe or needle? A. Intermittent therapy B. Continuous infusion C. Bolus administration D. Intramuscular
Bolus administration
Which of the following is the initial dose give in the therapeutic range? A. Loading dose B. Maintenance dose C. Total dose D. Adding dose
Loading dose
Which of the following is a decreased response to a drug because the drug has been used repeatedly? A. Resistance B. Tolerance C. Weakness D. Endurance
Tolerance
What is the amount of active ingredient in a drug? A. Strength B. Concentration C. Volume D. Weight
strength
How do you calculate concentration? A. = strength ÷ weight B. = strength ÷ volume C. = volume ÷ strength D. = concentration ÷ volume
strength ÷ volume
How many pounds are in one kilogram? A. 2.5 lbs. B. 2.2 lbs. C. 2.4 lbs. D. 3 lbs.
2.2 lbs.
Your veterinarian knows the weight of the animal and instructs you to give 200 mg of a medication. The concentration on the bottle is 250 mg for every 10 mL. How many mL should you give? A. 10 mL B. 5 mL C. 8 mL D. 15 mL
8 mL
Your veterinarian prescribes a dose of medication which is 5 mL for every 10 lbs. This means a 10 lb. animal will receive 5 mL. How many mL will you give if the animal weighs 50 lbs.? A. 5 mL B. 15 mL C. 25 mL D. 10 mL
25 mL
Pharmacology is a part of medicine which does NOT focus on which of the following? A. Uses B. Effects C. Modes of actions D. Diseases
Diseases
Which is NOT an example of a type of drug? A. Therapeutic B. Curing C. Preventative D. Diagnostic
Curing
Who regulates prescription drugs? A. FDA B. USDA C. CVM D. AVMA
FDA
The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorizes drugs into how many different schedules or classifications? A. Six B. Five C. Eight D. Seven
Five
Which process is known as “cell eating”? A. Pinocytosis B. Phagocytosis C. Modification D. Intoxication
Phagocytosis
What is the process called when an active drug turns into an inactive metabolite? A. Activation B. Inactivation C. Modification D. Intoxication
Inactivation
Which process is also known as drug metabolism? A. Drug distribution B. Elimination C. Biotransformation D. Drug absorption
Biotransformation
There are many injectable routes for medication, an intra-articular route is injected into what part of an animal? A. Heart B. Artery C. Joint D. Bone
Artery
Which type of drug administration is the slowest at absorbing? A. Oral B. Parenteral C. Topical D. Inhalation
Topical
What is it called when the drug concentration in the body produces the desired effect in the animal with no signs of toxicity? A. Therapeutic range B. Tolerance C. Dosage regimen D. Dosage interval
Therapeutic range
Your veterinarian prescribes a dose of medication which is 10 mL for every 100 lbs. This means a 100 lb. animal will receive 10 mL. What would the correct dosage be for an animal weighing 150 lbs.?
15 mL
If your veterinarian knows the weight of the animal and you are told to give 100 mg of a medication. The concentration on the bottle is 200 mg for every 10 mL.
How many mL should you give?
5 mL
