Veterinary Science Flashcards by Erin Butler

Animal identification is a management practice which aids in biosecurity control.
To which of the following animals would this management practice most likely
apply?
A. Pig
B. Dog
C. Cat
D. Rabbit

Pig

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following type of hormones helps the body prepare for conception and pregnancy?
 A. Estrogen
 B. Testosterone
 C. Epinephrine
 D. Progesterone

Progesterone

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A guide dog would be an example of which of the following?
 A. Working animal
 B. Food production animals
 C. Non-domestic animal
 D. Endangered animal

Working Animal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In regards to research animals, which of the following is NOT a guarantee set forth by the Animal Welfare Act?
 A. Veterinary care
 B. Anesthesia or pain relievers
 C. Entertainment apparatuses
 D. Opportunity for exercise daily

Entertainment Apparatuses

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which chamber of the heart has the thickest muscular wall?
 A. Right atrium
 B. Left atrium
 C. Right ventricle
 D. Left ventricle

Left Ventricle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is also known as a hemostat?
A.  Scissors
B.  Clamping forceps
C.  Tweezers
D.  Burdizzo

Clamping forceps

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following species is considered a hindgut-fermenter?
 A. Dog
 B. Cat
 C. Sheep
 D. Horse

Horse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is considered the “master gland” of the endocrine system?
 A. Pituitary gland
 B. Hypothalamus
 C. Medulla
 D. Adrenal gland

Pituitary gland

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Your veterinarian prescribed a dose of medication for your pig which is 1 mL/20lbs. Your pig currently weighs 100 lbs. How many milliliters should you give your
pig.
 A. 1 mL
 B. 2 mL
 C. 5 mL
 D. 10 mL

5 mL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following organizations identifies the minimum standards required to enter the veterinarian profession and to remain in practice?
A. American Veterinarian Medical Association
B. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
C. Veterinarian Practice Association
D. Board of Veterinary Medicine

American Veterinarian Medical Association

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After an injury, what generally happens to blood platelets?
 A. They increase
 B. They decrease
 C. They stay the same
 D. They die

They increase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

While examining your dog during his annual physical exam, the veterinarian palpates his belly in order to check for which of the following?
 A. Enlarged organs
 B. Dehydration
 C. Elevated heart rate
 D. Anemia

Enlarged organs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ring worm, avian influenza and West Nile virus are classified as which of the following type of disease?
 A. Bacterial
 B. Zoonotic
 C. Parasitic
 D. Protozoal

Zoonotic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The process of lifting and folding the skin of the animal prior to giving a subcutaneous injection is called which of the following?
 A. Tenting
 B. Aspirating
 C. Injecting
 D. Vaccinating

Tenting

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Antibiotics are most effective on which of the following types of diseases and/or infections?
 A. Bacterial
 B. Viruses
 C. Allergies
 D. Fungal

Bacterial

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The normal urine pH level for your cat is 6.5. This level would be considered to be which of the following?
 A. Neutral
 B. Mildly acidic
 C. Alkaline
 D. Mildly alkaline

Mildly acidic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Prescription drugs are sometimes referred to as which of the following?
 A. Extralabel
 B. Legend
 C. Analgesics
 D. Common

Legend

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a deficiency of red blood cells and hemoglobin in the blood?
 A. Hypothermia
 B. Anemia
 C. Arrhythmia
 D. Hyperthermia

Anemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the process of eliminating or killing bacteria and other living organisms?
 A. Lubrication
 B. Sterilization
 C. Washing
 D. Cleaning

Sterilization

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following describes dyspnea?
 A. Hypothermia
 B. Anemia
 C. Arrhythmia
 D. Labored breathing

Labored breathing

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following prefixes means “above”?
 A. Sub
 B. Peri
 C. Post
 D. Supra

Supra

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A cat’s pulse was measured at 120 beats per minute. How many beats did the veterinarian count during the 15 second measuring interval?
 A. 20
 B. 30
 C. 40
 D. 50

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In wound care, which of the follow is defined as the removal of dead tissue?
 A. Debridement
 B. Enema
 C. Prophylaxis
 D. Trimming

Debridement

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Once instruments are scrubbed, rinsed, dried and wrapped, the surgery pack is placed in which of the following to complete the sterilization process?
A. Radiograph
B. Autoclave
C. Centrifuge
D. Endoscope

Autoclave

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An IV catheter is placed in which of the following veins before surgery?
 A. Caudal
 B. Jugular
 C. Cephalic
 D. Saphenous

Cephalic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the presentation, which of the following is the first step to presurgical care?
 A. Insert an IV catheter
 B. Insert an endotracheal tube
 C. Administer an induction agent
 D. Administer pre-medication

Administer pre-medication

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After an animal is anesthetized, which of the following is attached to the animal to measure his heart rate and respiration?
 A. Endotracheal tube
 B. Pulse oximeter
 C. Reservoir bag
 D. IV catheter

Pulse oximeter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how long does Swann Animal Clinic leave their patients attached to the oxygen machine after a surgical procedure?
 A. 30 minutes
 B. 10 minutes
 C. 15 minutes
 D. 5 minutes

5 minutes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When should the endotracheal tube be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after taking the patient off oxygen
B. Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow
C. Once the patient’s eyes are open
D. After detaching the pulse oximeter

Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After surgery, a patient’s temperature may lower. Which of the following terms is used to define low temperature?
 A. Hyperthermic
 B. Hypothermic
 C. Hypotemp
 D. Hypertemp

Hypothermic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When should the IV catheter be removed after surgery?
A. Immediately after surgery
B. Once the endotracheal tube is removed
C. Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage
D. Once the patient is placed into a recovery cage

Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What anatomical parts are removed from a female dog or cat during a spay surgery?
 A. Testes
 B. Scrotum
 C. Uterus and ovaries
 D. Vagina

Uterus and ovaries

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During a spay surgery, the female is placed in which of the following positions?
 A. Lateral recumbency
 B. Dorsal recumbency
 C. Ventral recumbency
 D. Sternal recumbency

Dorsal recumbency

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is defined as tying up or closing off, sometimes with a suture?
 A. Dissect
 B. Excise
 C. Inversion
 D. Ligate

Ligate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How long does it take for a bull to be castrated using the banding method?
 A. Approximately a week
 B. Approximately two weeks
 C. Approximately one month
 D. Approximately five days

Approximately two weeks

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is an induction agent?
 A. Steroid
 B. Antibiotic
 C. Anesthetic
 D. Anti-inflammatory

Anesthetic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, the Swann Animal Clinic uses which of the following to scrub an animal before surgery?
 A. Bleach
 B. Clorox® and bleach
 C. Lubricant
 D. Chlorhexidine and alcohol

Chlorhexidine and alcohol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following was signed into effect in 1966 seeking to regulate who may
possess or sell certain animals and to regulate animal living conditions?
A. Lacey Act
B. Animal Welfare Act
C. Endangered Species Act
D. Rights Act

Animal Welfare Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an animal rights group?
A. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA)
B. Local animal rights group
C. Mercy for Animals
D. National Animal Interest Alliance

National Animal Interest Alliance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the beliefs and actions of animal rights groups?
A. Use violence to portray their message
B. Animals have the right to live their own lives
C. Humans do not have the right to use animals
D. Support regulations of animal recreational sports

Support regulations of animal recreational sports

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an example of common practices for law enforcement in regards to animals?
A. Prohibiting the running at large of animals, specifically cats and dogs
B. Limiting the number of animals a resident may own
C. Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals
D. Controlling animal noise such as barking dogs

Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which year was the Endangered Species Act signed into law?
A. 1937
B. 1983
C. 1973
D. 1990

1973

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of animal can breed on their own but have undergone physiological or behavioral changes due to captivity?
A. Semi-domesticated animals
B. Tamed wild animals
C. Domesticated animals
D. Undomesticated animals

Semi-domesticated animals like bison, elephants, and deer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which act prohibits the illegal trade of any fish or wild animals which were taken, possessed, transported or sold in violation of any law, treaty or regulation of the
United States?
A.  Animal Welfare Act
B.  Endangered Species Act
C.  Lacey Act
D.  Roe versus Wade

Lacey Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a federal law, but organizations must comply with it in order to receive funding from PHSP member agencies?
A. Public Health Service Policy
B. Laboratory Welfare Animal Act
C. The 28 Hour Law
D. Animal Control

Public Health Service Policy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animal rights activist protested animal cruelty and research in “A Dog’s Tale”?
A. Fred Meyers
B. Mark Twain
C. Peter Singers
D. Ingrid Newkirk

Mark Twain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does PETA stand for?
A. People, Ethics & Trust with Animals
B. Pets & Ethical Treatment Association
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D. People for the Ethical Training of Animals

People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is responsible for enforcing the Endangered Species Act?
A. U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service
B. PETA
C. HSUS
D. National Fish and Wildlife Foundation

U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following addresses transporting animals across state lines?
A. The Lacey Act
B. The 28 Hour Law
C. The Pets Evacuation and Transportation Standards Act
D. The Companion Animals Act

The 28 Hour Law

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In addition to the bald eagle, the Bald Eagle Protection Act also includes protection of which of the following?
 A. White-tailed eagle
 B. Gold eagle
 C. Greater spotted eagle
 D. Imperial eagle

Gold eagle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Before building dams, builders must consult with which group to prevent fish migration from being inhibited?
A. Game wardens
B. National Fish & Wildlife Foundation
C. Humane Society
D. Bureau of Fisheries

Bureau of Fisheries

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At what age must wild horses be in order to be sold?
 A. 18
 B. 14
 C. 12
 D. 10

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In what year was The Humane Society of the United States founded?
 A. 1950
 B. 1954
 C. 1966
 D. 1974

1954

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who was the initial chairman of the National Animal Control Association?
 A. Henry Bergh
 B. Ingrid Newkirk
 C. Mike Burgwin
 D. Fred Meyers

Mike Burgwin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the largest animal rights organization in the world?
A. Mercy for Animals
B. Humane Society
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D. American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals

People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Animal Welfare Council was founded in which of the following years?
 A. 1990
 B. 1980
 C. 1897
 D. 1979

1979

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who founded People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals?
 A. Fred Meyers
 B. Henry Bergh
 C. Ingrid Newkirk
 D. Mike Burgwin

Ingrid Newkirk

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pet owners spend the most money on which of the following?
 A. Veterinary expenses
 B. Food
 C. Supplies/medicine
 D. Grooming

Food

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which law provides legal recourse to people who purchase animals from pet dealers which are later found to have a disease or defect?
 A. PPP law
 B. Pet saving law
 C. Pet purchase protection law
 D. Apple law

Pet purchase protection law

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who created the Companion Animal Care Guidelines?
 A. CVM
 B. Veterinary Board
 C. PETA
 D. AVMA

AVMA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is currently NOT a pet spending trend?
 A. Organic and natural food products
 B. Clothes and costumes
 C. Increased veterinary spending
 D. Pet medical insurance

Increased veterinary spending

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many states have adopted laws allowing for pet protection orders?
 A. 56
 B. 11
 C. 26
 D. 32

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an example of animal classifications?
 A. Domestic
 B. Semi-domestic
 C. Multi-domestic
 D. Non-domestic

Multi-domestic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following types of animals depend on humans for food and shelter?
 A. Wild animals
 B. Semi-domesticated
 C. Domesticated
 D. Non-domesticated

Domesticated

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following animals are raised and cared for by humans to produce food?
 A. Livestock animals
 B. Zoo animals
 C. Semi-domesticated
 D. Working animals

Livestock animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animals are threatened with extinction?
 A. Wild animals
 B. Endangered animals
 C. Domesticated animals
 D. Research animals

Endangered animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an example of a production animal?
 A. Goats
 B. Cattle
 C. Sheep
 D. Horses

Horses

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animal shares the most common behavioral and biological characteristics with humans?
 A. Cats
 B. Non-human primates
 C. Mice
 D. Pigs

Non-human primates

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the science of chemical substances and their effects on living organisms?
 A. Virology
 B. Toxicology
 C. Implementation
 D. Testing

Toxicology

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animal has been used in research pertaining to the eyes?
 A. Mice
 B. Rabbits
 C. Cats
 D. Rats

Rabbits

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following animals can contract a condition similar to human AIDS?
 A. Dog
 B. Mice
 C. Cat
 D. Rabbit

Cat

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animal is most often used in research and contains more than 90 percent of the same genes as humans?
 A. Rabbit
 B. Pig
 C. Mice
 D. Cat

Mice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who regulates the Animal Welfare Act?
 A. APHIS
 B. OHSA
 C. FDA
 D. IACUC

APHIS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following provides federal funding for animal research facilities?
A.  PHS
B.  APHIS
C.  FDA
D.  AVMA

PHS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does IACUC stand for?
A. Immediate Animal Care & Use Committee
B. Institutional Animal Care of the United States
C. Institutional Animal Care & Use Committee
D. International Animal Care & Use Council

Institutional Animal Care & Use Committee

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which year was the Animal Welfare Act signed into law?
 A. 1956
 B. 1976
 C. 1986
 D. 1966

1966

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which group is a branch of the Unites States Department of Agriculture?
 A. OHSA
 B. IACUC
 C. FDA
 D. PETA

IACUC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who was amongst the first to experiment on animals?
 A. Aristotle
 B. Charles Darwin
 C. Claude Bernard
 D. Peter Singer

Aristotle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which researcher was known as the prince of vivisection?
 A. Charles Darwin
 B. Ivan Pavlov
 C. Louis Pasteur
 D. Claude Bernard

Claude Bernard

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who created the Theory of Evolution?
 A. Ivan Pavlov
 B. Charles Darwin
 C. Aristotle
 D. Rudolf Jaenisch

Charles Darwin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who invented the process of pasteurization?
 A. Louis Pasteur
 B. Rudolf Jaenisch
 C. Claude Bernard
 D. Peter Singer

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which researcher used mice to produce the first transgenic mammal?
 A. Charles Darwin
 B. Aristotle
 C. Rudolf Jaenisch
 D. Ivan Pavlov

Rudolf Jaenisch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the transplantation of living tissue from one species to another?
 A. Radiograph
 B. Xenograft
 C. CAT scan
 D. Skin graft

Xenograft

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which human disease is related to the simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), which effects non-human primates?
 A. Hepatitis
 B. Diabetes
 C. HIV
 D. Respiratory disease

HIV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following was discovered after testing on cats and prevents the clotting of blood?
 A. Antibiotics
 B. Antiblood
 C. Anticoagulants
 D. Anesthesia

Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which act requires minimum standards of treatment and care for animals?
 A. Animal Care Act
 B. Animal Rights Act
 C. Animal Health Act
 D. Animal Welfare Act

Animal Welfare Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who wrote against animal experimentation with his book Animal Liberation?
 A. Peter Singer
 B. Ivan Pavlov
 C. Charles Darwin
 D. Aristotle

Peter Singer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who was the first to divide organisms into two groups– plants and animals?
 A. Charles Darwin
 B. Aristotle
 C. Louis Pasteur
 D. Claude Bernard

Aristotle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In the late nineteenth century, who experimented on dogs to evaluate their “conditioned” responses, like salivation?
 A. Ivan Pavlov
 B. Rudolf Jaenisch
 C. Claude Bernard
 D. Louis Pasteur

Ivan Pavlov

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who suggested primates were capable of human emotions?
 A. Rudolf Jaenisch
 B. Peter Singer
 C. Louis Pasteur
 D. Charles Darwin

Peter Singer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following administers licenses and registration to research facilities?
 A. PHSP
 B. APHIS
 C. IACUC
 D. FDA

APHIS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Surgical procedures were often first studied on which animal?
 A. Dog
 B. Cat
 C. Non-human primate
 D. Pig

Dog

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cats represent what percentage of potential clinical growth?
 A. 100 percent
 B. 80 percent
 C. 50 percent
 D. 60 percent

80 percent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What tool is used to help veterinarians successfully bond with their clients?
 A. Annual check-ups
 B. Alternative treatments
 C. Social media
 D. Insurance

Social media

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons for the increased cost of animal care?
 A. Significant fee increases
 B. More sophisticated care
 C. Shorter animal life span
 D. Increased hospital fees

Shorter animal life span

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is key to veterinary growth?
 A. Dog friendly practices
 B. Providing therapeutic care
 C. Performing new procedures
 D. Cat friendly practices

Cat friendly practices

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Veterinary job growth is expected to increase by which of the following percentage by 2016?
 A. 26.7 percent
 B. 27.6 percent
 C. 30 percent
 D. 25 percent

27.6 percent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Where must veterinarians be licensed?
 A. In only one state
 B. They do not need a license
 C. In each state they practice
 D. In each city they practice

In each state they practice

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the presentation, which of the following types of insurance should a veterinarian have?
 A. Limited liability insurance
 B. Basic health insurance
 C. Professional liability insurance
 D. They do not need insurance

Professional liability insurance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following ensures animal drugs are safe and effective before approval?
 A. USDA
 B. FDA
 C. Veterinarians
 D. EPA

FDA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Posting appropriate warning or identification signs is required by which of the following agencies?
 A. USDA
 B. EPA
 C. FDA
 D. OSHA

OSHA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In order to show proof of a veterinarian-client-patient relationship, how long must a veterinarian maintain patients records?
A.  1 year
B.  2 years
C.  3 years
D.  4 years

Two years

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who is responsible for creating the Veterinarian Oath and Principles of Veterinary Ethics?
 A. OSHA
 B. MAVA
 C. AVMA
 D. USDA

AVMA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many principles of veterinary medical ethics are there in which a veterinarian must uphold?
 A. Seven
 B. Six
 C. Eight
 D. Five

Eight

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A veterinarian shall respect the law and also recognize a responsibility to seek changes to which of the following?
 A. Regulations
 B. Owners
 C. Animals
 D. Rules

Regulations

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What must a veterinarian safeguard in the confines of the law?
 A. Clients
 B. Colleagues
 C. Health professionals
 D. Medical information

Medical information

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A veterinarian has the right to choose whom to serve, with whom to associate and the environment in which to provide patient care, except in which of the following
instances?
 A. Emergencies
 B. When working in a different state
 C. When working in a different hospital
 D. When working in a different country

Emergencies

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who enforces the Controlled Substances Act of 1970?
 A. DEA
 B. FDA
 C. USDA
 D. OSHA

DEA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who regulates the wholesale and pharmacy distribution of veterinary drugs?
A. Veterinarians
B. Center of Veterinary Medicine
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. United States Department of Agriculture

Board of Pharmacy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following identifies the minimum standards required to enter the veterinarian profession and to remain in practice?
A. American Veterinarian Medical Association
B. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
C. Veterinarian Practice Association
D. Veterinarian Certificate Association

American Association of Veterinary State Boards

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which agency protects the health and safety of the public and animals through the regulation of the practice of veterinary medicine?
A. American Association of Veterinary State Boards
B. American Veterinary Medical Association
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. Board of Veterinary Medicine

Board of Veterinary Medicine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which agency requires appropriate warning or identification signs within a veterinarian office?
 A. USDA
 B. OSHA
 C. AVMA
 D. FDA

OSHA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Center for Veterinary Medicine is a part of which of the following administrations?
 A. USDA
 B. EPA
 C. FDA
 D. AVMA

FDA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The USDA regulates vaccines through which of the following centers?
 A. Center of Veterinary Biologics
 B. Center of Veterinary Medicine
 C. American Veterinary Center
 D. Center of Veterinary Rules

Center of Veterinary Biologics

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Who enforces the Animal Drug Use Clarification Act of 1994?
 A. FDA
 B. USDA
 C. OHSA
 D. AVMA

FDA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

“I will practice my profession conscientiously, with dignity, and in keeping with the principles of veterinary medical ethics.” Where is this quote from?
 A. Veterinary Ethical Values
 B. A famous veterinarian
 C. Veterinarian’s Oath
 D. Principles of Veterinary Ethics

Veterinarian’s Oath

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following administrations requires a summary of occupational injuries, illnesses and records?
 A. FDA
 B. USDA
 C. OSHA
 D. EPA

OSHA

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following decontaminates and sterilizes surgical instruments?
A. Centrifuge
B. Auto cleaner
C. Dish washer
D. Autoclave

Autoclave

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After cleaning, how do you know the contents are sterilized?
A. Instruments will be wet
B. Indicator tape will have black lines
C. Indicator tape will have no lines
D. Checking for any residue or spots on the instruments

Indicator tape will have black lines

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A fecal examination is used for which of the following?
A. Identifying an inflammatory infection
B. Identifying number of red blood cells
C. Identifying parasite infection
D. Identifying a disease

Identifying parasite infection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing a urine analysis?
A. Identifying an inflammatory infection
B. Identifying a disease
C. Identifying bladder stones or infection
D. Identifying parasites in the urine

Identifying parasites in the urine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

At what temperature must the autoclave be set in order to sterilize general surgical packs and wrapped items?
 A. 500°F (260°C)
 B. 300°F (149°C)
 C. 250°F (121°C)
 D. 200°F (93°C)

250°F (121°C)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is used to detect a fetus in a pregnant animal?
A. Endoscope
B. X-ray
C. Radiograph
D. Ultrasound

Ultrasound

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following examines the esophagus, stomach, rectum, bowel, colon, cecum and upper intestines?
 A. Radiograph
 B. Endoscope
 C. Electrocardiograph
 D. Ultrasound

Endoscope

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is also known as an ECG or EKG?
 A. Radiograph
 B. Electrocardiograph
 C. Ultrasound
 D. Endoscope

Electrocardiograph

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following detects heart disease or an irregular heart beat?
 A. Endoscope
 B. Ultrasound
 C. Electrocardiograph
 D. Radiograph

Electrocardiograph

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What should a veterinarian or staff always wear when using a radiograph (x-ray) machine?
 A. A mask
 B. Latex gloves and gown
 C. Sterilized suit
 D. Lead gloves and lead apron

Lead gloves and lead apron

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is also known as a hemostat?
A. Needle holder
B. Clamping forceps
C. Scalpel
D. Tubes

Clamping forceps

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are used as a locking mechanism to hold a suture needle when applying stitches or closing an incision?
 A. Cannula
 B. Tubes
 C. Scalpels
 D. Needle holders

Needle holders

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a very sharp surgical knife?
 A. Cannula
 B. Scalpel
 C. Forceps
 D. Catheter

Scalpel

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After being rinsed off and soaked in an enzymatic cleaner bath, instruments should be soaked in which of the following?
 A. Bleach
 B. Clorox®
 C. Disinfectant
 D. Only water

Disinfectant

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following veterinary tools is used to administer fluids into an animal?
 A. Cannula
 B. Catheter
 C. IV Tube
 D. Trachea Tube

IV Tube

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following instruments is used to insert de-wormer into an animal?
A. Drench gun
B. Syringe
C. Balling gun
D. Needle

Drench gun

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a very small syringe used with a hollow needle for injections into or under the skin?
 A. Balling gun
 B. Drench gun
 C. Hypodermic syringe
 D. Hemostat

Hypodermic syringe

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the first and most important step before using a hollow needle on an animal?
A. Making sure it is filled with the correct dosage
B. Making sure the area being injected is clean
C. Making sure the needle is sterile
D. Making sure the animal is restrained

Making sure the needle is sterile

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is most commonly used on cattle to insert an oral medication?
 A. Tube
 B. Balling gun
 C. Drench gun
 D. Syringe

Balling gun

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is used to administer oral medication capsules or boluses into an animal?
 A. Hollow needle
 B. Balling gun
 C. Cannula
 D. Multi-dose hypodermic syringe

Balling gun

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following restricts animals from further
agitating wounds?
 A. Cat restraint bag
 B. Elizabethan collar
 C. Muzzles
 D. Head gates

Elizabethan collar

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following helps prevent hardware disease?
 A. Muzzles
 B. Head gates
 C. Rumen magnets
 D. Squeeze chutes

Rumen magnets

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following cushions wounds?
 A. Elasticon
 B. Roll Gauze
 C. Vet Wrap
 D. Vet Pads

Roll Gauze

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are used to restrain horses in
high-stress situations?
 A. Twitch chains 
 B. Head gates
 C. Squeeze chutes
 D. Tourniquets

Twitch chains

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are used for shaping, finishing and smoothing hooves?
 A. Tourniquets
 B. Hoof knives
 C. Twitch chains
 D. Hoof rasps

Hoof rasps

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a strong, heated container used to decontaminate veterinary tools?
 A. Auto washer
 B. Autoclave
 C. Auto wave
 D. Auto decontaminator

Autoclave

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following uses a device with a light attached to look inside a body cavity or organ?
 A. Endoscope
 B. Ultrasound
 C. Radiograph
 D. Electrocardiogram

Endoscope

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which piece of equipment is used for the separation of fluids by spinning the vessel holding the material at a high speed?
 A. Autoclave
 B. Ultrasound
 C. Centrifuge
 D. X-ray

Centrifuge

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following equipment does NOT allow for a visual examination of body parts?
 A. Ultrasound
 B. Radiograph
 C. Electrocardiograph
 D. Endoscopy

Electrocardiograph

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which instrument records electrical activity of the heart over a period of time by placing electrode on a patient’s body?
 A. Endoscope
 B. Ultrasound
 C. Electrocardiograph
 D. Radiograph

Electrocardiograph

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is one of the first tools used when diagnosing a problem due to illness or injury in an animal?
 A. Radiograph
 B. Ultrasound
 C. Electrocardiograph
 D. Endoscope

Radiograph

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which instrument is used for grasping, compressing, cutting and pulling tissues?
 A. Clamping forceps
 B. Thumb forceps
 C. Needle holders
 D. Catheter

Thumb forceps

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which instrument is a drain used to release fluid or gas which has built up in an animal?
 A. Catheter
 B. Scalpel
 C. Cannula
 D. Syringe

Cannula

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the last step in the cleaning and sterilizing process of surgical instruments?
 A. Scrubbing
 B. Drying
 C. Autoclaving
 D. Soaking

Autoclaving

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which instrument listed below cuts material, other than tissue, which may dull a blade?
 A. Dissecting scissors
 B. Utility scissors
 C. Surgical scissors
 D. Suture scissors

Utility scissors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is known as the foundation of a word?
 A. Prefix
 B. Suffix
 C. Combining form
 D. Root word

Root word

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the type of word which comes before the root word?
 A. Suffix
 B. Prefix
 C. Root word
 D. Compound word

Prefix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is a word which has two or more roots?
 A. Compound word
 B. Combining form
 C. Root word
 D. Prefix

Compound word

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is always at the end of a root word?
 A. Prefix
 B. Suffix
 C. Compound word
 D. Combining form

Suffix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an incomplete word containing a root word, prefix or
 suffix?
 A. Compound word
 B. Prefixes
 C. Combining forms
 D. Root words

Combining forms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The body is divided into how many planes?
 A. Six
 B. Five
 C. Four
 D. Two

Four

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following planes divides the animal into two equal halves?
 A. Sagittal plane
 B. Median plane
 C. Dorsal plane
 D. Transverse plane

Median plane

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is relating to the underside of an animal?
 A. Dorsal
 B. Cranial
 C. Caudal
 D. Ventral

Ventral

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms means near the tail?
 A. Cranial
 B. Caudal
 C. Proximal
 D. Rostral

Caudal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following planes divides the trunk of the animal?
 A. Sagittal
 B. Median
 C. Transverse
 D. Dorsal

Transverse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following systems provides the body with the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
 A. Cardiovascular system
 B. Lymphatic system
 C. Respiratory system
 D. Reproductive system

Respiratory system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following digestive systems contains one large stomach which is divided into four compartments?
 A. Hindgut-fermenter
 B. Ruminant
 C. Monogastric
 D. Avian

Ruminant

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following systems protects the animal’s body from disease by providing a barrier to viruses and bacteria?
 A. Respiratory
 B. Cardiovascular
 C. Digestive
 D. Integumentary

Integumentary

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following systems is designed to pump and deliver blood to the body’s tissues?
 A. Cardiovascular
 B. Respiratory
 C. Skeletal
 D. Neurological

Cardiovascular

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following systems is made up of the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi and lungs?
 A. Respiratory
 B. Integumentary
 C. Digestive
 D. Endocrine

Respiratory

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a castrate male horse called?
 A. Stallion
 B. Gelding
 C. Mare
 D. Colt

Gelding

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the measurement of the number of times the heart beats per minute?
 A. Temperature
 B. Respiration
 C. Pulse
 D. Rhythm

Pulse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the meaning for the abbreviation, TID?
 A. Three times a day
 B. Once a day
 C. Every other day
 D. Four times a day

Three times a day

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is the meaning for the abbreviation, AD?
 A. Left ear
 B. Both ears
 C. Right ear
 D. Mouth

Right ear

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following terms is used to describe a dog giving birth?
 A. Queening
 B. Foaling
 C. Kidding
 D. Whelping

Whelping

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is an emergency procedure used to keep the heart pumping and oxygen flowing?
 A. Treatment of shock
 B. Hydrotherapy
 C. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
 D. Control of bleeding

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following tests may determine if an animal is infected with internal parasites?
 A. Urinalysis
 B. Fecal flotation
 C. Blood test
 D. Sensitivity test

Fecal flotation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following stomachs is found in horses, rabbits, guinea pigs and hamsters?
 A. Ruminant
 B. Monogastric
 C. Avian
 D. Hindgut-fermenter

Hindgut-fermenter

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following prefixes means “above”?
A.  Supra
B.  Sub
C.  Peri
D.  Top

Supra

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which system is in charge of transmitting signals to the body and operates basic functions like breathing and digestion?
 A. Cardiovascular system
 B. Digestive system
 C. Neurologic system
 D. Endocrine system

Neurologic system

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is a castrated male sheep called?
 A. Gelding
 B. Wether
 C. Ram
 D. Buck

Wether

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following gives a word meaning?
 A. Combining form
 B. Suffix
 C. Prefix
 D. Root word

Root word

Which of the following terms means “near the center of the body”?
 A. Proximal
 B. Caudal
 C. Ventral
 D. Saggital

Proximal

What is it called when drugs are administered through the veins of an animal?
 A. Intravenous injection
 B. Intramuscular injection
 C. Parenteral injection
 D. Subcutaneous injection

Intravenous injection

Which of the following provides support for muscles and other tissues in the body?
 A. Organs
 B. Ligaments
 C. Bones
 D. Nerves

Bones

The atria are the top two chambers of the heart.
A. True
B. False

True

Long bones are found in the wrist and ankle regions.
A. True
B. False

False

Smooth muscles are involuntary.
A. True
B. False

True

Arteries carry blood away from the heart.
A. True
B. False

True

The small intestine is also known as the colon.
A. True
B. False

False

Which of the following are parts of the small intestine?
 A. Duodenum
 B. Jejunum
 C. Ileum
 D. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is not a type of bone in dogs and cats?
 A. Short
 B. Long
 C. Round
 D. Irregular

Round

Which of the following are proteins produced by living organisms and which function as catalysts?
 A. Enzymes
 B. Gile Salts
 C. Electrolytes
 D. Neurons

Enzymes

Which of the following is a protective tubular sheath of skin covering the penis?
A. Scrotum
 B. Prepuce
 C. Epididymides
 D. Prostrate

Prepuce

Which of the following is any disease causing agent such as a virus or bacteria?
 A. Neuron
 B. Ion
 C. Pathogen
 D. Lymph

Pathogen

What is the name of the highest point on most four legged animals?
A. Distal
B. Caudal
C. Cranial
D. Dorsal

Dorsal

Where is the most common place to put a tag which identifies an animal?
A. Auricle
B. Nares
C. Skin
D. Vibrissae

Auricle

Which part of the skin houses the hair follicles?
A. Keratin
B. Caudal
C. Epidermis
D. Dermis

Dermis

Keratin is NOT found in which of the following locations?
A. Hair
B. Hooves
C. Head
D. Tail

Head

Which of the following is NOT an anatomical term?
A. Ventral
B. Caudal
C. Cranial
D. Vibrissae

Vibrissae

Which of the following terms is also know as Vibrissae?
A. Skin
B. Tail
C. Nails
D. Whiskers

Whiskers

Which of the following is called the area toward the head of the body?
A. Cranial
B. Proximal
C. Distal
D. Dorsal

Cranial

Which of the following is NOT contained within the integumentary system?
A. Skin
B. Hair
C. Eyes
D. Nares

Eyes

Which of the following terms is the Latin word for tail?
A. Distar
B. Cauda
C. Venter
D. Proximus

Cauda

Which external component can be used for defense?
A. Bone
B. Hair
C. Horns
D. Dewclaw

Horns

How many chambers are in the heart?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Four

When blood leaves the right atrium, it enters the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Left atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left ventricle
D. None of the above

Right ventricle

The only type of artery in the body which carries deoxygenated blood is \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. A superior vena cava
B. An inferior vena cava
C. A pulmonary artery
D. An aorta

A pulmonary artery

The only type of vein in the body which carries oxygenated blood is \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. A pulmonary vein
B. A pulmonary trunk
C. A superior vena cava
D. An inferior vena cava

A pulmonary vein

The pressure exerted by the left ventricle must push blood where?
A. To the body
B. To the lungs and back to the left atrium
C. To the lungs and back to the right atrium
D. To the aorta only

To the body

Which chamber has the thickest muscular wall?
A. The right atrium
B. The left atrium
C. The right ventricle
D. The left ventricle

The left ventricle

The grooves in which the coronary arteries lie are known as which of the following?
A. Sulci
B. Chordae tendineae
C. Papillary muscles
D. Cusps

Sulci

The right ventricle must exert enough pressure to push the blood where?
A. To the lungs and back to the left atrium
B. To the lungs and body
C. To the body and back to the left ventricle
D. To the body only

To the lungs and back to the left atrium

Heart attacks can result from a blockage of
A. The trachea
B. The bronchus
C. A coronary artery
D. The superior vena cava

A coronary artery

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is known as the:
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Pulmonary semi-lunar valve
C. Aortic semi-lunar valve
D. Bicuspid valve

Bicuspid valve

The lung’s lobed structure:
A. Can be helpful when treating patients with lung cancer
B. Allows removal of part of a lung
C. Has a different number of lobes on each side
D. All of the above

All of the above

The right lung is composed of how many lobes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Three

Expiration is \_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_.
A. Usually active
B. Usually passive
C. Always active
D. Always passive

Usually passive

Which situation would most likely involve active expiration?
A. Sitting at a desk
B. Watching a film
C. Running a marathon
D. Sleeping

Running a marathon

Which structure helps to prevent food from entering the trachea during swallowing?
A. The uvula
B. The epiglottis
C. The vocal cords
D. All of the above

All of the above

The cartilaginous rings which make up the trachea are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. O-shaped
B. U-shaped
C. C-shaped
D. All of the above

C-shaped

The trachea divides into two branches called the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Sulci
B. Bronchi
C. Chordae tendineae
D. Cusps

Bronchi

What structure helps to prevent food from entering the sinus cavity during swallowing?
A. The uvula
B. The epiglottis
C. The bronchi
D. The chordae tendineae

The uvula

The SA node is located in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Right ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Left atrium

Right atrium

Which structure holds the chordae tendineae to the interior walls of the heart?
A. Sulci
B. Bronchi
C. Papillary muscles
D. None of the above

Papillary muscles

Which structures prevent heart valves from being forced backward into the wrong chamber?
A. Sulci
B. Bronchi
C. Cusps
D. None of the above

None of the above

The wall separating the left side of the heart from the right side is the
A. Sulcus
B. Bronchus
C. Atrium
D. None of the above

None of the above

Identify the waste gas removed from the blood during expiration.
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Water
D. All of the above

Carbon dioxide

The left lung is composed of how many lobes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Two

Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Pulmonary vein

Pulmonary artery

Prehension is a term referring to:
 A. How an animal gathers food
 B. Eating feed or forage
 C. Chewing food
 D. Digesting food

How an animal gathers food

What is different about the mouth structure of ruminants compared to that of humans?
A. There is no difference.
B. Humans do not have upper incisors.
C. Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors.
D. Ruminants do not have a true tongue.

Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors.

What is a human’s organ of prehension?
 A. Mouth
 B. Teeth
 C. Hand
 D. Eye

Hand

Which of the following is not directly involved in mechanical processing?
 A. Mouth
 B. Stomach
 C. Teeth
 D. Liver

Liver

The body’s release of enzymes, water and acid into food is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Absorption
 B. Secretion
 C. Mastication
 D. Excretion

Secretion

Waves of muscular contractions which push food through the esophagus are part of the process known as \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Peristalsis
B. Ingestion
C. Digestion
D. Mechanical processing

Peristalsis

All venous blood leaving the intestines travels through which structure?
A. Bile duct
B. Esophagus
C. Hepatic portal vessel
D. Ileum

Hepatic portal vessel

According to the segment, the most common way to bring a toxin into the body is through ingestion.
A. True
B. False

True

The mesentery carries blood to the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Mouth
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. None of the above

Stomach

Which part of the large intestine travels across the body inferior to the stomach and the liver?
A. Cecum
B. Ascending colon
C. Transverse colon
D. Descending colon

Transverse colon

In ruminants, the esophagus carries feed from the:
A. Mouth to the rumen
B. Rumen to the mouth
C. Stomach to cecum
D. Both A and B

Both A and B

Material leaving the omasum enters which structure?
A. Abomasum
B. Reticulum
C. Rumen
D. Esophagus

Abomasum

How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have?
A. Two
B. three
C. Four
D. Five

Four

Why are magnets administered to cattle?
A. To add weight
B. To catch wire and bolts
C. To help circulation
D. To speed digestion

To catch wire and bolts

The "honeycomb" refers to which structure?
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum

Reticulum

Which of the following animals are ruminants?
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Deer
D. All of the above

All of the above

Which organ produces bile?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Colon
D. Esophagus

Liver

Bile is stored and concentrated in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Duodenum
B. Appendix
C. Gall bladder
D. Cecum

Gall bladder

Before traveling to the rest of the body, all absorbed nutrients or toxins must pass through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Liver
B. Pancreas
C. Gall bladder
D. Colon

Liver

The stomach performs which of the following functions?
A. Mechanical processing
B. Digestion
C. Secretion
D. All of the above

All of the above

Which stomach compartment of ruminants is considered to be the true "stomach?"
A. Rumen
B. Reticulum
C. Omasum
D. Abomasum

Abomasum

Which structure governs the passage of food material into the small intestine?
A. Pylorus or pyloric valve
B. Omasum
C. Cecum
D. Large intestine

Pylorus or pyloric valve

Which of the following make up the small intestine?
A. Duodenum
B. Ileum
C. Jejunum
D. All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following structures aids in absorption?
A. Papillae
B. Villi
C. Microvilli
D. All of the above

All of the above

What is a horse's organ of prehension?
A. Lips
B. Teeth
C. Hoof
D. Tail

Lips

Unlike exocrine glands, endocrine glands __________.
A. Are ductless
B. Have ducts
C. Do not secrete hormones
D. Do not secrete directly into the blood

Are ductless

Chemical molecules which travel through blood to affect body systems are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Glands
B. Hormones
C. Kidneys
D. None of the above

Hormones

In males, hormones which stimulate formation of male characteristics are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Androgens
D. None of the above

Androgens

Which element is administered to the general population through table salt?
A. Oxygen
B. Calcium
C. Iodine
D. Hydrogen

Iodine

Which gland is most closely associated with the thyroid gland?
A. Parathyroid
B. Pituitary
C. Hypothalamus
D. Ovaries

Parathyroid

General protection from invading microbes is known as which of the following?
A. General immunity
B. Specific immunity
C. Cell mediated immunity
D. Antibody mediated immunity

General immunity

Which of the following surrounds and destroys an invading microbe?
A. Antigen
B. Hair
C. Phagocyte
D. Bone marrow

Phagocyte

Weakened or killed antigens purposefully introduced into the body by medical professionals is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Mucus
B. White blood cell
C. Phagocyte
D. Vaccine

Vaccine

T-cells develop in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Thymus
B. Hair
C. Mucus
D. All of the above

Thymus

Both B-cells and T-cells are derived from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Bone marrow
B. Lymphocytes
C. Thymus
D. None of the above

Lymphocytes

Accessory structures of the skin include which of the following?
A. Sweat glands
B. Scales
C. Feathers
D. All of the above

All of the above

Hair grows from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Sweat glands
D. All of the above

Dermis

The skin is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ organ of the body.
A. Largest
B. Heaviest
C. Lightest
D. Both A and B

Both A and B

What is produced by the skin for protection against harmful ultraviolet light?
A. Keratin
B. Melanin
C. Sweat
D. Oil

Melanin

What helps the body create Vitamin D?
A. Sweat
B. Oil
C. The sun
D. Keratin

The sun

A neuron has \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Soma
B. Axom
C. Nucleus
D. All of the above

All of the above

The peripheral nervous system includes the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Brain stem
B. Spinal cord
C. Autonomic nervous system
D. Cerebellum

Spinal cord

In humans, which part of the brain contains 80 percent of its weight?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Spiral cord
D. Brain stem

Cerebrum

The brain is directly protected by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Spinal cord
B. Skull
C. Vertebral column
D. All of the above

Skull

The central nervous system includes the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Spinal cord
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system

Spinal cord

Humans are considered \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Monopods
B. Bipeds
C. Tripods
D. Quadrupeds

Bipeds

Which bone is present in humans, but absent in four-legged animals?
A. Skull
B. Femur
C. Clavicle
D. Pelvis

Clavicle

The bones of the hand are called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Long
B. Short
C. Flat
D. Irregular

Short

Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A. Protection
B. Locomotion
C. Blood production
D. All of the above

All of the above

The shoulder and hip joints are considered what kind of joints?
A. Ball-and-socket joints
B. Gliding joints
C. Pivot joints
D. Fused joints

Ball-and-socket joints

Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue?
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. All of the above

All of the above

Which type of muscle is termed as “voluntary?”
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. All of the above

Skeletal

Tendons attach \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Muscle/muscle
B. Bone/bone
C. Muscle/bone
D. Red fibers/white fibers

Muscle/bone

According to the program, which animal has a higher percentage of slow-twitch muscle fibers?
A. Racing quarter horses
B. Chickens
C. Working draft horses
D. None of the above

Working draft horses

Muscle contraction results in muscle fiber becoming \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. Smooth
D. None of the above

Shorter

Which of the following is the most common method used for identification in swine?
 A. Hot iron branding
 B. Ear notching
 C. Microchipping
 D. Freeze branding

Ear notching

According to the presentation, what does the orange USDA metal tag indicate on cattle?
A. The animal has been vaccinated for brucellosis
B. The animal has been vaccinated for rabies
C. The animal is owned by the USDA
D. The animal is registered through the USDA

The animal has been vaccinated for brucellosis

Which of the following animal behavior categories may result in an animal growling, showing the teeth and pinning the ears?
 A. Painful
 B. Timid
 C. Aggressive
 D. Happy

Aggressive

Which of the following small animal restraints requires extensive experience to correctly handle aggressive dogs?
 A. Slip lead
 B. Net
 C. Towel
 D. Control pole

Control pole

For dogs, where is a microchip inserted?
 A. Behind the ear
 B. On the hip
 C. Between the shoulder blades
 D. On the neck

Between the shoulder blades

For horses, which of the following is NOT used as a form of identification?
 A. Lip tattooing
 B. Hot iron branding
 C. Freeze branding
 D. Ear notching

Ear notching

Which of the following is used on small animals to decrease anxiety on a slippery table and help restrain an animal’s legs?
 A. Towel
 B. Slip lead
 C. Muzzle
 D. Net

Towel

Which of the following restraints is used for fractious cats or wild animals?
 A. Slip lead
 B. Muzzle
 C. Net
 D. Control pole

Net

Where is a tattoo placed on cattle?
 A. Hip
 B. Upper lip
 C. Ear
 D. Neck

Ear

Horses should always be approached in which of the following ways?
 A. On their left side
 B. On their right side
 C. Directly behind them
 D. Directly in front of them

On their left side

In swine, what does ear notching help identify?
A. Age and litter number
B. Litter and individual number
C. Age and teeth
D. Individual number and number of offspring

Litter and individual number

For sheep and goats, which of the following is the most common method used for identification?
 A. Freeze branding
 B. Microchipping
 C. Ear notching
 D. Ear tagging

Ear tagging

Which of the following control mechanisms is placed on a horse’s nose and is used as a distraction for the animal?
 A. Halter
 B. Rope
 C. Slip lead
 D. Twitch

Twitch

Which of the following is used to keep cattle contained while performing physical exams or other procedures?
 A. Chute
 B. Stock
 C. Stall
 D. Panel

Chute

How should a small animal be handled while performing a physical exam or other procedures?
A. Apply firm pressure to the legs of the animal
B. Apply firm, gentle pressure around the animal’s body while controlling the head
C. Apply firm pressure to the head of the animal
D. Apply firm pressure to the animal on a short leash

Apply firm, gentle pressure around the animal’s body while controlling the head

Which of the following is NOT an indicator for elevated vital signs?
 A. Exercise
 B. Stress
 C. Hot weather
 D. Shock

Shock

What is it called when the temperature of an animal is below normal?
 A. Shock
 B. Inspiration
 C. Hypothermia
 D. Expiration

Hypothermia

Which of the following is defined as the expansion of the chest or thorax?
 A. Inspiration
 B. Expiration
 C. Respiration
 D. Breathing

Inspiration

Which of the following is NOT an indicator for lowered vital signs?
 A. Shock
 B. Stress
 C. Anemia
 D. Cold weather

Stress

Which of the following is defined as the number of inspirations per minute?
 A. Inspiration
 B. Depth
 C. Rate
 D. Rhythm

Rate

What is the average heart rate or pulse for a horse?
 A. 32 to 42 bpm
 B. 50 to 42 bpm
 C. 22 to 32 bpm
 D. 42 to 52 bpm

32 to 42 bpm

Where is the most accurate place to read an animal’s temperature?
 A. Mouth
 B. Ear
 C. Belly
 D. Rectally

Rectally

Which of the following is defined as the expulsion of air from the lungs?
 A. Inspiration
 B. Expiration
 C. Respiration
 D. Breathing

Expiration

Which of the following refers to the intensity or indication of strain during respiration?
 A. Rhythm
 B. Sound
 C. Depth
 D. Rate

Depth

What is the average temperature for both cats and dogs?
 A. 98 to 100°F (36.7 to 37.8°C)
 B. 99 to 104°F (37.2 to 40°C)
 C. 97 to 101°F (36.1 to 38.3°C)
 D. 99 to 102°F (37.2 to 38.9°C)

99 to 102°F (37.2 to 38.9°C)

Which of the following is defined as labored breathing?
 A. Dyspnea
 B. Anemia
 C. Hypothermia
 D. Shock

Dyspnea

What is the average heart rate or pulse for cattle?
 A. 20 to 40 bpm
 B. 40 to 80 bpm
 C. 10 to 30 bpm
 D. 80 to 100 bpm

40 to 80 bpm

Which of the following is a true statement about a smaller dog’s resting pulse rate?
A. It is usually always lower than a large dog
B. It is the same as a large dog
C. It is usually always higher than a large dog
D. It varies from being higher and lower than a large dog

It is usually always higher than a large dog

What must a veterinarian do in order to correctly identify a pulse rate?
A. Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by four
B. Count the number of beats in 30 seconds and then multiply by four
C. Count the number of beats in 25 seconds and multiply by two
D. Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by six

Count the number of beats in 15 seconds and then multiply by four

What is the average heart rate or pulse for a cat?
 A. 120 to 130 bpm
 B. 120 to 140 bpm
 C. 110 to 130 bpm
 D. 32 to 42 bpm

120 to 140 bpm

The liquid portion of blood which plays an important role in transportation throughout the body is known as which of the following?
 A. Plasma
 B. Red blood cells
 C. White blood cells
 D. Platelets

Plasma

Which of the following carries oxygen from the lungs to the rest of the body using a special protein called hemoglobin?
 A. White blood cells
 B. Red blood cells
 C. Plasma
 D. Platelets

Red Blood Cells

How long does the average red blood cell live?
 A. 50 days
 B. 200 days
 C. 100 days
 D. 25 days

100 days

Which of the following is also referred to as leukocytes?
 A. Plasma
 B. Red blood cells
 C. White blood cells
 D. Erythrocytes

White Blood Cells

Which of the following tests is used to determine the percentage of red blood cells within a volume of blood?
 A. Packed cell volume (PCV)
 B. Complete blood count (CBC)
 C. White blood cell test
 D. Platelet test

Packed Cell Volume (PCV)

After an injury, what happens to platelets?
 A. They decrease
 B. They increase
 C. They stay the same
 D. They die

They increase

Which of the following has the major role of defending the body from organisms such as bacteria, viruses and fungi?
 A. Red blood cells
 B. Hemoglobin
 C. Plasma
 D. White blood cells

White blood cells

Which of the following is also referred to as erythrocytes?
 A. Red blood cells
 B. White blood cells
 C. Platelets
 D. Plasma

Red blood cells

What is the normal packed cell volume (PCV) percentage for dogs?
 A. 29 to 50 percent
 B. 30 to 40 percent
 C. 40 to 59 percent
 D. 50 to 69 percent

40 to 59 percent

What part of the body produces platelets?
 A. Kidneys
 B. Spleen
 C. Liver
 D. Bone marrow

Bone marrow

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, which vein can be utilized when drawing blood from a cat but NOT from a dog?
 A. Jugular
 B. Cephalic
 C. Medial saphenous
 D. Medial cephalic

Medial saphenous

If an animal has been diagnosed with polycythemia, which of the following symptoms typically occurs?
 A. Diarrhea
 B. Flaky skin
 C. Leukemia
 D. Anemia

Diarrhea

In cattle, which of the following is the best location to obtain a small blood sample?
 A. Medial tail vein
 B. Cephalic tail vein
 C. Saphenous tail vein
 D. Caudal tail vein

Caudal tail vein

Where is the best location to obtain a large blood sample from a horse?
 A. Cephalic
 B. Jugular
 C. Saphenous
 D. Caudal

Jugular

Which of the following types of white blood cells are NOT formed in bone marrow?
 A. Neutrophils
 B. Lymphocytes
 C. Monocytes
 D. Sasophils

Lymphocytes

Which of the following methods is used to inject a drug into the tissue layer between the skin and the muscle?
 A. Intravenous (IV)
 B. Intramuscular (IM)
 C. Subcutaneous (SQ)
 D. Submuscular (SM)

Subcutaneous (SQ)

Injections are most commonly given with a syringe, which of the following is NOT one of the three main parts of a syringe?
 A. Barrel
 B. Tube
 C. Plunger
 D. Needle

Tube

Which of the following is the part of the syringe which holds the medicine?
 A. Barrel
 B. Tube
 C. Plunger
 D. Needle

Barrel

Which of the following statements is true when referring to the diameter of a needle?
A. The lower the gauge of the needle, the smaller the diameter of the needle
B. The lower the gauge of needle, the larger the diameter of the needle
C. The higher the gauge of the needle, the larger the diameter of the needle
D. There is no correlation between needle gauge and diameter size

The lower the gauge of needle, the larger the diameter of the needle

If the dosage for a certain vaccination calls for 5 cc per animal and you are vaccinating 10 animals, how many milliliters of the vaccine will you use?
 A. 40 mL
 B. 50 mL
 C. 60 mL
 D. 70 mL

50 mL

According to Steve Kennedy, DVM, where is the most common location for an intramuscular injection (IM) on horses and cattle?
A. Triangle area in the shoulder muscle
B. Triangle area in the neck muscle
C. Triangle area in the hindquarter muscle
D. Triangle area underneath the neck

Triangle area in the neck muscle

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, where should feline vaccines be injected?
 A. Dorsal area
 B. Cranial area
 C. Caudal area
 D. Distal area

Distal area

Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to dogs?
 A. Rabies
 B. Distemper
 C. West Nile
 D. Parvovirus

West Nile

Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to horses?
 A. Rhino/flu
 B. Tetanus
 C. Distemper
 D. Brucellosis

Brucellosis

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, after receiving a vaccination, what may develop on a cat’s body?
 A. Sores
 B. Sarcoma
 C. Sarcoid
 D. Mange

Sarcoma

According to Steve Kennedy, DVM, where are subcutaneous injections performed on cattle?
A.  Neck
B.  Hip
C.  Thigh
D.  Shoulder

Neck

Which of the following methods is used to inject a drug directly into the vein of an animal?
 A. Intravenous (IV)
 B. Intramuscular (IM)
 C. Subcutaneous (SQ)
 D. Submuscular (SM)

Intravenous (IV)

Which of the following was NOT included in the core vaccines given to cats?
 A. Rabies
 B. Calicivirus
 C. Rhinotracheitis
 D. Bordetella

Bordetella

Which of the following is the part of the syringe which allows the applicator to push the medication through the syringe?
 A. Barrel
 B. Tube
 C. Plunger
 D. Needle

Plunger

The capillary refill time on a healthy animal should be which of the following?
 A. Less than five seconds
 B. Two seconds or less
 C. Ten seconds
 D. No more than four seconds

Two seconds or less

When performing a physical exam on a horse, how does the veterinarian check for dehydration?
 A. Giving the horse water
 B. Checking the gums
 C. Making a skin tent
 D. Listening to the throat

Making a skin tent

During a small animal examination, how does the veterinarian feel for enlargement of the internal organs and/or masses and fluid within the animal?
 A. Performing an orthopedic exam
 B. Listening to the lungs
 C. Checking the skin
 D. Palpating the belly

Palpating the belly

Listening for gut motility and function is extremely important when examining a horse. How many quadrants must the veterinarian listen to in order to examine both high and low portions of the gut?
 A. Four
 B. Two
 C. Six
 D. Three

four

Where is the temperature taken in cattle?
 A. Mouth
 B. Ear
 C. Rectally
 D. Under skin

Rectally

What is the most common anatomical order when performing a physical exam on any type of animal?
 A. Top to bottom
 B. Back to front
 C. Bottom to top
 D. Head to tail

Head to tail

Where is the femoral pulse located?
 A. Inside the front legs
 B. Inside the hind legs
 C. On the neck
 D. Under the belly

Inside the hind legs

What could be the cause for swollen lymph nodes on an animal?
 A. Mange
 B. Parasites
 C. Infection or systemic disease
 D. Fleas or ticks

Infection or systemic disease

Where are fleas and ticks most commonly found on a small animal?
 A. Belly
 B. Neck
 C. Back
 D. Rump and neck

Rump and neck

What should be the normal color of an animal’s gums and mucous membranes?
 A. Pink
 B. Blue
 C. Red
 D. Dark red

Pink

Where are the submandibular lymph nodes located?
 A. Hind legs
 B. Chest
 C. Beneath the jaw
 D. Under the belly

Beneath the jaw

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a healthy animal?
 A. Dull coat
 B. Clear eyes
 C. Healthy mouth
 D. Normal vital signs

Dull coat

What is the most common reason for tartar on a small animal’s teeth?
 A. Poor appetite
 B. Bad owners
 C. Age
 D. Illness

Age

What is the average respiration rate, in breaths per minute, for cattle?
 A. 10 to 40
 B. 10 to 30
 C. 15 to 40
 D. 15 to 30

10 to 30

Which of the following diseases is NOT detected by the 4Dx SNAP® test?
 A. Heartworm disease
 B. Lyme disease
 C. Blood parasites
 D. Leukemia

Leukemia

Antibiotics are used to treat which of the following?
 A. Viruses
 B. Bacteria
 C. Allergies
 D. Yeasts

Bacteria

What does the dark blue-green dot, which appears in the upper-left corner of the 4Dx SNAP® test window, confirm?
 A. The test was run correctly
 B. The test was run incorrectly
 C. The animal is positive for a disease
 D. The animal does not have a disease

The test was run correctly

Which of the following is NOT a common parasite found when performing a fecal flotation on a small animal?
 A. Roundworm
 B. Hookworm
 C. Heartworm
 D. Coccidia

Coccidia

Which of the following tests might be used to gain more information as to the severity of an infection within the animal?
 A. Urinalysis
 B. 4Dx SNAP®
 C. Microfilaria smear
 D. Fecal flotation

Microfilaria smear

What does a fecal flotation help veterinarians determine?
A. Whether or not the animal has blood parasites
B. Whether or not the animal has kidney disease
C. Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites
D. Whether or not the animal has a bladder infection

Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how often should dogs be tested for heartworm disease?
 A. Once a year
 B. Once every two years
 C. Once every six months
 D. Once every five years

Once a year

Which of the following is the most common method used to examine a fecal sample?
 A. Flotation
 B. Gross examination
 C. Direct smear
 D. Centrifugation

Flotation

In order to simulate the conditions of the body, how long must a culture plate be placed in a heated incubator?
 A. 12 hours
 B. 10 hours
 C. 48 hours
 D. 24 hours

24 hours

According to Katie Salas, CVT, how long should you leave the microscope cover slip on top of the fecal flotation before examining it under the microscope?
 A. 20 to 30 minutes
 B. 10 to 15 minutes
 C. 10 to 30 minutes
 D. 45 minutes

10-15 minutes

Which of the following statements is true when the results show three or more dots in the window of the 4Dx SNAP® reader?
A. The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite
B. The dog has tested negative for more than one disease or parasite
C. The test was not performed correctly
D. The dog has tested positive for only one disease or parasite

The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite

What test should be used to specifically identify the strain of bacteria or pathogen affecting the animal?
 A. Urinary test
 B. Culture test
 C. Fecal flotation test
 D. Complete blood count test

Culture test

Which of the following is true about a dog’s packed cell volume (PCV) when he is dehydrated?
 A. PCV is high
 B. PCV is low
 C. PCV is normal
 D. PCV is zero

PCV is high

A very strong ammonia smell to an animal’s urine could indicate which of the following?
A. Bleeding in the urinary tract
B. Bacterial infection in the urinary tract
C. Dehydration
D. Intestinal parasites

Bacterial infection in the urinary tract

In order to determine which organisms are most likely the source of a bacterial infection and to determine the most appropriate method of treatment, a veterinarian might perform which of the following tests?
 A. Culture test
 B. Flotation test
 C. Sensitivity test
 D. Urinalysis test

Sensitivity test

In order for the veterinarian to perform chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, a dog should be positioned in which of the following positions?
 A. Dorsal recumbency
 B. Lateral recumbency
 C. Medial recumbency
 D. Ventral recumbency

Lateral recumbency

Which of the following is a procedure used by veterinarians to administer certain medications or to remove toxins by flushing the lower intestinal tract?
 A. Dental prophylaxis
 B. Enema
 C. Expressing anal glands
 D. Radiology

Enema

Which of the following is a procedure routinely used to provide valuable information about an animal’s bones, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, heart and genitourinary system?
 A. Dental prophylaxis
 B. Endoscopy
 C. Ultrasound
 D. Radiology

Radiology

Which of the following is caused by the body losing a severe amount of blood or fluids?
 A. Hypothermic shock
 B. Hyperthermic shock
 C. Hypovolemic shock
 D. Cardiogenic shock

Hypovolemic shock

Which of the following is defined as the percentage of sperm which are progressively motile?
 A. Sperm motility
 B. Sperm concentration
 C. Sperm count
 D. Sperm morphology

Sperm motility

Which of the following processes involves collecting sperm cells from a male animal and manually depositing them into the reproductive tract of a female?
 A. In vitro fertilization
 B. Semen collection
 C. Embryo transfer
 D. Artificial insemination

Artificial insemination

Which of the following is defined as the physical blockage of the respiratory tract?
 A. Hypothermia
 B. Hypovolemic
 C. Hypoxemia
 D. Hyperthermia

Hypoxemia

Which of the following is administered to animals during surgery to help maintain blood pressure and compensate for blood loss?
 A. Vaccinations
 B. Antibiotics
 C. Fluids
 D. Anesthetic

Fluids

Which of the following is an everyday practice in all aspects of veterinary medicine and is used to help determine how a patient feels?
 A. Ultrasound
 B. Radiology
 C. Physical monitoring
 D. Vaccination administration

Physical monitoring

Which of the following is defined as the removal of dead tissue?
 A. Debridement
 B. Enema
 C. Prophylaxis
 D. Trimming

Debridement

Which of the following is used to help determine pregnancy in an animal?
 A. Radiology
 B. Embryo transfer
 C. Endoscopy
 D. Ultrasound

Ultrasound

Which of the following is determined by the percentage of sperm which are normal in shape and size?
 A. Sperm motility
 B. Sperm morphology
 C. Sperm count
 D. Sperm concentration

Sperm morphology

Which of the following is a condition caused by the excessive loss of water from the body?
 A. Dehydration
 B. Hypoglycemia
 C. Hypoexemia
 D. Hypothermia

Dehydration

Which of the following is defined as the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth?
 A. Dystocia
 B. Colostrum
 C. Recumbent
 D. Lactose

Colostrum

Which of the following is defined as a disease which can be transmitted to humans from animals?
 A. Zoonotic
 B. Bacterial
 C. Parasitic
 D. Viral

Zoonotic

Once instruments are scrubbed, rinsed, dried and wrapped, the surgery pack is placed in which of the following to complete the sterilization process?
A. Radiograph
B. Autoclave
C. Centrifuge
D. Endoscope

Autoclave

An IV catheter is placed in which of the following veins before surgery?
 A. Caudal
 B. Jugular
 C. Cephalic
 D. Saphenous

Cephalic

According to the presentation, which of the following is the first step to presurgical care?
 A. Insert an IV catheter
 B. Insert an endotracheal tube
 C. Administer an induction agent
 D. Administer pre-medication

Administer pre-medication

After an animal is anesthetized, which of the following is attached to the animal to measure his heart rate and respiration?
 A. Endotracheal tube
 B. Pulse oximeter
 C. Reservoir bag
 D. IV catheter

Pulse oximeter

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how long does Swann Animal Clinic leave their patients attached to the oxygen machine after a surgical procedure?
 A. 30 minutes
 B. 10 minutes
 C. 15 minutes
 D. 5 minutes

5 minutes

Once the patient is stimulated and able to completely swallow

After surgery, a patient’s temperature may lower. Which of the following terms is used to define low temperature?
 A. Hyperthermic
 B. Hypothermic
 C. Hypotemp
 D. Hypertemp

Hyporthermic

Once the patient is able to sit up in the recovery cage

What anatomical parts are removed from a female dog or cat during a spay surgery?
 A. Testes
 B. Scrotum
 C. Uterus and ovaries
 D. Vagina

Uterus and ovaries

During a spay surgery, the female is placed in which of the following positions?
 A. Lateral recumbency
 B. Dorsal recumbency
 C. Ventral recumbency
 D. Sternal recumbency

Dorsal recumbency

Which of the following terms is defined as tying up or closing off, sometimes with a suture?
 A. Dissect
 B. Excise
 C. Inversion
 D. Ligate

Ligate

How long does it take for a bull to be castrated using the banding method?
 A. Approximately a week
 B. Approximately two weeks
 C. Approximately one month
 D. Approximately five days

Approximately two weeks

What is an induction agent?
 A. Steroid
 B. Antibiotic
 C. Anesthetic
 D. Anti-inflammatory

Anesthetic

Which of the following terms is defined as any process which eliminates or kills bacteria and other living microorganism?
 A. Inversion
 B. Washing
 C. Sterilization
 D. Cleaning

Sterilization

According to Jenna Barber, DVM, the Swann Animal Clinic uses which of the following to scrub an animal before surgery?
 A. Bleach
 B. Clorox® and bleach
 C. Lubricant
 D. Chlorhexidine and alcohol

Chlorhexidine and alcohol

Which of the following is not a semi-domestic animal?
A. Bison
B. Snow Leopard
C. Red Deer
D. Asian Elephant

Snow Leopard

Which of the following drug absorption process is known as cell drinking?
A.  Passive Diffusion
B.  Active Transport
C.  Pinocytosis
D.  Facilitated Diffusion

Pinocytosis

What does NSAIDS stand for?

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

Which type of drug is only available with a prescription?
A. Legend
B. Controlled substance
C. Over-the-counter
D. Generic

Legend

What is the process of mixing and assembling drugs?
 A. Mixing
 B. Combining
 C. Compounding
 D. Distributing

Compounding

Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug name?
 A. Generic
 B. Brand name
 C. Chemical
 D. Compounded

Compounded

Which type of drug is used for the treatment of a condition?
 A. Diagnostic
 B. Therapeutic
 C. Preventative
 D. Chemical

Therapeutic

Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug source?
 A. Plants
 B. Minerals
 C. Animals
 D. Humans

Humans

Which of the following requires a drug to be tested in order to demonstrate its safety when following the label directions?
A. Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
B. Extralabel Drug Use Act
C. Animal Drug Use Clarification Act
D. New Animal Drug Act

Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act

How many years must controlled substance records be kept?
 A. Three years
 B. Five years
 C. Two years
 D. One year

Two years

What must exist in order for a veterinarian to prescribe a medication?
 A. Illness
 B. Sickness
 C. VCPR
 D. RPCV

VCPR

What year was the Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act put into place?
 A. 1984
 B. 1990
 C. 1994
 D. 1964

1994

Which governmental agency enforces the Federal Pure Food and Drug Act?
 A. FDA
 B. CVM
 C. ADF
 C. MVC

FDA

Which drug is used in animals to treat inflammation and allergies?
A. Chemotherapeutics
B. Antibiotics
C. Behavior modifying
D. Corticosteroids

Corticosteroids

Which drug is used for restraint of an animal?
 A. Corticosteroids
 B. Sedative
 C. Antibiotic
 D. NSAID

Sedative

Which drug is used to prevent or kill parasites?
 A. Chemotherapeutics
 B. Anti-parasitic
 C. Antibiotic
 D. Corticosteroid

Anti-parasitic

Which drug is used to stop the growth of bacteria?
 A. Antibiotic
 B. Anti-parasitic
 C. Corticosteroid
 D. Anesthetic

Antibiotic

Which drug helps decrease anxiety?
 A. Antibiotic
 B. NSAID
 C. Behavior modifying
 C. Anti-parasitic

Behavior modifying

What process is known as “cell drinking”?
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion

Pinocytosis

What is the first step in the passage of a drug through the body?
 A. Drug distribution
 B. Drug administration
 C. Drug absorption
 D. Drug elimination

Drug absorption

Which of the following is the chemical alteration of drug molecules into metabolites by body cells?
 A. Interaction
 B. Distribution
 C. Absorption
 D. Biotransformation

Biotransformation

What allows drugs to gather in high concentration in a cell or body compartment?
 A. Passive diffusion
 B. Active Transport
 C. Facilitated diffusion
 D. Pinocytosis

Active Transport

What is it called when a drug is moved into a normal cells metabolic pathway and then fails to react, resulting in cell death?
 A. Inactivation
 B. Activation
 C. Modification
 C. Intoxication

Intoxication

How many rights are there for proper drug administration?
A. Four
B. Six
C. Ten
D. Five

six

Which route of drug administration is given by a syringe or needle?
 A. Oral
 B. Local
 C. Parenteral
 D. Topical

parenteral

Which intravenous administration injects a drug into a small amount of fluid with a syringe or needle?
 A. Intermittent therapy
 B. Continuous infusion
 C. Bolus administration
 D. Intramuscular

Bolus administration

Which of the following is the initial dose give in the therapeutic range?
 A. Loading dose
 B. Maintenance dose
 C. Total dose
 D. Adding dose

Loading dose

Which of the following is a decreased response to a drug because the drug has been used repeatedly?
 A. Resistance
 B. Tolerance
 C. Weakness
 D. Endurance

Tolerance

What is the amount of active ingredient in a drug?
A. Strength
B. Concentration
C. Volume
D. Weight

strength

How do you calculate concentration?
 A. = strength ÷ weight
 B. = strength ÷ volume
 C. = volume ÷ strength
 D. = concentration ÷ volume

strength ÷ volume

How many pounds are in one kilogram?
 A. 2.5 lbs.
 B. 2.2 lbs.
 C. 2.4 lbs.
 D. 3 lbs.

2.2 lbs.

Your veterinarian knows the weight of the animal and instructs you to give 200 mg of a medication. The concentration on the bottle is 250 mg for every 10 mL. How many mL should you give?
 A. 10 mL
 B. 5 mL
 C. 8 mL
 D. 15 mL

8 mL

Your veterinarian prescribes a dose of medication which is 5 mL for every 10 lbs. This means a 10 lb. animal will receive 5 mL. How many mL will you give if the animal weighs 50 lbs.?
 A. 5 mL
 B. 15 mL
 C. 25 mL
D. 10 mL

25 mL

Pharmacology is a part of medicine which does NOT focus on which of the following?
 A. Uses
 B. Effects
 C. Modes of actions
 D. Diseases

Diseases

Which is NOT an example of a type of drug?
 A. Therapeutic
 B. Curing
 C. Preventative
 D. Diagnostic

Curing

Who regulates prescription drugs?
 A. FDA
 B. USDA
 C. CVM
 D. AVMA

FDA

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 categorizes drugs into how many different schedules or classifications?
 A. Six
 B. Five
 C. Eight
 D. Seven

Five

Which process is known as “cell eating”?
 A. Pinocytosis
 B. Phagocytosis
 C. Modification
 D. Intoxication

Phagocytosis

What is the process called when an active drug turns into an inactive metabolite?
 A. Activation
 B. Inactivation
 C. Modification
 D. Intoxication

Inactivation

Which process is also known as drug metabolism?
 A. Drug distribution
 B. Elimination
 C. Biotransformation
 D. Drug absorption

Biotransformation

There are many injectable routes for medication, an intra-articular route is injected into what part of an animal?
 A. Heart
 B. Artery
 C. Joint
 D. Bone

Artery

Which type of drug administration is the slowest at absorbing?
 A. Oral
 B. Parenteral
 C. Topical
 D. Inhalation

Topical

What is it called when the drug concentration in the body produces the desired effect in the animal with no signs of toxicity?
 A. Therapeutic range
 B. Tolerance
 C. Dosage regimen
 D. Dosage interval

Therapeutic range

Your veterinarian prescribes a dose of medication which is 10 mL for every 100 lbs. This means a 100 lb. animal will receive 10 mL. What would the correct dosage be for an animal weighing 150 lbs.?

15 mL

If your veterinarian knows the weight of the animal and you are told to give 100 mg of a medication. The concentration on the bottle is 200 mg for every 10 mL.
How many mL should you give?

5 mL

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Veterinary Science Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM