Animal Science Flashcards
To study for Industry Certification.
The process of giving birth to an animal is called…
Parturition
What should newborn mammals consume immediately after birth?
Colostrum
A gestation period is the length of time from... A. Insemination to birth B. Insemination to fertilization C. Conception to birth D. Birth to one year of age
Conception to birth
Artificial insemination is the primary breeding method used with... A. Turkeys B. Pigs C. Dairy Cows D. All of the above
Turkeys, pigs, and dairy cows (All of the above)
A cow has a gestation period of approximately how many days?
283 days
Bos indicus cattle are characterized by... A. Long ears B. Excess dewlap C. A humped-neck D. All of the above
All of the above
A castrated bull is called a…
Steer
Cattle have how many compartments in their stomachs?
Four
Female cattle that have not calved are called…
Heifers
Cattle from feedyards are taken to a processing plant when they reach an average weight of…
1,100-1,200 pounds
Horses are used for... A. Recreational riding B. Racing C. Ranching operations D. All of the above
All of the above
A castrated male horse is called a…
Gelding
An uncastrated male horse, at least four years of age, is called a…
Stallion
The process of a mare giving birth to a foal is called…
Foaling
A female horse, at least four years of age, is called a…
Mare
Mohair comes from the... A. Kashmir goat B. Boer goat C. Angora goat D. Nubian goat
Angora goat
A goat known for its meat production is the…
Boer goat
A sheep younger than one year of age is a…
Lamb
A castrated male goat is a…
Wether
Lanolin is produced from which part of the sheep?
The wool
The average litter size for swine is... A. 1-3 piglets B. 2-5 piglets C. 6-8 piglets D. 9-12 piglets
9-12 piglets
A female pig that has not had a litter of piglets is a…
Gilt
What is the term used when a sow or gilt gives birth to a litter of piglets?
Farrowing
A hog's internal organs closely resemble those of a A. Human B. Goat C. Sheet D. Both B and C
Human
Hogs are taken to the processing plant when they reach how many months of age? A. 3-4 months B. 4-6 months C. 9 months D. 12 months
4-6 months
Poultry refers to bird species such as A. Chickens B. Turkeys C. Ducks and geese D. All of the above
All of the above
A chicken between the ages of 6-8 weeks is a... A. Pullet B. Broiler or fryer C. Hen D. Chick
Broiler or fryer
The primary by-product from chickens is... A. Blood B. Bones C. Variety Meats D. Feathers
Feathers
A male chicken, at least eight months of age, is a... A. Rooster or cock B. Capon C. Pullet D. Broiler or Fryer
Rooster or Cock
How an animal gathers its food is known as…
Prehension
What is the difference in the mouth structure of cattle, sheep and goats compared to horses?
A. there is no difference
B. horses do not have upper incisors
C. cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors
D. cattle, sheep and goats do not have a true tongue
C. Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors
What is the horse’s organ of prehension?
lips
What is the chicken’s organ of prehension?
beak
What is a human’s organ of prehension?
hand
What is colic?
A. An enzyme that helps digest food
B. A digestive disorder
C. A medication given to ease abdominal pain
D. An additive included in most animal feed
A digestive disorder
In horses, most digestive disturbances result from... A. underfeeding B. overfeeding grains C. too much water D. overchewing hay
Overfeeding grains
What type of digestive systems do cattle, sheep and goats have?
ruminant
What is a part of a young ruminants stomach that allows milk to go straight from the rumen to the abomasum to be digested?
Reticular Groove
What are two important structures of a horse's digestive system? A. stomach B. reticulum C. proximal colon D. a and c E. b and c
stomach and proximal colon
What is the cecum? A. A blind sack B. A site of microbial digestion C. A thin-walled structure D. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following terms refers to the rear of an animal? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Dorsal D. Ventral
Posterior
What is the chicken's true stomach? A. gizzard B. proventriculus C. crop D. cloaca
proventriculus
Anterior refers to what part of an animal's body? A. rear B. belly C. head D. back
head
How many ceca do chickens have?
2
The cecum is comparable to what human organ?
appendix
Hairballs are... A. undesirable B. found in rumens C. comprised mainly of hair D. all of the above
all of the above
What is the function of the esophagus in ruminants? A. carry material down B. carry material back up C. none of the above D. a and b
to carry material down and back up (regurgitation)
Material leaving the reticulum would enter into what structure? A. abomasum B. omasum C. small intestine D. large intestine
omasum
What causes hairballs? A. certain feeds B. no one knows C. animals are born with them D. animals licking themselves
animals licking themselves
The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is... A. nutrition B. nutrients C. a diet D. a ration
nutrition
A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrition to an animal is…
a. a diet
b. feed
c. food
d. a ration
a diet
Nutrients consumed by humans in breads and vegetables are…
a. feed
b. food
c. a diet
d. a ration
food
Food for animal is called…
feed
Which of the following is an example of a monogastric? A. steer B. horse C. lamb D. deer
horse
The most important nutrient is... A. protein B. water C. fat or oil D. carbohydrates
water
For every pound of feed consumed by the animal…
A. 2-5 pounds of water will be consumed
B. 6-9 pounds of water will be consumed
C. 10-14 pound of water will be consumed
D. 15-18 pounds of water will be consumed
2-5 pounds
Water can be provided to animals by…
a. bowl waterers
b. automatic waterers
c. nipple waterers
d. all of the above
all of the above
What is fed to provide amino acids, but generally not used to provide energy?
a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. fats
d. nutrients
protein
Minerals can be divided into…
a. 1 group
b. 2 groups
c. 3 groups
d. 4 groups
2 groups
Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are usually fed to provide…
a. fat
b. carbohydrates
c. protein
d. oil
protein
The most common and abundant cereal grain is…
a. wheat
b. corn
c. rye
d. barley
corn
The crude protein content of corn is…
a. 4-6%
b. 8-10%
c. 14-16%
d. 17-20%
8-10%
Triticale is a cross between…
a. rye and wheat
b. rye and corn
c. wheat and corn
d. wheat and barley
rye and wheat (It’s a cover crop like rye and wheat so they crossed the two and triticale is what was a result)
The crude protein of grain sorghum is…
a. 4-6%
b. 8-12%
c. 13-15%
d. 16-20%
8-12%
Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of…
a. processing
b. extrusion
c. rations
d. diets
processing
The composition of the feed and the manufacturers location…
a. would not be listed anywhere
b. would be listed on the feed tag
c. would be listed on the sack
d. would be listed at the store
on the feed tag
Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of feed for…
a. horses
b. cattle
c. dogs and cats
d. sheep
dogs and cats
Processing…
a. improves nutrient availability
b. is not commonly used for livestock feed
c. saves time in preparing rations
d. decreases the nutrient availability
improves nutrient availability
Feed can be provided to the animal through…
a. feeders
b. lick tanks
c. range cubes
d. all of the above
all of the above
T/F Genetics is the science of heredity and variation.
true
T/F Genetics has a much greater effect on animals than their environment.
false
T/F When crossbred pea plants are self-pollinated, the offspring show a three short to one tall ration.
false
T/F Each parent contributes one gamete or sex cell to each of its offspring.
true
T/F All animals have the same number of chromosomes.
false
Which of the following is essential to cell functions and contains nuclear sap from which chromosomes arise?
a. chromatin
b. nucleus
c. gametes
d. allele
nucleus
Which of the following is a complex solution outside the cell nucleus contained by a cell membrane?
a. allele
b. cytoplasm
c. gametes
d. chromatin
cytoplasm
What is the material found in the nucleus which forms chromosomes?
a. chromatin
b. nuclear pores
c. nuclear envelope
d. nuclear lamina
chromatin
Which of the following is the molecule in which genes are located?
a. RNA
b. DNA
c. nucleotide
d. nucleus
DNA
Which of the following types of cell division results in two identical daughter nuclei?
a. meiosis
b. oogenesis
c. mitosis
d. spermatogenesis
mitosis
T/F Mitosis is defined as the division of a sex cell and results in four identical daughter cells.
false
T/F The letter “G” in G1 and G2 stands for “genetic.”
false
Which of the following is NOT a phase of cell division?
a. G1
b. S phase
c. meiosis
d. M phase
meiosis
Which of the following is NOT a stage of M phase?
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase
Interphase
Which of the following structures forms attachments with the chromosomes during pro-metaphase?
a. mitotic apparatus
b. centrosome
c. gametes
d. nuclues
mitotic apparatus
Which of following species is most commonly identified by the use of the branding method?
a. cattle and horses
b. cattle and sheep
c. sheep and goats
d. horses and sheep
cattle and horses
Which of the following is most commonly used on sheep and cattle when participating in a sale or show?
a. hot branding
b. freeze branding
c. nose prints
d. neck chains
nose prints
In the horse industry, which of the following is applied to the upper lip?
a. hot iron brands
b. freeze brands
c. tattoos
d. electronic microchips
tattoos
What is an ear notch used for in the sheep industry?
a. Identifying lamp number
b. Identifying mother
c. Identifying culls
d. Identifying keeps
culls (Sheep that are going to the market)
Spiral bands are used in which of the following industries for identification?
a. swine
b. poultry
c. cattle
d. horse
poultry
Which of the following is indicated when notched in the right ear of pigs?
a. litter number
b. pig number
c. tag number
d. brand
litter number
Which number represents the birth year in System 1 of ID?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
first
System 1 is two digit birth year following by two digit offspring number of the year
In System 3 of animal ID, the birth year is represented by which of the following?
a. the number related to the month
b. the first number
c. the second number
d. a letter
a letter (it is assigned by the breed association for each year)
Which system assigns consecutive numbers for ID?
a. system 1
b. system 2
c. system 3
d. system 4
4
What are numbering systems used for in livestock operations?
a. to replace names of animals
b. to prove ownership
c. to identify animals
d. for buying pruposes
to identify animals
Which identification method is most commonly used in the swine industry?
a. toe-punching
b. ear tagging
c. ear notching
d. hot iron branding
ear notching
DNA analysis can be extracted from which of the following?
a. nasal swabs
b. retina scans
c. ear notching
d. freeze branding
nasal swabs
How many combinations are possible for toe-punching identification?
a. 20
b. 18
c. 16
d. 14
16
Which of the following breeds uses identification certificated for identification?
a. swine
c. cattle
c. sheep
d. horse
horse
Which of the following is NOT a typical identification method for livestock animals?
a. freeze branding
b. GPS tracking
c. tattooing
d. ear notching
GPS tracking
Which of the following is NOT a reason to use an animal identification system?
a. improves management and mating decisions
b. helps determine growth rates
c. provides easy access to record for each animal
d. provides disease control
provide disease control
Identification can ________ breed associations in registration.
a. aid
b. hurt
c. complicate
d. develop
aid
Which of the following is a voluntary identification program?
a. NAIS
b. AIN
c. PIN
d. USDA
NAIS (National Animal Identification System)
Which of the following is NOT a component required when participating in the voluntary identification program? A. Premises registration B. Animal Identification C. Premises Orientation D. ANimal tracing
Premises orientation
Which of the following is NOT considered as official identification for animals being transported interstate?
a. ear tag
b. nose print
c. brand
d. tattoo
nose print
Which year were the first livestock animals brought over to the New World? A. 1400s B. 1500s C. 1492 D. 1493 E. 1462
1493
The Brahman breed would be an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cattle. A. Bos taurus B. Bos indicus C. Humped D. Slick E. Haired
Bos indicus
When animals are being used to pull loads, these animals are commonly referred as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ animals. A. Draft B. Strong C. Haul D. Sturdy E. Heavy
draft
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ industry is an example of a vertically integrated industry. A. Beef B. Pork C. Lamb D. Poultry E. Horses
Poultry
With the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, breeders are able to prevent injuries to animals as well as control the prodigy. A. Technological advancements B. Embryo transfer C. Artificial insemination D. Both B and C E. Both A and C
Embryo Transfer and Artificial Insemination
CAFO stands for ______________________________.
A. Caring about feeding others
B. Concentrated animal feeding operations
C. Considerate animal feeding operations
D. Concise about feeding others
E. Careful animal feeding operations
Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations
Originally, fairs and shows were done in order for farmers to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Show their animals B. Sell their animals C. Breed their animals D. Both A and B E. Both A and C
To show and sell their animals
All leftover fat and meat from the carcasses are referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Waste B. Trash C. Trim D. Extras E. Leftovers
Trim
Plants which \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ meat are marked by an offensive odor and are often far from people and towns. A. Render B. Process C. Cook D. Fabricate E. None of the above
Render
Intramuscular fat is more commonly referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Gristle B. Connective tissue C. Marbling D. Fat E. All of the above
marbling
Poor transportation can NOT cause which of the following health problems? A. Stress B. Bruising C. Swine flu D. Trampling
Swine Flu
Which of the following is the second step in swine hair removal? A. Singeing B. Scalding C. Skinning D. Tumbling machine
Tumbling machine
Antemortem inspection is done at which stage of the slaughter process? A. Holding B. Splitting C. Grading D. Transportation
Holding
Beef carcasses with B maturity are in which age group? A. Over 96 B. 42 to 72 C. 72 to 96 D. 30 to 42
30-42 months
Which of the following animals was NOT included in the Humane Slaughter Act of 1958? A. Cattle B. Swine C. Chicken D. Horse
Chicken
Which beef cut is inexpensive and often used to feed a large number of people? A. Shank B. Round C. Loin D. Brisket
Brisket
Which cut of pork meat only has thin layers of lean meat? A. Loin B. Belly C. Ham D. Shoulder butt
Belly
The hot box is usually set between what temperature range? A. 250 to 275°F (121 to 135°C) B. 180 to 360°F (82 to 182°C) C. 45 to 55°F (7 to 13°C) D. 26 to 28°F (-3 to -2°C)
26-28 Degrees F
Which of the following used in the slaughter process increases color and tenderness in the meat? A. Electric stimulators B. Holding stage C. Stunning D. Evisceration
Electric stimulators
Which of the following is NOT a quality grade for young beef (A and B maturity)? A. Prime B. Choice C. Cutter D. Select
Cutter
Which of the following is the primary reason the National Animal Identification
Systems was developed?
A. To provide a record of ownership to ranchers
B. To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak
C. To aid breed associations in registrations
D. To improve management and mating decisions for livestock owners
To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak
Ear tags, brands, microchips and tattoos are official identification required for animals to move in which of the following ways? A. Interstate B. Nationally C. Inner state D. Locally
Interstate
Which of the following is a disadvantage of ear tagging? A. Not weatherproof B. Hard to read C. Can be ripped from ear D. Expensive
Can be ripped from ear
In numbering system 2, which of the following is branded above the birth year? A. Animal weight B. Animal number C. Mother year D. Mother number
animal number
Where is the brand placed in hot iron and freeze branding? A. On the neck B. On the rump C. On the head D. On the back
On the rump
In which of the following industries are neck chains most commonly used? A. Dairy cattle B. Horses C. Dairy goats D. Beef cattle
Dairy Cattle
In freeze branding, the branding iron is chilled with which of the following? A. Liquid nitrogen B. Ice water C. Frozen salt D. Cooling compound
Liquid nitrogen
Which of the following is NOT an identification method commonly used for swine? A. Ear tag B. Tattoo C. Ear notch D. Retina scan
retina scan
Ear tags are pierced between which of the following cartilage ribs of the ear? A. Second and third B. First and second C. Third and fourth D. Fourth and fifth
2nd and 3rd
Which of the following is NOT included as an electronic identification method? A. Electronic ear tags B. Electronic collars C. Microchips or transponders D. Electronic nose prints
Electronic nose prints
What does mastication mean?
a. eating
b. chewing
c. breathing
d. smelling
chewing
The teeth of what animal continue to grow throughout its life?
a. horse
b. cow
c. pig
d. sheep
horse
If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?
a. small intestine
b. large intestine or proximal colon
c. stomach
d. gallbladder
small intestine
Monogastric animals…
a. have complex stomachs
b. are ruminants
c. have two stomachs
d. have simple stomachs
Have simple stomachs
What is another term used for proximal colon?
a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. rumen
d. reticulum
large intestine
Bile is
a. an organ located in the lower GI tract
b. an acid found in the stomachs of ruminants
c. a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion
d. found only in monogastrics
a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion
Which compartment is the true stomach of a ruminant?
a. rumen
b. reticulum
c. omasum
d. abomasum
abomasum
The gizzard is
a. a highly muscular organ
b. found in chickens
c. used to grind feed
d. all of the above
all of the above
The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is
a. grain sorghum
b. wheat
c. oats
d. barley
oats
Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?
a. grain sorghum
b. corn
c. wheat
d. barley
grain sorghum
The major source of energy for animals is
a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. vitamins
d. minerals
Carbohydrates
Dietary essential nutrients would include
a. vitamins
b. minerals
c. some amino acids
d. all of the above
all of the above
The crude protein content of wheat is
a. six to seven percent
b. 8-10 percent
c. 13-14 percent
d. 16-18 percent
13-14%
The crude protein content of rye is
a. five to seven percent
b. 12-13 percent
c. 15-17 percent
d. 18-20 percent
12-13%
Daily supply of feed or food is a
a. diet
b. ration
c. basic nutrient
d. essential nutrient
ration
The USDA pork grades are one, two, three, four and utility.
A. True
B. False
False
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the removal of the testicles from a male animal. A. Ear notching B. Ear tagging C. Tail trimming D. Castration
castration
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the universal swine identification system. A. Ear notching B. Ear tagging C. Tail trimming D. Castration
ear notching
What is the gestation of swine?
3 months, 3 weeks, and 3 days (114 days)
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the period of time in a sow’s cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red. A. Gestation B. Farrowing C. Castration D. Estrus
Estrus
What is a main factor in selecting breeding hogs? A. Muscling B. Frame size C. Structural correctness D. Maternal traits
structural correctness
Which breed of pig is red with white faces, feet and underline? A. Hampshire B. Duroc C. Hereford D. Tamworth
hereford
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a form of ownership or strategic management where all or more than one section of an industry is combined under the same ownership. A. Seedstock operation B. Vertical integration C. Farrow-to-finish D. Farrow-to-nursery
vertical integration
What are the USDA grades for pork? A. One, two, three, four B. A, B, C, D C. Prime, choice, grade, standard D. Acceptable, utility
acceptable and utility
Which is a by-product of pork? A. Pork fat B. Pork skins C. Insulin D. All of the above
all of the above
Which is NOT wholesale cut of a pork carcass? A. Brisket B. Ham C. Loin D. Shoulder
Brisket (beef)
The underline is important only in females, as they should have a minimum of six evenly spaced nipples.
A. True
B. False
False (Boars pass on nipple placement characteristics too)
What management practices should be performed on the liter within the first two weeks of age? A. Clipping needle teeth B. Tails trimmed C. Ears notched D. All of the above
All of the above
Which type of operation farrows out and then sells the piglets at weaning? A. Farrow-to-finish B. Farrow-to-nursery C. Seedstock D. Show pigs
farrow to nursery
Which type of operation produces purebred breeding stock for purebred and commercial operations? A. Farrow-to-finish B. Farrow-to-nursery C. Seedstock D. Show pigs
Seedstock
Which type of barn is used for just weaned pigs? A. Gestation house B. Farrowing house C. Finishing barn D. Nursery
nursery
Pigs are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, meaning they have one true stomach. A. Nonruminants B. Ruminants C. Bigastric D. Trigastric
nonruminant
Typically a young animal requires a higher level of protein in the diet than does an adult.
A. True
B. False
true
The majority of swine breeds are believed to be descendants of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Berkshire B. Yorkshire C. Eurasian wild boar D. All of the above
Eurasian wild boar
Which pig breed is solid white in color and has drooped ears? A. Berkshire B. Chester white C. Duroc D. Hampshire
chester white
3. Which breed is extremely long bodied and known for their maternal instincts? A. Landrace B. Chester white C. Yorkshire D. Berkshire
landrace
Which breed is black with a white belt behind its shoulders? A. Duroc B. Spot C. Hampshire D. Hereford
hampshire
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is one of the largest breeds in production in America. A. Landrace B. Chester white C. Yorkshire D. Berkshire
Berkshire
Which of the following is the fastest growing division in the goat industry? A. Meat B. Milk C. Fiber D. Genetics
meat
According to the presentation, which of the following is the leading state in the milk goat industry? A. Texas B. Oklahoma C. California D. New Mexico
California
The boer goat was imported to the United States in which of the following years? A. 1990 B. 1992 C. 1993 D. 1997
1993
Which of the following is the fiber produced from the undercoat of a goat’s pelt? A. Wool B. Cashmere C. Chevre D. Mohair
Cashmere
Which benefit does goat milk have over cow milk? A. Lower butterfat content B. Higher butterfat content C. More easily digested by humans D. Broader product line
more easily digested by humans because of the lower protein content
Which goat breed undergoes a temporary paralysis when frightened? A. Kiko B. Myotonic C. Alpine D. LaMancha
Myotonic (TN fainting goats) LOLOLOL!
Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single kid crops? A. Angora goats B. Boer goats C. Tennessee fainting goats D. Nubian goats
Angora
Which breed is known for being used for both milk and meat production? A. Boer B. Angora C. Nubian D. Tennessee fainting goats
Nubian
Which of the following is a common fence used in a goat operation? A. Barbed wire B. Woven wire C. Pipe D. Wooden
Woven wire
Which of the following accounts for more than three-quarters of all livestock lost to predators? A. Coyotes & Dogs B. Bears C. Bobcats D. Foxes
Coyotes and Dogs
Morgan is a producer and wants to identify her animals by an individual animal number as well as her operation identification. Which identification method should she use? A. Ear tagging B. Branding C. Tattooing D. Collars
tattooing
Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning? A. Burdizzo B. Barnes dehorner C. Heated iron D. Clippers
Heated iron
Which of the following terms defines a castrated male goat? A. Billy B. Buck C. Ewe D. Wether
Wether
When should a goat’s hooves be trimmed?
A. When goats are shorn for the summer
B. When goats live on rough environmental terrain
C. When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot
D. When the hoof is even with the plane of the foot
When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot
Which stomach produces bacteria to break down roughages? A. Rumen B. Reticulum C. Omasum D. Abomasum
Rumen
Which of the following is considered the most intensive feeding program for a goat producer? A. Pasture grazing B. Feed supplementation C. Confinement feeding D. Self-feeding
Confinement feeding
Which of the following is the most prevalent disease in goat operations? A. Foot rot B. Enterotoxemia C. Soremouth D. Ketosis
Enterotoxemia (Over eating disease)
Which of the following is a term meaning “a goat in estrus”? A. Photoperiod B. Puberty C. Gestation D. Standing heat
Standing heat (same in pigs)
Which method of breeding utilizes a superior female to enhance genetics of a herd? A. Selective breeding B. Artificial insemination C. Embryo transfer D. Hand breeding
Embryo Transfer (Harvesting her eggs and implanting them into inferior females)
Which of the following diseases is caused by intestinal parasites found naturally in most goats? A. Foot rot B. Soremouth C. Coccidiosis D. Ketosis
Coccidiosis
Which sheep breed classification is a cross breed between a fine wool breed and a long wool breed? A. Fine wool breeds B. Medium wool breeds C. Long wool breeds D. Hair sheep breeds
medium wool breeds
Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring? A. Seedstock B. Purebred C. Commercial D. All of the above
commercial
Which disease in sheep causes stones or crystals to be formed in the urinary tract? A. Parasites B. White muscle disease C. Urinary calculi D. Tetanus
Urinary calculi
The gestation or pregnancy length in sheep is \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. 148 days B. 128 days C. 168 days D. 248 days
148 days (5 months)
Gestation ends with what is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or birth. A. Estrus B. Dystocia C. Colostrum D. Parturition
parturition
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is known as removing the wool around the dock and mammary glands. A. Shearing B. Clipping C. Tagging D. All of the above
tagging
Which of the following is a main factor when evaluating market lambs? A. Weight B. Finish C. Muscle D. All of the above
all of the above
Which is the most important when evaluating a wool fleece? A. Grease fleece weight B. Yield C. Staple length D. Fiber diameter
Grease fleece weight
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a term used to describe the period of pregnancy in animals, or the time from conception to birth. A. Parturition B. Colostrum C. Gestation D. Dystocia
gestation
Which disease causes stiffness or rigor in the body’s muscles? A. Overeating disease B. Tetanus C. Urinary calculi D. White muscle disease
tetanus
Which of the following is a viral disease which causes ulcerations and scabs around the lips and in the mouth of a sheep? A. Urinary calculi B. Sore mouth C. White muscle disease D. Coccidiosis
sore mouth
Which operation provides the genetics for which commercial sheep production systems are based? A. Flock operations B. Purebred operations C. Commercial operations D. All of the above
purebred operations
What is the average live weight for a slaughter lamb? A. 100 lbs. B. 120 lbs. C. 140 lbs. D. 200 lbs.
140 pounds
Which of the following is a quality grade for lamb carcasses? A. Prime B. Choice C. Good D. All of the above
all of the above
Which is the most common fence used in a sheep operation? A. Net wire B. Barbed wire C. Pipe D. Wooden
Net wire (like the poultry fence we used for the turkeys)
What year was the National Wool Act repealed? A. 1976 B. 1986 C. 1996 D. 2006
1996
Which sheep breed classification produces wool fibers with a small fiber diameter and are known for their flocking instincts? A. Fine wool breeds B. Medium wool breeds C. Long wool breeds D. Prolific breeds
fine wool breeds
Which breed classification excels in feed efficiency, rate of gain and muscularity
and is also classified as meat type animals?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Long wool breeds
C. Terminal sire breeds
D. Hair sheep breeds
terminal sire breeds
Which breed classification sheds their wool in the winter? A. Fine wool breeds B. Long wool breeds C. Terminal sire breeds D. Hair sheep breeds
Hair sheep
Which breed classification is known for their multiple births? A. Fine wool breeds B. Medium wool breeds C. Long wool breeds D. Prolific breeds
prolific breeds
Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry? A. Cow/calf B. Farrow to finish C. Stocker D. Seedstock
Farrow to finish (Farrow is pigs)
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are a number estimate of breeding potential for characteristics, such as gain, muscling and maternal and carcass traits. A. Sterotypes B. EPDs C. Genotypes D. None of the above
EPDs
What is an advantage of synchronizing a cow herd? A. Longer calving season B. Results in a ununiform calf crop C. More labor intensive D. None of the above
Results in a ununiform calf crop
Which is the most intensely managed area of beef cattle production? A. Reproduction B. Calf management C. Nutrition D. Facilities
Nutrition
Breeding stock can receive implants.
A. True
B. False
False
It is much easier and less expensive to prevent sickness than to treat it.
A. True
B. False
True
Cattle have a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or their own safety zone. A. Fear zone B. Bubble C. Sight zone D. Flight zone
Flight zone
What are some programs feedlot managers should establish to prevent water
and air pollution?
A. Control rainfall runoff
B. Manage solid manure
C. Maintain the feedlot surface
C. Operate wastewater handling facilities
E. All of the above
All of the above
Grazing operations have more runoff than feedlots.
A. True
B. False
False
Runoff is collected in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Rivers B. Lakes C. Swimming pools D. Holding ponds
holding ponds (lagoons)
Which of the following is a way solid manure can be disposed of? A. By applying it to crop land B. By letting it blow away C. By letting it runoff in water D. All of the above
By applying it to crop land
How is dust controlled in feedlots? A. By letting it blow away B. By not exciting the cattle C. By watering feedlot surfaces D. None of the above
By watering feedlot surfaces
What is the purpose of providing mounds in feedlot pens?
A. Providing a dry place for cattle to stand
B. Help improve drainage
C. Provide a windbreak
D. All of the above
all of the above
What is an advantage of castration? A. Increased performance and gain B. Decreased performance and gain C. An unhappy steer D. None of the above
increased performance and gain
In which part of the body are cattle implanted? A. Tail B. Flank C. Ear D. Neck
Ear
At what age should a calf be weaned? A. One year of age B. Eight to ten months C. Two to four months D. Three to four weeks
8-10 months
Which is a top priority when evaluating breeding cattle? A. Muscling B. Balance C. Structural correctness D. Breed characteristics
structural correctness
Which is the best body condition score for breeding cattle and other species of livestock? A. Two B. Five C. Nine D. All of the above
5
Trouble giving birth is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Gestation B. Parturition C. Dystocia D. Estrus
Dystocia
What causes wheat pasture poisoning in cattle? A. Protein deficiency B. Water deficiency C. Magnesium deficiency D. Calcium deficiency
magnesium deficiency
Cattle facilities should have what functions? A. Safety B. Ease to people C. Control of cattle D. All of the above
all of the above
Which type of fencing is used in cattle operations? A. Electric wire B. Barbed wire C. Solid fencing D. All of the above
all of the above
Seedstock producers are cow/calf producers who produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for purebred or commercial operations. A. Calves B. Slaughter cattle C. Breeding stock D. Beef
breeding stock
What is the purpose of a feedlot? A. Feed and fatten cattle B. Breed cattle C. Calf management D. All of the above
feed and fatten cattle
Stocker operations purchase weanling calves from cow/calf producers and feed them out on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Grain B. Pasture land C. Hay D. Corn
pasture land
What is the final segment of the beef industry? A. Cow/calf B. Consumer C. Retailer D. Processor
consumer
What operation uses purebred breeding stock in crossbreeding programs to produce commercial offspring? A. Stocker B. Seedstock C. Feedlot D. Cow/calf
Cow/calf
According to the presentation, inactivated vaccines are typically given in how many doses? A. One B. Two C. Six D. Eight
two
According to the presentation, when giving a subcutaneous injection how long should the needle be? A. 1/2 to 3/4 of an inch B. 1 inch C. 1 to 1 1/2 inch D. 3/4 to 1 inch
1 inch
Which of the following describes the term “gauge”? A. Length of the needle B. Consistency of the injection C. Diameter of the needle D. Injection type
Diameter of the needle
According to the presentation, which disease affects sheep and goats? A. Atrophic Rhinitis B. Bluetongue C. Tuberculosis D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
Bluetongue
Barrels can be measured in which of the following units? A. dL (deciliter) B. cc (cubic centimeters) C. cm (centimeters) D. vol (volume)
CC
Which of the following diseases causes facial malformation? A. Tetanus B. Atrophic Rhinitis C. Tuberculosis D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
Atrophic Rhinitis
According to the presentation, which of the following is NOT listed as a use for intravenous injections? A. Fluids B. Electrolytes C. Medicines D. Vaccines
Vaccines
Which of the following is NOT included in the indication statement?
A. Amount of vaccination or medication to give
B. Frequency a vaccination or medication is given
C. Which vaccinations or medications are approved for each species
D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system
D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system
. A decrease in which of the following molecules decreases the effectiveness of a vaccination or medication? A. Fat molecules B. Protein molecules C. Carbohydrate molecules D. Antigen molecules
Protein molecules
Modified-live vaccines come in how many vials? A. One vial B. Two vials C. Three vials D. Four vials
two vials
Which type of vaccine is created from a new combination of DNA? A. Subunit B. Modified-live C. Inactivated D. Killed
Subunit
Which type of vaccine has been altered with heat or chemicals? A. Modified-live B. Subunit C. Inactivated D. Initial
Inactivated
Which of the following types of vaccines can multiply but cannot produce a disease? A. Inactivated B. Subunit C. Modified-live D. Live
Modified Live
According to the segment, why are newborn animals NOT vaccinated when they
are born?
A. There are no vaccines for newborn animals
B. Vaccines are not safe for newborn animals
C. Animals are not vaccinated unless they are showing signs of illness
D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working
D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working
Which type of injection uses the “tenting” method? A. Intramammary B. Subcutaneous C. Intravenous D. Intramuscular
Sub Q
In which type of injection is it acceptable for blood to appear in the syringe before administering the injection? A. Subcutaneous B. Intramuscular C. Intravenous D. Intramammary
Intraveneous
Which of the following is NOT an injection site listed in the segment for giving intramuscular injections to cattle? A. Pectoral muscle B. Thigh muscle C. Gluteal muscle D. Neck muscle
Pectoral muscle
According to the segment, where is the jugular groove located?
A. Between the esophagus and trachea
B. Between the esophagus and neck muscles
C. In front of the neck muscles
D. Between the trachea and neck muscles
Between the trachea and neck muscles
According to the segment, when giving an intramuscular injection, what gauge needle should be used? A. 16 to 18 B. 20 to 21 C. 14 to 16 D. 18 to 20
16-18
According to the segment, which of the following should be closely monitored for withdrawal periods? A. Vaccines B. Antibiotics C. Wormers D. Nutritional supplements
Antibiotics
Which of the following devices pushes the vaccination solution or medication through the needle and into the animal? A. Barrel B. Needle C. Syringe D. Plunger
Plunger
According to the segment, how often should an individual change needles when worming cattle? A. Every 10 cows B. Every 5 cows C. Every 15 cows D. Every cow
Every 10 cows (needle gets really full by then)
Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning improper injection
techniques?
A. The animal will have partial immunity
B. Drug residues could be left in food-producing animals
C. The animal could suffer from nerve damage
D. The individual administering the injection could unintentionally be
injected
A. The animal will have partial immunity
At what temperature should vaccinations be stored? A. 40° to 45°F (4° to 7°C) B. 32° to 40°F (0° to 4°C) C. 30° to 35°F (1° to 2°C) D. 35° to 45°F (2° to 7°C)
35 to 45 degrees
According to the presentation, what could performing procedures on ill animals cause?
A. There will be no effect on the animals
B. The procedure will be harder to complete
C. The procedure will require additional sedation
D. The risks associated with the procedure increase
The risks associated with the procedure increase
Which procedure increases feed efficiency? A. Dehorning B. Castration C. Teeth clipping D. Lancing
Castration
According to the presentation, tail docking is primarily performed on which animals? A. Cattle and sheep B. Sheep and goats C. Sheep and swine D. Cattle and swine
Sheep and swine
According to the presentation, when should piglets’ teeth be clipped?
A. Within the first week of life
B. Within 24 hours after birth
C. Between 48 and 72 hours after birth
D. Teeth only need to be clipped if the piglets are fighting
Within the first 24 hours after birth
What procedure uses hydrotherapy to help heal wounds? A. Dehorning B. Lancing C. Tail docking D. Castrating
Lancing (Hydrotherapy is using water to wash out the open cut from the lancing)
Which method of castration is the most reliable? A. Burdizzo B. Surgical C. Banding D. All are equally effective
Surgical
Which species can only be castrated surgically? A. Swine B. Cattle C. Sheep D. Goats
Swine
After castrating an animal using a burdizzo, how long does it take for the testicles to shrivel? A. Two to three weeks B. Four to six weeks C. Six to eight weeks D. One to two weeks
4-6 weeks
Which of the following is NOT a type of hot iron used for dehorning? A. Furnace heated B. 10-volt battery operated C. 12-volt battery operated D. 120-volt electric
120-volt electric
If used incorrectly, which tool could open the frontal sinus? A. Caustic paste B. Burdizzo C. Cup or scoop dehorner D. Spoon or tube dehorner
Cup or scoop dehorner
Teeth clipping is necessary in what species? A. Cattle B. Swine C. Sheep D. Goat
Swine
What could be a result of docking an animal’s tail too short?
A. It does not matter how short the tail is
B. Price reduction at market
C. Fly strike
D. Rectal prolapses
Rectal prolapses
How far from the base of the tail should a pig’s tail be docked? A. 1 to 2 inches B. 1 inch C. 2 to 2 1/2 inches D. 1/2 to 1 inch
1/2 to 1 inch
According to the segment, which of the following tools is NOT used for lancing? A. Needle B. Knife C. Razor blade D. Scalpel
Needle (Lancing is cutting open an abscess)
Which tool is commonly used to dock lamb tails? A. Elastrator B. Tail docker C. Tooth clippers D. Emasculator
Elastrator (think rubber bands (elastic))
When should disinfectants be used for surgery? A. After the procedure B. Before and after the procedure C. During the procedure D. Before the procedure
Before and after the procedure
Which of the following terms refers to only one testicle being dropped into the scrotum? A. Inguinal hernia B. Bilateral cryptorchidism C. Unilateral cryptorchidism D. Scrotal hernia
Unilateral cryptorchidism
When are boars castrated? A. Between two and 21 days of age B. After three months of age C. Between four and 14 days of age D. At one month of age
Between 4 and 14 days
According to the segment, which of the following methods of castration has the highest risk of maggot infestation? A. Elastic bands B. Burdizzo C. Emasculator D. Surgical
Elastic bands (rotting skin draws maggots)
Which of the following methods of castration allows the spermatic cord to be cut to remove it from the body? A. Elastrator B. Burdizzo C. Emasculator D. Lancing
Emasculator
According to the segment, which tool is used for dehorning weaned animals? A. Chemical pastes B. Scoop dehorners C. Hot iron D. Horn clippers
scoop dehorners
What is analgesia? A. Inability to be numb B. A sedative C. Inability to feel pain D. A surgical tool
Inability to feel pain
Which of the following is NOT a reason to dehorn animals? A. Cosmetic appeal B. Decrease carcass bruising C. Increase space at feed trough D. Increase effective handling
Cosmetic appeal
Which of the following refers to the term “caustic”? A. A chemical paste B. Having the ability to destroy tissue C. Making an incision D. Removing horns
Having the ability to destroy tissue
Which of the following dehorning methods should NOT be performed during fly season? A. Chemical paste B. Hot iron C. Emasculator D. Scoop
Scoop
Which of the following parasites has a spherical shape? A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Spirilli D. Bacci
Cocci
Which of the following systems protects and supports the body tissues and organs? A. Endocrine B. Skeletal C. Circulatory D. Integumentary
Skeletal
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders? A. Respiratory system B. Integumentary system C. Immune system D. Endocrine system
Immune System
Which of the following systems pumps and delivers blood to organs throughout the body? A. Endocrine system B. Circulatory system C. Respiratory system D. Digestive system
Circulatory System
Which type of medication is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections? A. Penicillin B. Antibiotics C. Anthelmintics D. Aspirin
Anthelmintics
Which of the following parasites may grow up to 10 to 12 feet long? A. Ringworm B. Lungworm C. Roundworm D. Tapeworm
Tapeworm
Which of the following parasites are also known as ascarids? A. Whipworm B. Roundworm C. Liver fluke D. Lungworm
roundworms
Which of the following parasites burrow holes through the intestinal wall and then goes to lungs where they mature? A. Lungworms B. Liver flukes C. Strongyles D. Pinworms
Lungworms
Which of the following parasites larvae burrow holes into arteries and internal organs? A. Lungworms B. Liver flukes C. Strongyles D. Pinworms
Strongyles
Which of the following parasites lay eggs around the rectum of horses? A. Lungworm B. Pinworm C. Whipworm D. Roundworm
Pinworms (The pin bones are next to the rectum hense why they call them pinworms)
Which of the following parasites eggs hatch and migrate into nasal chambers and sinuses? A. Nasal bots B. Flies C. Mites D. Lice
nasal bots
Which of the following parasites lays eggs on the hair of the rear legs on animals? A. Bots B. Mites C. Lice D. Heel flies
Heel flies
Which of the following parasites can cause skin problems such as scabies, scabs, mange or barn itch? A. Lice B. Mites C. Flies D. Horse bots
mites
Which of the following parasites are small arachnids which feed on the blood of animals? A. Lice B. Mites C. Ticks D. Flies
Ticks
Which of the following parasites life cycles includes adults laying and gluing eggs to hair follicles, then eggs hatch in one to two weeks and become adults in two to four weeks? A. Mites B. Ticks C. Flies D. Lice
Lice
Which of the following parasites glue onto the mouths of horses when rubbed or bitten and enter the stomach and attach to the wall? A. Horse bots B. Nasal bots C. Lice D. Heel flies
Horse bots
Which of the following are also known as cattle grubs? A. Lice B. Mites C. Ticks D. Heel flies
heel flies
Which of the following parasites adults lay eggs on skin of an animal, then hatch, feed on the skin and reach adult stage in about 12 days? A. Lice B. Ticks C. Flies D. Mites
Mites
Which of the following parasites completes their life cycle by mating, engorging from feeding, then dropping to the ground to lay eggs in the environment? A. Lice B. Mites C. Ticks D. Roundworms
ticks
Which of the following parasites larva must attach to a snail to complete their life cycle and then encyst on water plants eaten by livestock? A. Lungworms B. Liver flukes C. Strongyles D. Pinworms
Liver flukes (Flukes live in water)
Which of the following parasites has segments containing eggs which break off and are passed with feces, then the eggs are eaten by mites and develop until eaten by a major host? A. Tapeworms B. Lungworms C. Roundworms D. Liver flukes
tapeworm
Which of the following parasites adults live in the cecum where they lay eggs to be passed with feces then eggs are eaten and hatch? A. Pinworms B. Whipworms C. Tapeworms D. Lungworms
Whipworm
Which of the following parasites are also known as blood worms? A. Whipworms B. Liver flukes C. Strongyles D. Roundworms
Strongyles
Which body system produces hormones which regulate metabolism? A. Immune system B. Respiratory system C. Digestive system D. Endocrine system
Endocrine system
Which of the following digestive systems is also known as polygastric? A. Ruminant B. Non-ruminant C. Monogastric D. Hindgut fermenter
ruminant
Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Control birthing B. Ovulation sequence C. Selective mating D. Estrus synchronization E. None of the above
Estrus synchronization
CIDR stands for\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Compound Implant Does Recipient B. Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release C. Controlled Intramuscular Does Release D. Compound Implant Drug Recipient
Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release
Producers use a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to determine ovulation in sheep and goats. A. Scalpel B. Stethoscope C. Ultrasound D. Laparoscope E. Both C and D
ultrasound and laparoscope
Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method in her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry? A. Artificial insemination B. Embryo transfer C. Natural selection D. Cloning E. Both B and C
Artificial Insemination
When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. 38°C (100°F) B. 35°F (2°C) C. 45°F (7°C) D. 43°C (109°F)
100 degrees F
Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering? A. Appearance B. Concentration C. Morphology D. Motility E. All of the above
All of the Above
Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle? A. Gloved-hand technique B. Artificial insemination C. Electroejaculation D. All of the above E. None of the above
Electroejaculation
How is artificial insemination performed on horses? A. Surgically B. Microscopically C. Both A and B D. Vaginally E. None of the above
Vaginally
The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Incubation B. Electrofusion C. Electroporation D. Cell manipulation E. Hybridoma
Electrofusion
Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?
A. Cloning
B. Artificial insemination
C. Embryo transfer
D. All technologies utilize gene banking
E. None of the above
cloning
Which of the following pathogens can NOT reproduce without a host and consists of DNA and RNA? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Protozoa
Viruses
Which of the following pathogens lives in soil, air, water and plants? A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Viruses D. Fungi
Fungi
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders? A. Respiratory system B. Integumentary system C. Immune system D. Endocrine system
Immune System
Which of the following diseases is also known as gastritis? A. Hardware disease B. White muscle disease C. Milk fever D. Lactic acidosis
Hardware disease
Which of the following diseases is a result of a selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency? A. Milk fever B. Lactic acidosis C. White muscle disease D. Enterotoxemia
White muscle disease
Which of the following is also known as hypocalcemia? A. Lactic acidosis B. Colic C. Milk fever D. Overeating disease
Milk Fever (Not having enough calcium)
Which of the following is the general term used for abdominal pain? A. Colic B. Milk fever C. White muscle disease D. Enterotoxemia
colic
Which of the following is a serious and often fatal metabolic disorder caused by low levels of magnesium in the blood? A. Colic B. Grass tetany C. Milk fever D. Bloat
Grass Tetany (Make sure you have a Magnesium salt block sitting out for the cows in the spring.)
Which of the following is an incurable wasting disease of cattle? A. Foot rot B. Black leg C. Johne’s disease D. Colic
Johne’s disease
Zinc sulfate or copper sulfate footbaths are used to treat which of the following diseases? A. Johne’s disease B. Entertoxemia C. Black leg D. Foot rot
Foot rot
Which of the following diseases damages the cornea and conjunctiva? A. Erysipelas B. Pinkeye C. Strangles D. Vibriosis
pinkeye
Which of the following diseases is also known as “bangs disease”? A. Foot rot B. Leptospirosis C. Brucellosis D. Erysipelas
Brucellosis
Which of the following is one of the most common diseases in cattle and affects the respiratory tract? A. Bovine respiratory disease B. Johne’s disease C. Strangles D. Brucellosis
Bovine respiratory Disease (BVR)
Which of the following diseases affects the fetus of a pregnant sow and often times causes fetus mummification? A. Sore mouth B. Blue tongue C. Porcine parvovirus D. Porcine circovirus
Porcine Parvovirus
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by blood feeding flies and contact with fomites? A. Avian influenza B. Sore mouth C. Blue tongue D. Bovine virus diarrhea
Bovine virus diarrhea (BVD)
Which of the following diseases causes blisters in the mouth and excessive salivation? A. Bluetongue B. Porcine circovirus C. Foot and mouth disease D. Sore mouth
Foot and mouth disease
Which of the following diseases has two different virus strains? A. Porcine circovirus B. Bluetongue C. Foot and mouth disease D. Sore mouth
Porcine circovirus
Which of the following causes vesicles to appear on lips, gums and tongue, causing redness or swelling? A. Bluetongue B. Porcine circovirus C. Sore mouth D. Avian influenza
sore mouth
Which of the following is also known as club lamb fungus? A. Mange B. Ringworm C. Ascaris D. Facial eczema
Ringworm
Which of the following is a type of sunburn? A. Mange B. Ringworm C. Ostertagious D. Facial eczema
Facial eczema
Which of the following parasites causes scabs, lesions and hair loss? A. Coccidiosis B. Mange C. Ascaris D. Ostertagious
mange
Which of the following is also known as wire worm? A. Haemonchus contortus B. Coccidiosis C. Ostertagious D. Ascaris
Haemonchus contortus
Which of the following parasites is the principal worm parasite of beef and dairy
cattle and attacks the lining of the abomasum?
A. Ascaris
B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Ostertagious
D. Coccidiosis
Ostertagious
Which of the following diseases is also known as hairlessness? A. Cryptorchidism B. Hypotrichosis C. Mulefoot D. Porcine stress syndrome
Hypotrichosis
Which of the following diseases occurs when two toes are joined together to create only one toe? A. Mulefoot B. Spider lamb syndrome C. HYPP D. Hypotrichosis
Mulefoot
Which of the following diseases has symptoms which include infertility and failure to produce sperm? A. Cryptorchidism B. Hypotrichosis C. Mulefoot D. Porcine stress syndrome
Cryptorchidism
Which of the following is a muscle disease found in Quarter Horses? A. Hypotrichosis B. Spider lamb syndrome C. Mulefoot D. HYPP
HYPP
Which of the following diseases cause muscle and tail tremors, reddened skin and increased body temperature in pigs? A. Spider lamb syndrome B. Mulefoot C. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis D. Porcine stress syndrome
Porcine Stress Syndrome
Which of the following CANNOT cause disease? A. Fungi B. Viruses C. Vitamins D. Parasites
Vitamins
Nutrient deficiencies are NOT caused by a lack of which of the following? A. Liquids B. Vitamins C. Minerals D. Protein
Liquids
A cocci bacterium is shaped like which of the following? A. Rod B. Spiral C. Spherical D. Circular
Spherical
Which of the following is the study of fungi? A. Organism B. Mycology C. Polypore D. Mushroom
Mycology
Which disease is caused by a spore forming bacterium? A. Blackleg B. Lactic acidosis C. Foot and mouth disease D. Bovine virus diarrhea
Blackleg
Which of the following is a disease which can only be transmitted through insects? A. Blackleg B. Ringworm C. Bluetongue D. Foot rot
Bluetongue (mosquitos)
Foot rot is caused by which of the following? A. Anaerobic bacteria B. Proper management C. Soil fungus D. Poor digestive health
Anaerobic bacteria
Which of the following is a common symptom among viral diseases? A. Fever B. Frequent urination C. Hyperactivity D. Vomiting
Fever
Which of the following is NOT a step when designing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Choosing offspring
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents
Choosing offspring
For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable? A. Days to 250 and Backfat B. Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area C. Backfat and Pounds of Lean D. Pounds of Lean and Days to 250
Days to 250 and Backfat
Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program? A. Grading up B. Visual selection C. Pedigree D. Expected Progeny Differences
Grading Up
Which of the following is NOT a result of inbreeding?
A. Surfacing of deleterious gene
B. increase uniformity
C. Noticeable improvement of fourth generation
D. Reduction in performance
Noticeable improvement of fourth generation
Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds? A. Grading up B. Crossbreeding C. Inbreeding D. Linebreeding
Crossbreeding
What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is? A. Inbreeding coefficient B. Inbreeding measurement C. Inbred ratio D. Inbreeding results
Inbreeding coefficient
What is the value of an animal as a parent? A. Grading up B. Breeding value C. Hybrid vigor D. Inbreeding coefficient
Breeding Value
Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females? A. Inbreeding B. Linebreeding C. Cross breeding D. Grading up
Grading Up
The composite breeding system combines desirable traits of how many breeds of cattle?
A. One
B. Two
C. Two or more
D. There is no such thing as a composite breeding system
Two or more
Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring? A. Inbreeding coefficient B. Inbreeding measurement C. Inbred ratio D. Inbreeding results
Inbreeding coefficient
How does the modified static system differ from the static system? A. Produces replacement females B. Produces replacement males C. Produces terminal sires D. Produces terminal dams
produces replacement females
In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B? A. First generation; Breed B B. Second generation; Breed A C. Third generation; Breed B D. Fourth generation; Breed A
2nd generation
In a static crossbreeding system, which of the following is true regarding replacement females?
A. Purchased or produced in a separate population
B. Purchased or produced in same operation
C. Produced in a rotational crossbreeding system
D. Purchased from a composite breeding system
Purchased or produced in a separate population
Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of embryo transfer?
A. Greater use of genetically superior females
B. Decreases time and supervision of female herd
C. Fast way to acquire offspring for progeny testing
D. Allow females with long gestation periods to meet their genetic
material
Decreases time and supervision of female herd
Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following? A. Commercial breeders B. Purebred breeders C. Inbreeding breeders D. Small operations
Commercial breeders (Having a bull for your cows in the pasture)
What is the first step in the process of AI? A. Select the bull B. Detect when female is in heat C. Introduce semen into uterus D. Collect semen
Select the bull
What is the process by which semen from the male is placed in the reproduction tract of the female through methods other than natural service? A. Hand mating B. Embryo transfer C. Stud mating D. Artificial insemination
Artificial insemination
Which mating system results in maximum breeding by a superior male? A. Pen mating B. Stud mating C. Hand mating D. Embryo transfer
stud mating
What is the first step in developing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Determining measurement
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents
setting goals
What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value? A. Pure breeding B. Impure breeding C. Crossbreeding D. Multi-breeding
Crossbreeding
In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased
from or produced in a separate environment?
A. Rotational crossbreeding system
B. Static crossbreeding system
C. Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system
D. Modified static crossbreeding system
Static crossbreeding system
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?
A. Decrease spread of disease
B. Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire
C. Identifies the sire for fertility
D. Increases the number of sires needed
Increases the number of sires needed
What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals? A. Inbreeding B. Crossbreeding C. Pure breeding D. Multi-breeding
Inbreeding
Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?
A. Sire selection
B. Dam selection
C. Selection of both parents is equally important
D. Selection of the parents is not important
Sire selection
If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement? A. Second generation B. Third generation C. Fourth generation D. Fifth generation
4th generation
What is hybrid vigor?
A. Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds
B. The value of an animal as a parent
C. The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam
D. The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor
Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds
What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry? A. Inbreeding and linebreeding B. Crossbreeding and inbreeding C. Crossbreeding and linebreeding D. Half breeding and full breeding
inbreeding and linebreeding
What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent? A. Artificial breeding B. Stud mating C. Pen mating D. Hand mating
hand mating
What is meiosis called in males? A. Mitosis B. Oogenesis C. Spermatogenesis D. Homologous
Spermatogenesis
What is meiosis called in females? A. Mitosis B. Oogenesis C. Spermatogenesis D. Homologous
Oogenesis
What are the products of meiosis in females?
A. One ovum and two or three polar bodies
B. Two ova and two or three polar bodies
C. One ovum and three or four polar bodies
D. Two ovum and three or four polar bodies
One ovum and two or three polar bodies
What are the products of meiosis in males? A. Eight functional haploid cells B. Four functional haploid cells C. Two functional haploid cells D. One functional haploid cell
Four functional haploid cells
The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes is known as which of the following? A. DNA B. Crossing over C. RNA D. Allele
Crossing over
The sex of an animal is determined at fertilization.
A. True
B. False
True
In mammals, the male carries a set of identical chromosomes for sex
determination.
A. True
B. False
False
After meiosis, half of the sperm and half of the eggs carry the Y chromosome.
A. True
B. False
False
If a lamb’s chromosomes are XY, then it will be a male.
A. True
B. False
True
If a chicken’s chromosomes are ZW, then it will be a female?
A. True
B. False
True
The functions of genes are to reproduce themselves and provide codes for protein synthesis.
A. True
B. False
True
Genes are parts of the chromosomes which control the development of certain characteristics.
A. True
B. False
True
DNA is composed of deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and six nitrogen bases.
A. True
B. False
False (4 nitrogen bases)
The structure formed by deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and a nitrogen base is called which of the following? A. Nucleotide B. Ribosome C. Amino acid D. Helix
nucleotide
Which of the following is NOT one of the nitrogen bases found in DNA? A. Guanine B. Thymine C. Adenine D. Lysine
Lysine
In the pairing of the nitrogen bases, which base always pairs with cytosine? A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Thymine D. Pyrimidine
Guanine
In RNA, the nitrogen base thymine is replaced by which of the following bases? A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. Uracil
Uracil
Which of the following is a type of RNA which carries the code for protein synthesis to the cytoplasm? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Sender RNA
Messenger RNA
What is the structure which combines amino acids to form proteins? A. Nucleus B. Vesicle C. Ribosome D. Vacuole
Ribosome
Which of the following is a type of RNA which reads the code and carries amino acids through the cytoplasm? A. Messenger RNA B. Ribosomal RNA C. Transfer RNA D. Sender RNA
Transfer RNA
Genetics makes it possible for organisms to pass their characteristics on to their offspring.
A. True
B. False
True
Genotype and phenotype are essentially the same.
A. True
B. False
False
What is the genetic makeup of an organism called? A. Phenotype B. Genotype C. Heredity D. Homologous
Genotype
Which of the following is the actual physical appearance of an organism? A. Phenotype B. Genotype C. Heredity D. Homologous
Phenotype (Physical)
Who is the man known to be responsible for the five basic rules of genetics? A. Oliver Mendel B. Gregor Mendel C. Gregor Mandela D. Ivan Pavlov
Gregor Mendel
In what molecule are genes located? A. DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D. Chromosomes
DNA
Which of the following is the type of cell division by which somatic cells divide? A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Oogenesis D. Spermatogenesis
mitosis
Which of the following refers to the number of chromosomes in a sex cell which is half of the original number? A. Diploid B. Haploid C. Gametes D. Chromatin
Haploid
In meiosis, crossing over of chromosomes results in a healthy population because of which of the following? A. Prophase B. Genetic variability C. Mitosis D. Homologous chromosomes
Genetic variability
Which of the following chromosome pairings would a normal female duck have? A. XY B. XX C. ZW D. ZZ
ZW
The DNA molecule is usually found in what form? A. Double helix B. Single strand C. Hexagon D. Nucleotide
Double helix
Which of the following nitrogen bases is NOT found in RNA? A. Uracil B. Thymine C. Adenine D. Guanine
Thymine
In what structure are proteins produced? A. Ribosome B. Nucleus C. DNA molecule D. Cell wall
Ribosomes
Which of the following is determined by both genetics and environment? A. Genotype B. Genetic variability C. Phenotype D. Oogenesis
phenotype
