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Animal and Vet Science > Animal Science > Flashcards

Animal Science Flashcards

To study for Industry Certification.

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

The process of giving birth to an animal is called…

A

Parturition

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2
Q

What should newborn mammals consume immediately after birth?

A

Colostrum

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3
Q 
A gestation period is the length of time from...
A.  Insemination to birth
B.  Insemination to fertilization
C.  Conception to birth
D.  Birth to one year of age
A

Conception to birth

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4
Q 
Artificial insemination is the primary breeding method used with...
A.  Turkeys
B.  Pigs
C.  Dairy Cows
D.  All of the above
A

Turkeys, pigs, and dairy cows (All of the above)

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5
Q

A cow has a gestation period of approximately how many days?

A

283 days

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6
Q 
Bos indicus cattle are characterized by...
A.  Long ears
B.  Excess dewlap
C.  A humped-neck
D.  All of the above
A

All of the above

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7
Q

A castrated bull is called a…

A

Steer

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8
Q

Cattle have how many compartments in their stomachs?

A

Four

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9
Q

Female cattle that have not calved are called…

A

Heifers

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10
Q

Cattle from feedyards are taken to a processing plant when they reach an average weight of…

A

1,100-1,200 pounds

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11
Q 
Horses are used for...
A.  Recreational riding
B.  Racing
C.  Ranching operations
D.  All of the above
A

All of the above

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12
Q

A castrated male horse is called a…

A

Gelding

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13
Q

An uncastrated male horse, at least four years of age, is called a…

A

Stallion

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14
Q

The process of a mare giving birth to a foal is called…

A

Foaling

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15
Q

A female horse, at least four years of age, is called a…

A

Mare

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16
Q 
Mohair comes from the...
A.  Kashmir goat
B.  Boer goat
C.  Angora goat
D.  Nubian goat
A

Angora goat

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17
Q

A goat known for its meat production is the…

A

Boer goat

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18
Q

A sheep younger than one year of age is a…

A

Lamb

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19
Q

A castrated male goat is a…

A

Wether

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20
Q

Lanolin is produced from which part of the sheep?

A

The wool

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21
Q 
The average litter size for swine is...
A.  1-3 piglets
B.  2-5 piglets
C.  6-8 piglets
D.  9-12 piglets
A

9-12 piglets

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22
Q

A female pig that has not had a litter of piglets is a…

A

Gilt

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23
Q

What is the term used when a sow or gilt gives birth to a litter of piglets?

A

Farrowing

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24
Q 
A hog's internal organs closely resemble those of a 
A.  Human
B.  Goat
C.  Sheet
D.  Both B and C
A

Human

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25
Q 
Hogs are taken to the processing plant when they reach how many months of age?
A.  3-4 months
B.  4-6 months
C.  9 months
D.  12 months
A

4-6 months

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26
Q 
Poultry refers to bird species such as
A.  Chickens
B.  Turkeys
C.  Ducks and geese
D.  All of the above
A

All of the above

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27
Q 
A chicken between the ages of 6-8 weeks is a...
A.  Pullet
B.  Broiler or fryer
C.  Hen
D.  Chick
A

Broiler or fryer

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28
Q 
The primary by-product from chickens is...
A.  Blood
B.  Bones
C.  Variety Meats
D.  Feathers
A

Feathers

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29
Q 
A male chicken, at least eight months of age, is a...
A.  Rooster or cock
B.  Capon
C.  Pullet
D.  Broiler or Fryer
A

Rooster or Cock

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30
Q

How an animal gathers its food is known as…

A

Prehension

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31
Q

What is the difference in the mouth structure of cattle, sheep and goats compared to horses?
A. there is no difference
B. horses do not have upper incisors
C. cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors
D. cattle, sheep and goats do not have a true tongue

A

C. Cattle, sheep and goats have a dental pad instead of upper incisors

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32
Q

What is the horse’s organ of prehension?

A

lips

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33
Q

What is the chicken’s organ of prehension?

A

beak

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34
Q

What is a human’s organ of prehension?

A

hand

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35
Q

What is colic?
A. An enzyme that helps digest food
B. A digestive disorder
C. A medication given to ease abdominal pain
D. An additive included in most animal feed

A

A digestive disorder

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36
Q 
In horses, most digestive disturbances result from...
A.  underfeeding
B.  overfeeding grains
C.  too much water
D.  overchewing hay
A

Overfeeding grains

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37
Q

What type of digestive systems do cattle, sheep and goats have?

A

ruminant

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38
Q

What is a part of a young ruminants stomach that allows milk to go straight from the rumen to the abomasum to be digested?

A

Reticular Groove

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39
Q 
What are two important structures of a horse's digestive system?
A.  stomach
B.  reticulum
C.  proximal colon
D.  a and c
E.  b and c
A

stomach and proximal colon

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40
Q 
What is the cecum?
A.  A blind sack
B.  A site of microbial digestion
C.  A thin-walled structure
D.  All of the above
A

All of the above

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41
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to the rear of an animal?
A.  Anterior
B.  Posterior
C.  Dorsal
D.  Ventral
A

Posterior

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42
Q 
What is the chicken's true stomach?
A.  gizzard
B.  proventriculus
C.  crop
D.  cloaca
A

proventriculus

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43
Q 
Anterior refers to what part of an animal's body?
A.  rear
B.  belly
C.  head
D.  back
A

head

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44
Q

How many ceca do chickens have?

A

2

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45
Q

The cecum is comparable to what human organ?

A

appendix

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46
Q 
Hairballs are...
A.  undesirable
B.  found in rumens
C.  comprised mainly of hair
D.  all of the above
A

all of the above

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47
Q 
What is the function of the esophagus in ruminants?
A.  carry material down
B.  carry material back up
C.  none of the above
D.  a and b
A

to carry material down and back up (regurgitation)

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48
Q 
Material leaving the reticulum would enter into what structure?
A.  abomasum
B.  omasum
C.  small intestine
D.  large intestine
A

omasum

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49
Q 
What causes hairballs?
A.  certain feeds
B.  no one knows
C.  animals are born with them
D.  animals licking themselves
A

animals licking themselves

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50
Q 
The integrated steps involved in assimilating food by the animal for use in tissue repair, growth and normal function is...
A.  nutrition
B.  nutrients
C.  a diet
D.  a ration
A

nutrition

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51
Q

A mixture of feedstuffs used to supply nutrition to an animal is…

a. a diet
b. feed
c. food
d. a ration

A

a diet

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52
Q

Nutrients consumed by humans in breads and vegetables are…

a. feed
b. food
c. a diet
d. a ration

A

food

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53
Q

Food for animal is called…

A

feed

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54
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a monogastric?
A.  steer
B.  horse
C.  lamb
D.  deer
A

horse

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55
Q 
The most important nutrient is...
A.  protein
B.  water
C.  fat or oil
D.  carbohydrates
A

water

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56
Q

For every pound of feed consumed by the animal…
A. 2-5 pounds of water will be consumed
B. 6-9 pounds of water will be consumed
C. 10-14 pound of water will be consumed
D. 15-18 pounds of water will be consumed

A

2-5 pounds

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57
Q

Water can be provided to animals by…

a. bowl waterers
b. automatic waterers
c. nipple waterers
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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58
Q

What is fed to provide amino acids, but generally not used to provide energy?

a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. fats
d. nutrients

A

protein

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59
Q

Minerals can be divided into…

a. 1 group
b. 2 groups
c. 3 groups
d. 4 groups

A

2 groups

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60
Q

Soybean meal and cottonseed meal are usually fed to provide…

a. fat
b. carbohydrates
c. protein
d. oil

A

protein

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61
Q

The most common and abundant cereal grain is…

a. wheat
b. corn
c. rye
d. barley

A

corn

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62
Q

The crude protein content of corn is…

a. 4-6%
b. 8-10%
c. 14-16%
d. 17-20%

A

8-10%

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63
Q

Triticale is a cross between…

a. rye and wheat
b. rye and corn
c. wheat and corn
d. wheat and barley

A

rye and wheat (It’s a cover crop like rye and wheat so they crossed the two and triticale is what was a result)

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64
Q

The crude protein of grain sorghum is…

a. 4-6%
b. 8-12%
c. 13-15%
d. 16-20%

A

8-12%

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65
Q

Pelleting, hammermilling, rollermilling and steam flaking are examples of…

a. processing
b. extrusion
c. rations
d. diets

A

processing

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66
Q

The composition of the feed and the manufacturers location…

a. would not be listed anywhere
b. would be listed on the feed tag
c. would be listed on the sack
d. would be listed at the store

A

on the feed tag

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67
Q

Extrusion is used in the manufacturing of feed for…

a. horses
b. cattle
c. dogs and cats
d. sheep

A

dogs and cats

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68
Q

Processing…

a. improves nutrient availability
b. is not commonly used for livestock feed
c. saves time in preparing rations
d. decreases the nutrient availability

A

improves nutrient availability

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69
Q

Feed can be provided to the animal through…

a. feeders
b. lick tanks
c. range cubes
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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70
Q

T/F Genetics is the science of heredity and variation.

A

true

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71
Q

T/F Genetics has a much greater effect on animals than their environment.

A

false

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72
Q

T/F When crossbred pea plants are self-pollinated, the offspring show a three short to one tall ration.

A

false

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73
Q

T/F Each parent contributes one gamete or sex cell to each of its offspring.

A

true

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74
Q

T/F All animals have the same number of chromosomes.

A

false

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75
Q

Which of the following is essential to cell functions and contains nuclear sap from which chromosomes arise?

a. chromatin
b. nucleus
c. gametes
d. allele

A

nucleus

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76
Q

Which of the following is a complex solution outside the cell nucleus contained by a cell membrane?

a. allele
b. cytoplasm
c. gametes
d. chromatin

A

cytoplasm

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77
Q

What is the material found in the nucleus which forms chromosomes?

a. chromatin
b. nuclear pores
c. nuclear envelope
d. nuclear lamina

A

chromatin

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78
Q

Which of the following is the molecule in which genes are located?

a. RNA
b. DNA
c. nucleotide
d. nucleus

A

DNA

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79
Q

Which of the following types of cell division results in two identical daughter nuclei?

a. meiosis
b. oogenesis
c. mitosis
d. spermatogenesis

A

mitosis

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80
Q

T/F Mitosis is defined as the division of a sex cell and results in four identical daughter cells.

A

false

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81
Q

T/F The letter “G” in G1 and G2 stands for “genetic.”

A

false

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82
Q

Which of the following is NOT a phase of cell division?

a. G1
b. S phase
c. meiosis
d. M phase

A

meiosis

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83
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage of M phase?

a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase

A

Interphase

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84
Q

Which of the following structures forms attachments with the chromosomes during pro-metaphase?

a. mitotic apparatus
b. centrosome
c. gametes
d. nuclues

A

mitotic apparatus

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85
Q

Which of following species is most commonly identified by the use of the branding method?

a. cattle and horses
b. cattle and sheep
c. sheep and goats
d. horses and sheep

A

cattle and horses

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86
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used on sheep and cattle when participating in a sale or show?

a. hot branding
b. freeze branding
c. nose prints
d. neck chains

A

nose prints

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87
Q

In the horse industry, which of the following is applied to the upper lip?

a. hot iron brands
b. freeze brands
c. tattoos
d. electronic microchips

A

tattoos

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88
Q

What is an ear notch used for in the sheep industry?

a. Identifying lamp number
b. Identifying mother
c. Identifying culls
d. Identifying keeps

A

culls (Sheep that are going to the market)

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89
Q

Spiral bands are used in which of the following industries for identification?

a. swine
b. poultry
c. cattle
d. horse

A

poultry

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90
Q

Which of the following is indicated when notched in the right ear of pigs?

a. litter number
b. pig number
c. tag number
d. brand

A

litter number

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91
Q

Which number represents the birth year in System 1 of ID?

a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

A

first

System 1 is two digit birth year following by two digit offspring number of the year

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92
Q

In System 3 of animal ID, the birth year is represented by which of the following?

a. the number related to the month
b. the first number
c. the second number
d. a letter

A

a letter (it is assigned by the breed association for each year)

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93
Q

Which system assigns consecutive numbers for ID?

a. system 1
b. system 2
c. system 3
d. system 4

A

4

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94
Q

What are numbering systems used for in livestock operations?

a. to replace names of animals
b. to prove ownership
c. to identify animals
d. for buying pruposes

A

to identify animals

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95
Q

Which identification method is most commonly used in the swine industry?

a. toe-punching
b. ear tagging
c. ear notching
d. hot iron branding

A

ear notching

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96
Q

DNA analysis can be extracted from which of the following?

a. nasal swabs
b. retina scans
c. ear notching
d. freeze branding

A

nasal swabs

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97
Q

How many combinations are possible for toe-punching identification?

a. 20
b. 18
c. 16
d. 14

A

16

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98
Q

Which of the following breeds uses identification certificated for identification?

a. swine
c. cattle
c. sheep
d. horse

A

horse

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99
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical identification method for livestock animals?

a. freeze branding
b. GPS tracking
c. tattooing
d. ear notching

A

GPS tracking

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100
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason to use an animal identification system?

a. improves management and mating decisions
b. helps determine growth rates
c. provides easy access to record for each animal
d. provides disease control

A

provide disease control

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101
Q

Identification can ________ breed associations in registration.

a. aid
b. hurt
c. complicate
d. develop

A

aid

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102
Q

Which of the following is a voluntary identification program?

a. NAIS
b. AIN
c. PIN
d. USDA

A

NAIS (National Animal Identification System)

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103
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a component required when participating in the voluntary identification program?
A.  Premises registration
B.  Animal Identification
C.  Premises Orientation
D.  ANimal tracing
A

Premises orientation

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104
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered as official identification for animals being transported interstate?

a. ear tag
b. nose print
c. brand
d. tattoo

A

nose print

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105
Q 
Which year were the first livestock animals brought over to the New World?
 A. 1400s
 B. 1500s
 C. 1492
 D. 1493
 E. 1462
A

1493

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106
Q 
The Brahman breed would be an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cattle.
 A. Bos taurus
 B. Bos indicus
 C. Humped
 D. Slick
 E. Haired
A

Bos indicus

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107
Q 
When animals are being used to pull loads, these animals are commonly referred
as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ animals.
 A. Draft
 B. Strong
 C. Haul
 D. Sturdy
 E. Heavy
A

draft

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108
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ industry is an example of a vertically integrated industry.
 A. Beef
 B. Pork
 C. Lamb
 D. Poultry
 E. Horses
A

Poultry

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109
Q 
With the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, breeders are able to prevent injuries to animals
as well as control the prodigy.
 A. Technological advancements
 B. Embryo transfer
 C. Artificial insemination
 D. Both B and C
 E. Both A and C
A

Embryo Transfer and Artificial Insemination

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110
Q

CAFO stands for ______________________________.
A. Caring about feeding others
B. Concentrated animal feeding operations
C. Considerate animal feeding operations
D. Concise about feeding others
E. Careful animal feeding operations

A

Concentrated Animal Feeding Operations

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111
Q 
Originally, fairs and shows were done in order for farmers to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Show their animals
 B. Sell their animals
 C. Breed their animals
 D. Both A and B
 E. Both A and C
A

To show and sell their animals

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112
Q 
All leftover fat and meat from the carcasses are referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Waste
 B. Trash
 C. Trim
 D. Extras
 E. Leftovers
A

Trim

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113
Q 
Plants which \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ meat are marked by an offensive odor and are often
 far from people and towns.
 A. Render
 B. Process
 C. Cook
 D. Fabricate
 E. None of the above
A

Render

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114
Q 
Intramuscular fat is more commonly referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Gristle
 B. Connective tissue
 C. Marbling
 D. Fat
 E. All of the above
A

marbling

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115
Q 
Poor transportation can NOT cause which of the following health problems?
 A. Stress
 B. Bruising
 C. Swine flu
 D. Trampling
A

Swine Flu

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116
Q 
Which of the following is the second step in swine hair removal?
 A. Singeing
 B. Scalding
 C. Skinning
 D. Tumbling machine
A

Tumbling machine

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117
Q 
Antemortem inspection is done at which stage of the slaughter process?
 A. Holding
 B. Splitting
 C. Grading
 D. Transportation
A

Holding

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118
Q 
Beef carcasses with B maturity are in which age group?
 A. Over 96
 B. 42 to 72
 C. 72 to 96
 D. 30 to 42
A

30-42 months

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119
Q 
Which of the following animals was NOT included in the Humane Slaughter Act of
1958?
 A. Cattle
 B. Swine
 C. Chicken
 D. Horse
A

Chicken

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120
Q 
Which beef cut is inexpensive and often used to feed a large number of people?
 A. Shank
 B. Round
 C. Loin
 D. Brisket
A

Brisket

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121
Q 
Which cut of pork meat only has thin layers of lean meat?
 A. Loin
 B. Belly
 C. Ham
 D. Shoulder butt
A

Belly

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122
Q 
The hot box is usually set between what temperature range?
 A. 250 to 275°F (121 to 135°C)
 B. 180 to 360°F (82 to 182°C)
 C. 45 to 55°F (7 to 13°C)
 D. 26 to 28°F (-3 to -2°C)
A

26-28 Degrees F

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123
Q 
Which of the following used in the slaughter process increases color and tenderness in the meat?
 A. Electric stimulators
 B. Holding stage
 C. Stunning
 D. Evisceration
A

Electric stimulators

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124
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a quality grade for young beef (A and B maturity)?
 A. Prime
 B. Choice
 C. Cutter
 D. Select
A

Cutter

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125
Q

Which of the following is the primary reason the National Animal Identification
Systems was developed?
A. To provide a record of ownership to ranchers
B. To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak
C. To aid breed associations in registrations
D. To improve management and mating decisions for livestock owners

A

To help producers and officials in the event of disease outbreak

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126
Q 
Ear tags, brands, microchips and tattoos are official identification required for animals to move in which of the following ways?
 A. Interstate
 B. Nationally
 C. Inner state
 D. Locally
A

Interstate

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127
Q 
Which of the following is a disadvantage of ear tagging?
 A. Not weatherproof
 B. Hard to read
 C. Can be ripped from ear
 D. Expensive
A

Can be ripped from ear

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128
Q 
In numbering system 2, which of the following is branded above the birth year?
 A. Animal weight
 B. Animal number
 C. Mother year
 D. Mother number
A

animal number

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129
Q 
Where is the brand placed in hot iron and freeze branding?
 A. On the neck
 B. On the rump
 C. On the head
 D. On the back
A

On the rump

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130
Q 
In which of the following industries are neck chains most commonly used?
 A. Dairy cattle
 B. Horses
 C. Dairy goats
 D. Beef cattle
A

Dairy Cattle

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131
Q 
In freeze branding, the branding iron is chilled with which of the following?
 A. Liquid nitrogen
 B. Ice water
 C. Frozen salt
 D. Cooling compound
A

Liquid nitrogen

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132
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an identification method commonly used for swine?
 A. Ear tag
 B. Tattoo
 C. Ear notch
 D. Retina scan
A

retina scan

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133
Q 
Ear tags are pierced between which of the following cartilage ribs of the ear?
 A. Second and third
 B. First and second
 C. Third and fourth
 D. Fourth and fifth
A

2nd and 3rd

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134
Q 
Which of the following is NOT included as an electronic identification method?
 A. Electronic ear tags
 B. Electronic collars
 C. Microchips or transponders
 D. Electronic nose prints
A

Electronic nose prints

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135
Q

What does mastication mean?

a. eating
b. chewing
c. breathing
d. smelling

A

chewing

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136
Q

The teeth of what animal continue to grow throughout its life?

a. horse
b. cow
c. pig
d. sheep

A

horse

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137
Q

If a horse is overfed, the excess feed escapes into what organ?

a. small intestine
b. large intestine or proximal colon
c. stomach
d. gallbladder

A

small intestine

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138
Q

Monogastric animals…

a. have complex stomachs
b. are ruminants
c. have two stomachs
d. have simple stomachs

A

Have simple stomachs

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139
Q

What is another term used for proximal colon?

a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. rumen
d. reticulum

A

large intestine

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140
Q

Bile is

a. an organ located in the lower GI tract
b. an acid found in the stomachs of ruminants
c. a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion
d. found only in monogastrics

A

a liver secretion that aids in fat digestion

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141
Q

Which compartment is the true stomach of a ruminant?

a. rumen
b. reticulum
c. omasum
d. abomasum

A

abomasum

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142
Q

The gizzard is

a. a highly muscular organ
b. found in chickens
c. used to grind feed
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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143
Q

The cereal grain popular as a feed for horses is

a. grain sorghum
b. wheat
c. oats
d. barley

A

oats

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144
Q

Which cereal grain must be processed to provide nutrients to the animal?

a. grain sorghum
b. corn
c. wheat
d. barley

A

grain sorghum

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145
Q

The major source of energy for animals is

a. protein
b. carbohydrates
c. vitamins
d. minerals

A

Carbohydrates

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146
Q

Dietary essential nutrients would include

a. vitamins
b. minerals
c. some amino acids
d. all of the above

A

all of the above

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147
Q

The crude protein content of wheat is

a. six to seven percent
b. 8-10 percent
c. 13-14 percent
d. 16-18 percent

A

13-14%

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148
Q

The crude protein content of rye is

a. five to seven percent
b. 12-13 percent
c. 15-17 percent
d. 18-20 percent

A

12-13%

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149
Q

Daily supply of feed or food is a

a. diet
b. ration
c. basic nutrient
d. essential nutrient

A

ration

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150
Q

The USDA pork grades are one, two, three, four and utility.
A. True
B. False

A

False

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151
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the removal of the testicles from a male animal.
 A. Ear notching
 B. Ear tagging
 C. Tail trimming
 D. Castration
A

castration

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152
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the universal swine identification system.
 A. Ear notching
 B. Ear tagging
 C. Tail trimming
 D. Castration
A

ear notching

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153
Q

What is the gestation of swine?

A

3 months, 3 weeks, and 3 days (114 days)

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154
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the period of time in a sow’s cycle when she is receptive to a boar for breeding purposes and the vulva is swollen and red.
 A. Gestation
 B. Farrowing
 C. Castration
 D. Estrus
A

Estrus

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155
Q 
What is a main factor in selecting breeding hogs?
 A. Muscling
 B. Frame size
 C. Structural correctness
 D. Maternal traits
A

structural correctness

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156
Q 
Which breed of pig is red with white faces, feet and underline?
 A. Hampshire
 B. Duroc
 C. Hereford
 D. Tamworth
A

hereford

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157
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a form of ownership or strategic management where all or more than one section of an industry is combined under the same ownership.
 A. Seedstock operation
 B. Vertical integration
 C. Farrow-to-finish
 D. Farrow-to-nursery
A

vertical integration

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158
Q 
What are the USDA grades for pork?
 A. One, two, three, four
 B. A, B, C, D
 C. Prime, choice, grade, standard
 D. Acceptable, utility
A

acceptable and utility

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159
Q 
Which is a by-product of pork?
 A. Pork fat
 B. Pork skins
 C. Insulin
 D. All of the above
A

all of the above

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160
Q 
Which is NOT wholesale cut of a pork carcass?
 A. Brisket
 B. Ham
 C. Loin
 D. Shoulder
A

Brisket (beef)

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161
Q

The underline is important only in females, as they should have a minimum of six evenly spaced nipples.
A. True
B. False

A

False (Boars pass on nipple placement characteristics too)

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162
Q 
What management practices should be performed on the liter within the first two weeks of age?
 A. Clipping needle teeth
 B. Tails trimmed
 C. Ears notched
 D. All of the above
A

All of the above

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163
Q 
Which type of operation farrows out and then sells the piglets at weaning?
 A. Farrow-to-finish
 B. Farrow-to-nursery
 C. Seedstock
 D. Show pigs
A

farrow to nursery

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164
Q 
Which type of operation produces purebred breeding stock for purebred and commercial operations?
 A. Farrow-to-finish
 B. Farrow-to-nursery
 C. Seedstock
 D. Show pigs
A

Seedstock

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165
Q 
Which type of barn is used for just weaned pigs?
 A. Gestation house
 B. Farrowing house
 C. Finishing barn
 D. Nursery
A

nursery

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166
Q 
Pigs are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, meaning they have one true stomach.
 A. Nonruminants
 B. Ruminants
 C. Bigastric
 D. Trigastric
A

nonruminant

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167
Q

Typically a young animal requires a higher level of protein in the diet than does an adult.
A. True
B. False

A

true

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168
Q 
The majority of swine breeds are believed to be descendants of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Berkshire
 B. Yorkshire
 C. Eurasian wild boar
 D. All of the above
A

Eurasian wild boar

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169
Q 
Which pig breed is solid white in color and has drooped ears?
 A. Berkshire
 B. Chester white
 C. Duroc
 D. Hampshire
A

chester white

170
Q 
3. Which breed is extremely long bodied and known for their maternal instincts?
 A. Landrace
 B. Chester white
 C. Yorkshire
 D. Berkshire
A

landrace

171
Q 
Which breed is black with a white belt behind its shoulders?
 A. Duroc
 B. Spot
 C. Hampshire
 D. Hereford
A

hampshire

172
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is one of the largest breeds in production in America.
 A. Landrace
 B. Chester white
 C. Yorkshire
 D. Berkshire
A

Berkshire

173
Q 
Which of the following is the fastest growing division in the goat industry?
 A. Meat
 B. Milk
 C. Fiber
 D. Genetics
A

meat

174
Q 
According to the presentation, which of the following is the leading state in the
milk goat industry?
 A. Texas
 B. Oklahoma
 C. California
 D. New Mexico
A

California

175
Q 
The boer goat was imported to the United States in which of the following years?
 A. 1990
 B. 1992
 C. 1993
 D. 1997
A

1993

176
Q 
Which of the following is the fiber produced from the undercoat of a goat’s pelt?
A. Wool
B. Cashmere
C. Chevre
D. Mohair
A

Cashmere

177
Q 
Which benefit does goat milk have over cow milk?
A. Lower butterfat content
B. Higher butterfat content
C. More easily digested by humans
D. Broader product line
A

more easily digested by humans because of the lower protein content

178
Q 
Which goat breed undergoes a temporary paralysis when frightened?
A. Kiko
B. Myotonic
C. Alpine
D. LaMancha
A

Myotonic (TN fainting goats) LOLOLOL!

179
Q 
Which of the following goat breeds are seasonal breeders and tend to have single
kid crops?
A. Angora goats
B. Boer goats
C. Tennessee fainting goats
D. Nubian goats
A

Angora

180
Q 
Which breed is known for being used for both milk and meat production?
A. Boer
B. Angora
C. Nubian
D. Tennessee fainting goats
A

Nubian

181
Q 
Which of the following is a common fence used in a goat operation?
A. Barbed wire
B. Woven wire
C. Pipe
D. Wooden
A

Woven wire

182
Q 
Which of the following accounts for more than three-quarters of all livestock lost
to predators?
A. Coyotes & Dogs
B. Bears
C. Bobcats
D. Foxes
A

Coyotes and Dogs

183
Q 
Morgan is a producer and wants to identify her animals by an individual animal number as well as her operation identification. Which identification method should she use?
 A. Ear tagging
 B. Branding
 C. Tattooing
 D. Collars
A

tattooing

184
Q 
Which instrument is used to perform bloodless dehorning?
 A. Burdizzo
 B. Barnes dehorner
 C. Heated iron
 D. Clippers
A

Heated iron

185
Q 
Which of the following terms defines a castrated male goat?
 A. Billy
 B. Buck
 C. Ewe
 D. Wether
A

Wether

186
Q

When should a goat’s hooves be trimmed?
A. When goats are shorn for the summer
B. When goats live on rough environmental terrain
C. When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot
D. When the hoof is even with the plane of the foot

A

When the sidewall of the hoof extends past the sole of the foot

187
Q 
Which stomach produces bacteria to break down roughages?
 A. Rumen
 B. Reticulum
 C. Omasum
 D. Abomasum
A

Rumen

188
Q 
Which of the following is considered the most intensive feeding program for a
goat producer?
 A. Pasture grazing
 B. Feed supplementation
 C. Confinement feeding
 D. Self-feeding
A

Confinement feeding

189
Q 
Which of the following is the most prevalent disease in goat operations?
 A. Foot rot
 B. Enterotoxemia
 C. Soremouth
 D. Ketosis
A

Enterotoxemia (Over eating disease)

190
Q 
Which of the following is a term meaning “a goat in estrus”?
 A. Photoperiod
 B. Puberty
 C. Gestation
 D. Standing heat
A

Standing heat (same in pigs)

191
Q 
Which method of breeding utilizes a superior female to enhance genetics of a
herd?
 A. Selective breeding
 B. Artificial insemination
 C. Embryo transfer
 D. Hand breeding
A

Embryo Transfer (Harvesting her eggs and implanting them into inferior females)

192
Q 
Which of the following diseases is caused by intestinal parasites found naturally
in most goats?
 A. Foot rot
 B. Soremouth
 C. Coccidiosis
 D. Ketosis
A

Coccidiosis

193
Q 
Which sheep breed classification is a cross breed between a fine wool breed and a long
wool breed?
 A. Fine wool breeds
 B. Medium wool breeds
 C. Long wool breeds
 D. Hair sheep breeds
A

medium wool breeds

194
Q 
Which type of operation is aimed toward maximizing production and market value of offspring?
 A. Seedstock
 B. Purebred
 C. Commercial
 D. All of the above
A

commercial

195
Q 
Which disease in sheep causes stones or crystals to be formed in the urinary tract?
 A. Parasites
 B. White muscle disease
 C. Urinary calculi
 D. Tetanus
A

Urinary calculi

196
Q 
The gestation or pregnancy length in sheep is \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. 148 days
 B. 128 days
 C. 168 days
 D. 248 days
A

148 days (5 months)

197
Q 
Gestation ends with what is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or birth.
 A. Estrus
 B. Dystocia
 C. Colostrum
 D. Parturition
A

parturition

198
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is known as removing the wool around the dock and mammary
glands.
 A. Shearing
 B. Clipping
 C. Tagging
 D. All of the above
A

tagging

199
Q 
Which of the following is a main factor when evaluating market lambs?
 A. Weight
 B. Finish
 C. Muscle
 D. All of the above
A

all of the above

200
Q 
Which is the most important when evaluating a wool fleece?
 A. Grease fleece weight
 B. Yield
 C. Staple length
 D. Fiber diameter
A

Grease fleece weight

201
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a term used to describe the period of pregnancy in animals, or the time from conception to birth.
 A. Parturition
 B. Colostrum
 C. Gestation
 D. Dystocia
A

gestation

202
Q 
Which disease causes stiffness or rigor in the body’s muscles?
 A. Overeating disease
 B. Tetanus
 C. Urinary calculi
 D. White muscle disease
A

tetanus

203
Q 
Which of the following is a viral disease which causes ulcerations and scabs around the lips and in the mouth of a sheep?
 A. Urinary calculi
 B. Sore mouth
 C. White muscle disease
 D. Coccidiosis
A

sore mouth

204
Q 
Which operation provides the genetics for which commercial sheep production systems are based?
 A. Flock operations
 B. Purebred operations
 C. Commercial operations
 D. All of the above
A

purebred operations

205
Q 
What is the average live weight for a slaughter lamb?
 A. 100 lbs.
 B. 120 lbs.
 C. 140 lbs.
 D. 200 lbs.
A

140 pounds

206
Q 
Which of the following is a quality grade for lamb carcasses?
 A. Prime
 B. Choice
 C. Good
 D. All of the above
A

all of the above

207
Q 
Which is the most common fence used in a sheep operation?
 A. Net wire
 B. Barbed wire
 C. Pipe
 D. Wooden
A

Net wire (like the poultry fence we used for the turkeys)

208
Q 
What year was the National Wool Act repealed?
 A. 1976
 B. 1986
 C. 1996
 D. 2006
A

1996

209
Q 
Which sheep breed classification produces wool fibers with a small fiber diameter and are known for their flocking instincts?
 A. Fine wool breeds
 B. Medium wool breeds
 C. Long wool breeds
 D. Prolific breeds
A

fine wool breeds

210
Q

Which breed classification excels in feed efficiency, rate of gain and muscularity
and is also classified as meat type animals?
A. Fine wool breeds
B. Long wool breeds
C. Terminal sire breeds
D. Hair sheep breeds

A

terminal sire breeds

211
Q 
Which breed classification sheds their wool in the winter?
 A. Fine wool breeds
 B. Long wool breeds
 C. Terminal sire breeds
 D. Hair sheep breeds
A

Hair sheep

212
Q 
Which breed classification is known for their multiple births?
 A. Fine wool breeds
 B. Medium wool breeds
 C. Long wool breeds
 D. Prolific breeds
A

prolific breeds

213
Q 
Which is NOT a segment of the beef cattle industry?
 A. Cow/calf
 B. Farrow to finish
 C. Stocker
 D. Seedstock
A

Farrow to finish (Farrow is pigs)

214
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are a number estimate of breeding potential for characteristics, such as gain, muscling and maternal and carcass traits.
 A. Sterotypes
 B. EPDs
 C. Genotypes
 D. None of the above
A

EPDs

215
Q 
What is an advantage of synchronizing a cow herd?
 A. Longer calving season
 B. Results in a ununiform calf crop
 C. More labor intensive
 D. None of the above
A

Results in a ununiform calf crop

216
Q 
Which is the most intensely managed area of beef cattle production?
 A. Reproduction
 B. Calf management
 C. Nutrition
 D. Facilities
A

Nutrition

217
Q

Breeding stock can receive implants.
A. True
B. False

A

False

218
Q

It is much easier and less expensive to prevent sickness than to treat it.
A. True
B. False

A

True

219
Q 
Cattle have a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or their own safety zone.
 A. Fear zone
 B. Bubble
 C. Sight zone
 D. Flight zone
A

Flight zone

220
Q

What are some programs feedlot managers should establish to prevent water
and air pollution?
A. Control rainfall runoff
B. Manage solid manure
C. Maintain the feedlot surface
C. Operate wastewater handling facilities
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

221
Q

Grazing operations have more runoff than feedlots.
A. True
B. False

A

False

222
Q 
Runoff is collected in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Rivers
 B. Lakes
 C. Swimming pools
 D. Holding ponds
A

holding ponds (lagoons)

223
Q 
Which of the following is a way solid manure can be disposed of?
 A. By applying it to crop land
 B. By letting it blow away
 C. By letting it runoff in water
 D. All of the above
A

By applying it to crop land

224
Q 
How is dust controlled in feedlots?
 A. By letting it blow away
 B. By not exciting the cattle
 C. By watering feedlot surfaces
 D. None of the above
A

By watering feedlot surfaces

225
Q

What is the purpose of providing mounds in feedlot pens?
A. Providing a dry place for cattle to stand
B. Help improve drainage
C. Provide a windbreak
D. All of the above

A

all of the above

226
Q 
What is an advantage of castration?
 A. Increased performance and gain
 B. Decreased performance and gain
 C. An unhappy steer
 D. None of the above
A

increased performance and gain

227
Q 
In which part of the body are cattle implanted?
 A. Tail
 B. Flank
 C. Ear
 D. Neck
A

Ear

228
Q 
At what age should a calf be weaned?
 A. One year of age
 B. Eight to ten months
 C. Two to four months
 D. Three to four weeks
A

8-10 months

229
Q 
Which is a top priority when evaluating breeding cattle?
 A. Muscling
 B. Balance
 C. Structural correctness
 D. Breed characteristics
A

structural correctness

230
Q 
Which is the best body condition score for breeding cattle and other species of livestock?
 A. Two
 B. Five
 C. Nine
 D. All of the above
A

5

231
Q 
Trouble giving birth is known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Gestation
 B. Parturition
 C. Dystocia
 D. Estrus
A

Dystocia

232
Q 
What causes wheat pasture poisoning in cattle?
 A. Protein deficiency
 B. Water deficiency
 C. Magnesium deficiency
 D. Calcium deficiency
A

magnesium deficiency

233
Q 
Cattle facilities should have what functions?
 A. Safety
 B. Ease to people
 C. Control of cattle
 D. All of the above
A

all of the above

234
Q 
Which type of fencing is used in cattle operations?
 A. Electric wire
 B. Barbed wire
 C. Solid fencing
 D. All of the above
A

all of the above

235
Q 
Seedstock producers are cow/calf producers who produce \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for purebred or commercial operations.
 A. Calves
 B. Slaughter cattle
 C. Breeding stock
 D. Beef
A

breeding stock

236
Q 
What is the purpose of a feedlot?
 A. Feed and fatten cattle
 B. Breed cattle
 C. Calf management
 D. All of the above
A

feed and fatten cattle

237
Q 
Stocker operations purchase weanling calves from cow/calf producers and feed
them out on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Grain
 B. Pasture land
 C. Hay
 D. Corn
A

pasture land

238
Q 
What is the final segment of the beef industry?
 A. Cow/calf
 B. Consumer
 C. Retailer
 D. Processor
A

consumer

239
Q 
What operation uses purebred breeding stock in crossbreeding programs to
produce commercial offspring?
 A. Stocker
 B. Seedstock
 C. Feedlot
 D. Cow/calf
A

Cow/calf

240
Q 
According to the presentation, inactivated vaccines are typically given in how
many doses?
 A. One
 B. Two
 C. Six
 D. Eight
A

two

241
Q 
According to the presentation, when giving a subcutaneous injection how long
should the needle be?
 A. 1/2 to 3/4 of an inch
 B. 1 inch
 C. 1 to 1 1/2 inch
 D. 3/4 to 1 inch
A

1 inch

242
Q 
Which of the following describes the term “gauge”?
 A. Length of the needle
 B. Consistency of the injection
 C. Diameter of the needle
 D. Injection type
A

Diameter of the needle

243
Q 
According to the presentation, which disease affects sheep and goats?
 A. Atrophic Rhinitis
 B. Bluetongue
 C. Tuberculosis
 D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
A

Bluetongue

244
Q 
Barrels can be measured in which of the following units?
 A. dL (deciliter)
 B. cc (cubic centimeters)
 C. cm (centimeters)
 D. vol (volume)
A

CC

245
Q 
Which of the following diseases causes facial malformation?
 A. Tetanus
 B. Atrophic Rhinitis
 C. Tuberculosis
 D. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
A

Atrophic Rhinitis

246
Q 
According to the presentation, which of the following is NOT listed as a use for
intravenous injections?
 A. Fluids
 B. Electrolytes
 C. Medicines
 D. Vaccines
A

Vaccines

247
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the indication statement?
A. Amount of vaccination or medication to give
B. Frequency a vaccination or medication is given
C. Which vaccinations or medications are approved for each species
D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system

A

D. Amount of time it takes for a vaccination or medication to leave the
animal’s system

248
Q 
. A decrease in which of the following molecules decreases the effectiveness of a
vaccination or medication?
 A. Fat molecules
 B. Protein molecules
 C. Carbohydrate molecules
 D. Antigen molecules
A

Protein molecules

249
Q 
Modified-live vaccines come in how many vials?
 A. One vial
 B. Two vials
 C. Three vials
 D. Four vials
A

two vials

250
Q 
Which type of vaccine is created from a new combination of DNA?
 A. Subunit
 B. Modified-live
 C. Inactivated
 D. Killed
A

Subunit

251
Q 
Which type of vaccine has been altered with heat or
chemicals?
 A. Modified-live
 B. Subunit
 C. Inactivated
 D. Initial
A

Inactivated

252
Q 
Which of the following types of vaccines can multiply but cannot produce a
disease?
 A. Inactivated
 B. Subunit
 C. Modified-live
 D. Live
A

Modified Live

253
Q

According to the segment, why are newborn animals NOT vaccinated when they
are born?
A. There are no vaccines for newborn animals
B. Vaccines are not safe for newborn animals
C. Animals are not vaccinated unless they are showing signs of illness
D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working

A

D. Maternal immunity will prevent vaccines from working

254
Q 
Which type of injection uses the “tenting” method?
 A. Intramammary
 B. Subcutaneous
 C. Intravenous
 D. Intramuscular
A

Sub Q

255
Q 
In which type of injection is it acceptable for blood to appear in the syringe before
administering the injection?
 A. Subcutaneous
 B. Intramuscular
 C. Intravenous
 D. Intramammary
A

Intraveneous

256
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an injection site listed in the segment for giving intramuscular injections to cattle?
 A. Pectoral muscle
 B. Thigh muscle
 C. Gluteal muscle
 D. Neck muscle
A

Pectoral muscle

257
Q

According to the segment, where is the jugular groove located?
A. Between the esophagus and trachea
B. Between the esophagus and neck muscles
C. In front of the neck muscles
D. Between the trachea and neck muscles

A

Between the trachea and neck muscles

258
Q 
According to the segment, when giving an intramuscular injection, what gauge
needle should be used?
 A. 16 to 18
 B. 20 to 21
 C. 14 to 16
 D. 18 to 20
A

16-18

259
Q 
According to the segment, which of the following should be closely monitored for
withdrawal periods?
 A. Vaccines
 B. Antibiotics
 C. Wormers
 D. Nutritional supplements
A

Antibiotics

260
Q 
Which of the following devices pushes the vaccination solution or medication
through the needle and into the animal?
 A. Barrel
 B. Needle
 C. Syringe
 D. Plunger
A

Plunger

261
Q 
According to the segment, how often should an individual change needles when
worming cattle?
 A. Every 10 cows
 B. Every 5 cows
 C. Every 15 cows
 D. Every cow
A

Every 10 cows (needle gets really full by then)

262
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning improper injection
techniques?
A. The animal will have partial immunity
B. Drug residues could be left in food-producing animals
C. The animal could suffer from nerve damage
D. The individual administering the injection could unintentionally be
injected

A

A. The animal will have partial immunity

263
Q 
At what temperature should vaccinations be stored?
 A. 40° to 45°F (4° to 7°C)
 B. 32° to 40°F (0° to 4°C)
 C. 30° to 35°F (1° to 2°C)
 D. 35° to 45°F (2° to 7°C)
A

35 to 45 degrees

264
Q

According to the presentation, what could performing procedures on ill animals cause?
A. There will be no effect on the animals
B. The procedure will be harder to complete
C. The procedure will require additional sedation
D. The risks associated with the procedure increase

A

The risks associated with the procedure increase

265
Q 
Which procedure increases feed efficiency?
 A. Dehorning
 B. Castration
 C. Teeth clipping
 D. Lancing
A

Castration

266
Q 
According to the presentation, tail docking is primarily performed on which animals?
 A. Cattle and sheep
 B. Sheep and goats
 C. Sheep and swine
 D. Cattle and swine
A

Sheep and swine

267
Q

According to the presentation, when should piglets’ teeth be clipped?
A. Within the first week of life
B. Within 24 hours after birth
C. Between 48 and 72 hours after birth
D. Teeth only need to be clipped if the piglets are fighting

A

Within the first 24 hours after birth

268
Q 
What procedure uses hydrotherapy to help heal wounds?
 A. Dehorning
 B. Lancing
 C. Tail docking
 D. Castrating
A

Lancing (Hydrotherapy is using water to wash out the open cut from the lancing)

269
Q 
Which method of castration is the most reliable?
 A. Burdizzo
 B. Surgical
 C. Banding
 D. All are equally effective
A

Surgical

270
Q 
Which species can only be castrated surgically?
 A. Swine
 B. Cattle
 C. Sheep
 D. Goats
A

Swine

271
Q 
After castrating an animal using a burdizzo, how long does it take for the testicles to shrivel?
 A. Two to three weeks
 B. Four to six weeks
 C. Six to eight weeks
 D. One to two weeks
A

4-6 weeks

272
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a type of hot iron
used for dehorning?
 A. Furnace heated
 B. 10-volt battery operated
 C. 12-volt battery operated
 D. 120-volt electric
A

120-volt electric

273
Q 
If used incorrectly, which tool could open the frontal sinus?
 A. Caustic paste
 B. Burdizzo
 C. Cup or scoop dehorner
 D. Spoon or tube dehorner
A

Cup or scoop dehorner

274
Q 
Teeth clipping is necessary in what species?
 A. Cattle
 B. Swine
 C. Sheep
 D. Goat
A

Swine

275
Q

What could be a result of docking an animal’s tail too short?
A. It does not matter how short the tail is
B. Price reduction at market
C. Fly strike
D. Rectal prolapses

A

Rectal prolapses

276
Q 
How far from the base of the tail should a pig’s tail be docked?
 A. 1 to 2 inches
 B. 1 inch
 C. 2 to 2 1/2 inches
 D. 1/2 to 1 inch
A

1/2 to 1 inch

277
Q 
According to the segment, which of the following tools is NOT used for lancing?
 A. Needle
 B. Knife
 C. Razor blade
 D. Scalpel
A

Needle (Lancing is cutting open an abscess)

278
Q 
Which tool is commonly used to dock lamb tails?
 A. Elastrator
 B. Tail docker
 C. Tooth clippers
 D. Emasculator
A

Elastrator (think rubber bands (elastic))

279
Q 
When should disinfectants be used for surgery?
 A. After the procedure
 B. Before and after the procedure
 C. During the procedure
 D. Before the procedure
A

Before and after the procedure

280
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to only one testicle being dropped into the scrotum?
 A. Inguinal hernia
 B. Bilateral cryptorchidism
 C. Unilateral cryptorchidism
 D. Scrotal hernia
A

Unilateral cryptorchidism

281
Q 
When are boars castrated?
 A. Between two and 21 days of age
 B. After three months of age
 C. Between four and 14 days of age
 D. At one month of age
A

Between 4 and 14 days

282
Q 
According to the segment, which of the following methods of castration has the highest risk of maggot infestation?
 A. Elastic bands
 B. Burdizzo
 C. Emasculator
 D. Surgical
A

Elastic bands (rotting skin draws maggots)

283
Q 
Which of the following methods of castration allows the spermatic cord to be cut to remove it from the body?
 A. Elastrator
 B. Burdizzo
 C. Emasculator
 D. Lancing
A

Emasculator

284
Q 
According to the segment, which tool is used for dehorning weaned animals?
 A. Chemical pastes
 B. Scoop dehorners
 C. Hot iron
 D. Horn clippers
A

scoop dehorners

285
Q 
What is analgesia?
 A. Inability to be numb
 B. A sedative
 C. Inability to feel pain
 D. A surgical tool
A

Inability to feel pain

286
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a reason to dehorn animals?
 A. Cosmetic appeal
 B. Decrease carcass bruising
 C. Increase space at feed trough
 D. Increase effective handling
A

Cosmetic appeal

287
Q 
Which of the following refers to the term “caustic”?
 A. A chemical paste
 B. Having the ability to destroy tissue
 C. Making an incision
 D. Removing horns
A

Having the ability to destroy tissue

288
Q 
Which of the following dehorning methods should NOT be performed during fly season?
 A. Chemical paste
 B. Hot iron
 C. Emasculator
 D. Scoop
A

Scoop

289
Q 
Which of the following parasites has a spherical shape?
 A. Cocci
 B. Bacilli
 C. Spirilli
 D. Bacci
A

Cocci

290
Q 
Which of the following systems protects and supports the body tissues and organs?
 A. Endocrine
 B. Skeletal
 C. Circulatory
 D. Integumentary
A

Skeletal

291
Q 
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders?
 A. Respiratory system
 B. Integumentary system
 C. Immune system
 D. Endocrine system
A

Immune System

292
Q 
Which of the following systems pumps and delivers blood to organs throughout the body?
 A. Endocrine system
 B. Circulatory system
 C. Respiratory system
 D. Digestive system
A

Circulatory System

293
Q 
Which type of medication is most commonly used to treat parasitic infections?
 A. Penicillin
 B. Antibiotics
 C. Anthelmintics
 D. Aspirin
A

Anthelmintics

294
Q 
Which of the following parasites may grow up to 10 to 12 feet long?
 A. Ringworm
 B. Lungworm
 C. Roundworm
 D. Tapeworm
A

Tapeworm

295
Q 
Which of the following parasites are also known as ascarids?
 A. Whipworm
 B. Roundworm
 C. Liver fluke
 D. Lungworm
A

roundworms

296
Q 
Which of the following parasites burrow holes through the intestinal wall and then goes to lungs where they mature?
 A. Lungworms
 B. Liver flukes
 C. Strongyles
 D. Pinworms
A

Lungworms

297
Q 
Which of the following parasites larvae burrow holes into arteries and internal organs?
 A. Lungworms
 B. Liver flukes
 C. Strongyles
 D. Pinworms
A

Strongyles

298
Q 
Which of the following parasites lay eggs around the rectum of horses?
 A. Lungworm
 B. Pinworm
 C. Whipworm
 D. Roundworm
A

Pinworms (The pin bones are next to the rectum hense why they call them pinworms)

299
Q 
Which of the following parasites eggs hatch and migrate into nasal chambers and sinuses?
 A. Nasal bots
 B. Flies
 C. Mites
 D. Lice
A

nasal bots

300
Q 
Which of the following parasites lays eggs on the hair of the rear legs on animals?
 A. Bots
 B. Mites
 C. Lice
 D. Heel flies
A

Heel flies

301
Q 
Which of the following parasites can cause skin problems such as scabies, scabs, mange or barn itch?
 A. Lice
 B. Mites
 C. Flies
 D. Horse bots
A

mites

302
Q 
Which of the following parasites are small arachnids which feed on the blood of animals?
 A. Lice
 B. Mites
 C. Ticks
 D. Flies
A

Ticks

303
Q 
Which of the following parasites life cycles includes adults laying and gluing eggs to hair follicles, then eggs hatch in one to two weeks and become adults in two to
four weeks?
 A. Mites
 B. Ticks
 C. Flies
 D. Lice
A

Lice

304
Q 
Which of the following parasites glue onto the mouths of horses when rubbed or bitten and enter the stomach and attach to the wall?
 A. Horse bots
 B. Nasal bots
 C. Lice
 D. Heel flies
A

Horse bots

305
Q 
Which of the following are also known as cattle grubs?
 A. Lice
 B. Mites
 C. Ticks
 D. Heel flies
A

heel flies

306
Q 
Which of the following parasites adults lay eggs on skin of an animal, then hatch, feed on the skin and reach adult stage in about 12 days?
 A. Lice
 B. Ticks
 C. Flies
 D. Mites
A

Mites

307
Q 
Which of the following parasites completes their life cycle by mating, engorging from feeding, then dropping to the ground to lay eggs in the environment?
 A. Lice
 B. Mites
 C. Ticks
 D. Roundworms
A

ticks

308
Q 
Which of the following parasites larva must attach to a snail to complete their life cycle and then encyst on water plants eaten by livestock?
 A. Lungworms
 B. Liver flukes
 C. Strongyles
 D. Pinworms
A

Liver flukes (Flukes live in water)

309
Q 
Which of the following parasites has segments containing eggs which break off and are passed with feces, then the eggs are eaten by mites and develop until eaten by a major host?
 A. Tapeworms
 B. Lungworms
 C. Roundworms
 D. Liver flukes
A

tapeworm

310
Q 
Which of the following parasites adults live in the cecum where they lay eggs to be passed with feces then eggs are eaten and hatch?
 A. Pinworms
 B. Whipworms
 C. Tapeworms
 D. Lungworms
A

Whipworm

311
Q 
Which of the following parasites are also known as blood worms?
 A. Whipworms
 B. Liver flukes
 C. Strongyles
 D. Roundworms
A

Strongyles

312
Q 
Which body system produces hormones which regulate metabolism?
 A. Immune system
 B. Respiratory system
 C. Digestive system
 D. Endocrine system
A

Endocrine system

313
Q 
Which of the following digestive systems is also known as polygastric?
 A. Ruminant
 B. Non-ruminant
 C. Monogastric
 D. Hindgut fermenter
A

ruminant

314
Q 
Larry is a producer and wants to save time when planning his artificial insemination program. He is able to control the ovulation in all his female recipients. This process is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Control birthing
 B. Ovulation sequence
 C. Selective mating
 D. Estrus synchronization
 E. None of the above
A

Estrus synchronization

315
Q 
CIDR stands for\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Compound Implant Does Recipient
 B. Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release
 C. Controlled Intramuscular Does Release
 D. Compound Implant Drug Recipient
A

Controlled Intravaginal Drug Release

316
Q 
Producers use a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to determine ovulation in sheep and goats.
 A. Scalpel
 B. Stethoscope
 C. Ultrasound
 D. Laparoscope
 E. Both C and D
A

ultrasound and laparoscope

317
Q 
Sarah is a swine producer and wants to incorporate a new breeding method in her operation. Which method is most commonly used in the swine industry?
 A. Artificial insemination
 B. Embryo transfer
 C. Natural selection
 D. Cloning
 E. Both B and C
A

Artificial Insemination

318
Q 
When collecting semen from a boar, the collection container should be filled with water at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. 38°C (100°F)
 B. 35°F (2°C)
 C. 45°F (7°C)
 D. 43°C (109°F)
A

100 degrees F

319
Q 
Josh is analyzing the semen he collected from his bull. Which characteristic is he considering?
 A. Appearance
 B. Concentration
 C. Morphology
 D. Motility
 E. All of the above
A

All of the Above

320
Q 
Which is a technique producers use for collecting semen in cattle?
 A. Gloved-hand technique
 B. Artificial insemination
 C. Electroejaculation
 D. All of the above
 E. None of the above
A

Electroejaculation

321
Q 
How is artificial insemination performed on horses?
 A. Surgically
 B. Microscopically
 C. Both A and B
 D. Vaginally
 E. None of the above
A

Vaginally

322
Q 
The process of cloning when the donor cell is fused with the oocyte is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
 A. Incubation
 B. Electrofusion
 C. Electroporation
 D. Cell manipulation
 E. Hybridoma
A

Electrofusion

323
Q

Which breeding technology utilizes gene banking?
A. Cloning
B. Artificial insemination
C. Embryo transfer
D. All technologies utilize gene banking
E. None of the above

A

cloning

324
Q 
Which of the following pathogens can NOT reproduce without a host and consists of DNA and RNA?
 A. Bacteria
 B. Viruses
 C. Fungi
 D. Protozoa
A

Viruses

325
Q 
Which of the following pathogens lives in soil, air, water and plants?
 A. Bacteria
 B. Protozoa
 C. Viruses
 D. Fungi
A

Fungi

326
Q 
Which of the following systems defends the body against infectious organisms and other invaders?
 A. Respiratory system
 B. Integumentary system
 C. Immune system
 D. Endocrine system
A

Immune System

327
Q 
Which of the following diseases is also known as gastritis?
 A. Hardware disease
 B. White muscle disease
 C. Milk fever
 D. Lactic acidosis
A

Hardware disease

328
Q 
Which of the following diseases is a result of a selenium and/or vitamin E deficiency?
 A. Milk fever
 B. Lactic acidosis
 C. White muscle disease
 D. Enterotoxemia
A

White muscle disease

329
Q 
Which of the following is also known as hypocalcemia?
 A. Lactic acidosis
 B. Colic
 C. Milk fever
 D. Overeating disease
A

Milk Fever (Not having enough calcium)

330
Q 
Which of the following is the general term used for abdominal pain?
 A. Colic
 B. Milk fever
 C. White muscle disease
 D. Enterotoxemia
A

colic

331
Q 
Which of the following is a serious and often fatal metabolic disorder caused by low levels of magnesium in the blood?
 A. Colic
 B. Grass tetany
 C. Milk fever
 D. Bloat
A

Grass Tetany (Make sure you have a Magnesium salt block sitting out for the cows in the spring.)

332
Q 
Which of the following is an incurable wasting disease of cattle?
 A. Foot rot
 B. Black leg
 C. Johne’s disease
 D. Colic
A

Johne’s disease

333
Q 
Zinc sulfate or copper sulfate footbaths are used to treat which of the following
diseases?
 A. Johne’s disease
 B. Entertoxemia
 C. Black leg
 D. Foot rot
A

Foot rot

334
Q 
Which of the following diseases damages the cornea and conjunctiva?
 A. Erysipelas
 B. Pinkeye
 C. Strangles
 D. Vibriosis
A

pinkeye

335
Q 
Which of the following diseases is also known as “bangs disease”?
 A. Foot rot
 B. Leptospirosis
 C. Brucellosis
 D. Erysipelas
A

Brucellosis

336
Q 
Which of the following is one of the most common diseases in cattle and affects the respiratory tract?
 A. Bovine respiratory disease
 B. Johne’s disease
 C. Strangles
 D. Brucellosis
A

Bovine respiratory Disease (BVR)

337
Q 
Which of the following diseases affects the fetus of a pregnant sow and often times causes fetus mummification?
 A. Sore mouth
 B. Blue tongue
 C. Porcine parvovirus
 D. Porcine circovirus
A

Porcine Parvovirus

338
Q 
Which of the following diseases is transmitted by blood feeding flies and contact with fomites?
 A. Avian influenza
 B. Sore mouth
 C. Blue tongue
 D. Bovine virus diarrhea
A

Bovine virus diarrhea (BVD)

339
Q 
Which of the following diseases causes blisters in the mouth and excessive salivation?
 A. Bluetongue
 B. Porcine circovirus
 C. Foot and mouth disease
 D. Sore mouth
A

Foot and mouth disease

340
Q 
Which of the following diseases has two different virus strains?
 A. Porcine circovirus
 B. Bluetongue
 C. Foot and mouth disease
 D. Sore mouth
A

Porcine circovirus

341
Q 
Which of the following causes vesicles to appear on lips, gums and tongue, causing redness or swelling?
 A. Bluetongue
 B. Porcine circovirus
 C. Sore mouth
 D. Avian influenza
A

sore mouth

342
Q 
Which of the following is also known as club lamb fungus?
 A. Mange
 B. Ringworm
 C. Ascaris
 D. Facial eczema
A

Ringworm

343
Q 
Which of the following is a type of sunburn?
 A. Mange
 B. Ringworm
 C. Ostertagious
 D. Facial eczema
A

Facial eczema

344
Q 
Which of the following parasites causes scabs, lesions and hair loss?
 A. Coccidiosis
 B. Mange
 C. Ascaris
 D. Ostertagious
A

mange

345
Q 
Which of the following is also known as wire worm?
 A. Haemonchus contortus
 B. Coccidiosis
 C. Ostertagious
 D. Ascaris
A

Haemonchus contortus

346
Q

Which of the following parasites is the principal worm parasite of beef and dairy
cattle and attacks the lining of the abomasum?
A. Ascaris
B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Ostertagious
D. Coccidiosis

A

Ostertagious

347
Q 
Which of the following diseases is also known as hairlessness?
 A. Cryptorchidism
 B. Hypotrichosis
 C. Mulefoot
 D. Porcine stress syndrome
A

Hypotrichosis

348
Q 
Which of the following diseases occurs when two toes are joined together to create only one toe?
 A. Mulefoot
 B. Spider lamb syndrome
 C. HYPP
 D. Hypotrichosis
A

Mulefoot

349
Q 
Which of the following diseases has symptoms which include infertility and failure to produce sperm?
 A. Cryptorchidism
 B. Hypotrichosis
 C. Mulefoot
 D. Porcine stress syndrome
A

Cryptorchidism

350
Q 
Which of the following is a muscle disease found in Quarter Horses?
 A. Hypotrichosis
 B. Spider lamb syndrome
 C. Mulefoot
 D. HYPP
A

HYPP

351
Q 
Which of the following diseases cause muscle and tail tremors, reddened skin and increased body temperature in pigs?
 A. Spider lamb syndrome
 B. Mulefoot
 C. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
 D. Porcine stress syndrome
A

Porcine Stress Syndrome

352
Q 
Which of the following CANNOT cause disease?
 A. Fungi
 B. Viruses
 C. Vitamins
 D. Parasites
A

Vitamins

353
Q 
Nutrient deficiencies are NOT caused by a lack of which of the following?
 A. Liquids
 B. Vitamins
 C. Minerals
 D. Protein
A

Liquids

354
Q 
A cocci bacterium is shaped like which of the following?
 A. Rod
 B. Spiral
 C. Spherical
 D. Circular
A

Spherical

355
Q 
Which of the following is the study of fungi?
 A. Organism
 B. Mycology
 C. Polypore
 D. Mushroom
A

Mycology

356
Q 
Which disease is caused by a spore forming bacterium?
 A. Blackleg
 B. Lactic acidosis
 C. Foot and mouth disease
 D. Bovine virus diarrhea
A

Blackleg

357
Q 
Which of the following is a disease which can only be transmitted through insects?
 A. Blackleg
 B. Ringworm
 C. Bluetongue
 D. Foot rot
A

Bluetongue (mosquitos)

358
Q 
Foot rot is caused by which of the following?
 A. Anaerobic bacteria
 B. Proper management
 C. Soil fungus
 D. Poor digestive health
A

Anaerobic bacteria

359
Q 
Which of the following is a common symptom among viral diseases?
 A. Fever
 B. Frequent urination
 C. Hyperactivity
 D. Vomiting
A

Fever

360
Q

Which of the following is NOT a step when designing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Choosing offspring
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents

A

Choosing offspring

361
Q 
For which of the following EPD figures is a negative number more desirable?
 A. Days to 250 and Backfat
 B. Days to 250 and Loin Eye Area
 C. Backfat and Pounds of Lean
 D. Pounds of Lean and Days to 250
A

Days to 250 and Backfat

362
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a way to select parents in a breeding program?
 A. Grading up
 B. Visual selection
 C. Pedigree
 D. Expected Progeny Differences
A

Grading Up

363
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of inbreeding?
A. Surfacing of deleterious gene
B. increase uniformity
C. Noticeable improvement of fourth generation
D. Reduction in performance

A

Noticeable improvement of fourth generation

364
Q 
Which system is the mating of animals of different breeds?
 A. Grading up
 B. Crossbreeding
 C. Inbreeding
 D. Linebreeding
A

Crossbreeding

365
Q 
What is the proper term for the measure of how inbred an animal is?
 A. Inbreeding coefficient
 B. Inbreeding measurement
 C. Inbred ratio
 D. Inbreeding results
A

Inbreeding coefficient

366
Q 
What is the value of an animal as a parent?
 A. Grading up
 B. Breeding value
 C. Hybrid vigor
 D. Inbreeding coefficient
A

Breeding Value

367
Q 
Which system consists of breeding purebred sires to commercial females?
 A. Inbreeding
 B. Linebreeding
 C. Cross breeding
 D. Grading up
A

Grading Up

368
Q

The composite breeding system combines desirable traits of how many breeds of cattle?
A. One
B. Two
C. Two or more
D. There is no such thing as a composite breeding system

A

Two or more

369
Q 
Which crossbreeding system produces replacement females through the rotation and produces crossbred offspring?
 A. Inbreeding coefficient
 B. Inbreeding measurement
 C. Inbred ratio
 D. Inbreeding results
A

Inbreeding coefficient

370
Q 
How does the modified static system differ from the static system?
 A. Produces replacement females
 B. Produces replacement males
 C. Produces terminal sires
 D. Produces terminal dams
A

produces replacement females

371
Q 
In a two breed rotational crossbreeding system, which generation and sire will have a 75 percent Breed A and 25 percent Breed B?
 A. First generation; Breed B
 B. Second generation; Breed A
 C. Third generation; Breed B
 D. Fourth generation; Breed A
A

2nd generation

372
Q

In a static crossbreeding system, which of the following is true regarding replacement females?
A. Purchased or produced in a separate population
B. Purchased or produced in same operation
C. Produced in a rotational crossbreeding system
D. Purchased from a composite breeding system

A

Purchased or produced in a separate population

373
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered an advantage of embryo transfer?
A. Greater use of genetically superior females
B. Decreases time and supervision of female herd
C. Fast way to acquire offspring for progeny testing
D. Allow females with long gestation periods to meet their genetic
material

A

Decreases time and supervision of female herd

374
Q 
Pen mating is mostly used by which of the following?
 A. Commercial breeders
 B. Purebred breeders
 C. Inbreeding breeders
 D. Small operations
A

Commercial breeders (Having a bull for your cows in the pasture)

375
Q 
What is the first step in the process of AI?
 A. Select the bull
 B. Detect when female is in heat
 C. Introduce semen into uterus
 D. Collect semen
A

Select the bull

376
Q 
What is the process by which semen from the male is placed in the reproduction tract of the female through methods other than natural service?
 A. Hand mating
 B. Embryo transfer
 C. Stud mating
 D. Artificial insemination
A

Artificial insemination

377
Q 
Which mating system results in maximum breeding by a superior male?
 A. Pen mating
 B. Stud mating
 C. Hand mating
 D. Embryo transfer
A

stud mating

378
Q

What is the first step in developing a breeding program?
A. Setting goals
B. Choosing and weighing traits
C. Determining measurement
D. Devising a strategy for selecting parents

A

setting goals

379
Q 
What type of breeding system is designed to take advantage of both hybrid vigor and breeding value?
 A. Pure breeding
 B. Impure breeding
 C. Crossbreeding
 D. Multi-breeding
A

Crossbreeding

380
Q

In which type of crossbreeding system must replacement females be purchased
from or produced in a separate environment?
A. Rotational crossbreeding system
B. Static crossbreeding system
C. Rotational-terminal crossbreeding system
D. Modified static crossbreeding system

A

Static crossbreeding system

381
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of artificial insemination?
A. Decrease spread of disease
B. Increase the number of offspring from a superior sire
C. Identifies the sire for fertility
D. Increases the number of sires needed

A

Increases the number of sires needed

382
Q 
What method of breeding is used to develop specialized “lines” of animals?
 A. Inbreeding
 B. Crossbreeding
 C. Pure breeding
 D. Multi-breeding
A

Inbreeding

383
Q

Selection of which parent is more important when a producer is developing a breeding program?
A. Sire selection
B. Dam selection
C. Selection of both parents is equally important
D. Selection of the parents is not important

A

Sire selection

384
Q 
If you chose grading up as the method of breeding for your operation, what generation would you see the most evidence of improvement?
 A. Second generation
 B. Third generation
 C. Fourth generation
 D. Fifth generation
A

4th generation

385
Q

What is hybrid vigor?
A. Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds
B. The value of an animal as a parent
C. The performance expected from the progeny of each sire or dam
D. The mating of related individuals in which the sire and dam share at least one ancestor

A

Crossbred offspring exceeds the average of the two parental breeds

386
Q 
What two types of breeding systems are generally used by individuals in the purebred industry?
 A. Inbreeding and linebreeding
 B. Crossbreeding and inbreeding
 C. Crossbreeding and linebreeding
 D. Half breeding and full breeding
A

inbreeding and linebreeding

387
Q 
What method of breeding can increase conception rates by five to ten percent?
 A. Artificial breeding
 B. Stud mating
 C. Pen mating
 D. Hand mating
A

hand mating

388
Q 
What is meiosis called in males?
 A. Mitosis
 B. Oogenesis
 C. Spermatogenesis
 D. Homologous
A

Spermatogenesis

389
Q 
What is meiosis called in females?
 A. Mitosis
 B. Oogenesis
 C. Spermatogenesis
 D. Homologous
A

Oogenesis

390
Q

What are the products of meiosis in females?
A. One ovum and two or three polar bodies
B. Two ova and two or three polar bodies
C. One ovum and three or four polar bodies
D. Two ovum and three or four polar bodies

A

One ovum and two or three polar bodies

391
Q 
What are the products of meiosis in males?
 A. Eight functional haploid cells
 B. Four functional haploid cells
 C. Two functional haploid cells
 D. One functional haploid cell
A

Four functional haploid cells

392
Q 
The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes is known as which of the following?
 A. DNA
 B. Crossing over
 C. RNA
 D. Allele
A

Crossing over

393
Q

The sex of an animal is determined at fertilization.
A. True
B. False

A

True

394
Q

In mammals, the male carries a set of identical chromosomes for sex
determination.
A. True
B. False

A

False

395
Q

After meiosis, half of the sperm and half of the eggs carry the Y chromosome.
A. True
B. False

A

False

396
Q

If a lamb’s chromosomes are XY, then it will be a male.
A. True
B. False

A

True

397
Q

If a chicken’s chromosomes are ZW, then it will be a female?
A. True
B. False

A

True

398
Q

The functions of genes are to reproduce themselves and provide codes for protein synthesis.
A. True
B. False

A

True

399
Q

Genes are parts of the chromosomes which control the development of certain characteristics.
A. True
B. False

A

True

400
Q

DNA is composed of deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and six nitrogen bases.
A. True
B. False

A

False (4 nitrogen bases)

401
Q 
The structure formed by deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and a nitrogen base is called which of the following?
 A. Nucleotide
 B. Ribosome
 C. Amino acid
 D. Helix
A

nucleotide

402
Q 
Which of the following is NOT one of the nitrogen bases found in DNA?
 A. Guanine
 B. Thymine
 C. Adenine
 D. Lysine
A

Lysine

403
Q 
In the pairing of the nitrogen bases, which base always pairs with cytosine?
 A. Adenine
 B. Guanine
 C. Thymine
 D. Pyrimidine
A

Guanine

404
Q 
In RNA, the nitrogen base thymine is replaced by which of the following bases?
 A. Adenine
 B. Cytosine
 C. Guanine
 D. Uracil
A

Uracil

405
Q 
Which of the following is a type of RNA which carries the code for protein synthesis to the cytoplasm?
 A. Messenger RNA
 B. Ribosomal RNA
 C. Transfer RNA
 D. Sender RNA
A

Messenger RNA

406
Q 
What is the structure which combines amino acids to form proteins?
 A. Nucleus
 B. Vesicle
 C. Ribosome
 D. Vacuole
A

Ribosome

407
Q 
Which of the following is a type of RNA which reads the code and carries amino acids through the cytoplasm?
 A. Messenger RNA
 B. Ribosomal RNA
 C. Transfer RNA
 D. Sender RNA
A

Transfer RNA

408
Q

Genetics makes it possible for organisms to pass their characteristics on to their offspring.
A. True
B. False

A

True

409
Q

Genotype and phenotype are essentially the same.
A. True
B. False

A

False

410
Q 
What is the genetic makeup of an organism called?
 A. Phenotype
 B. Genotype
 C. Heredity
 D. Homologous
A

Genotype

411
Q 
Which of the following is the actual physical appearance of an organism?
 A. Phenotype
 B. Genotype
 C. Heredity
 D. Homologous
A

Phenotype (Physical)

412
Q 
Who is the man known to be responsible for the five basic rules of genetics?
 A. Oliver Mendel
 B. Gregor Mendel
 C. Gregor Mandela
 D. Ivan Pavlov
A

Gregor Mendel

413
Q 
In what molecule are genes located?
 A. DNA
 B. RNA
 C. mRNA
 D. Chromosomes
A

DNA

414
Q 
Which of the following is the type of cell division by which somatic cells
divide?
 A. Meiosis
 B. Mitosis
 C. Oogenesis
 D. Spermatogenesis
A

mitosis

415
Q 
Which of the following refers to the number of chromosomes in a sex cell which is half of the original number?
 A. Diploid
 B. Haploid
 C. Gametes
 D. Chromatin
A

Haploid

416
Q 
In meiosis, crossing over of chromosomes results in a healthy population because of which of the following?
 A. Prophase
 B. Genetic variability
 C. Mitosis
 D. Homologous chromosomes
A

Genetic variability

417
Q 
Which of the following chromosome pairings would a normal female duck have?
 A. XY
 B. XX
 C. ZW
 D. ZZ
A

ZW

418
Q 
The DNA molecule is usually found in what form?
 A. Double helix
 B. Single strand
 C. Hexagon
 D. Nucleotide
A

Double helix

419
Q 
Which of the following nitrogen bases is NOT found in RNA?
 A. Uracil
 B. Thymine
 C. Adenine
 D. Guanine
A

Thymine

420
Q 
In what structure are proteins produced?
 A. Ribosome
 B. Nucleus
 C. DNA molecule
 D. Cell wall
A

Ribosomes

421
Q 
Which of the following is determined by both genetics and environment?
 A. Genotype
 B. Genetic variability
 C. Phenotype
 D. Oogenesis
A

phenotype

Animal and Vet Science (2 decks)

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