Veterinary Parasitology

Question 1

Which of the following animals would be most likely to serve as a source of Trichinella spp. infection to humans in the U.S.?

a deer
b sheep
c cattle
d bear

Answer 1

d

Trichinellosis also known as Trichinosis is caused by the nematode Trichinella. The lifecycle of this worm can be domestic or sylvatic cycle. In sylvatic cyle it affects different animals but the most often associated with human infection are bear, moose and wild boar

Question 2

What is the white tubular structure seen spirally twisted on the intestine of a female Haemonchus contortus?

a copulatory bursa
b ovary
c esophagus
d cecum

Answer 2

b

Haemonchus contortus’s didelphic reproductive system in females possesses telogonic ovaries with a germinal zone and a thin layer of squamous epithelium surrounds the growing zone. In the growth zone, the ovaries are tightly coiled around the intestine suggesting the trans-membrane flow of nutrients from the later to the former. The white ovary and the red intestine twisted together resulted to its barber pole’s appearance.

Question 3

Creeping eruptions in man is caused by which parasite?

a hookworm
b arrow-headed worm
c thorny-headed worm
d biting midges

Answer 3

a

Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM), also having been termed the clinical sign of creeping eruption, is an infectious syndrome caused by multiple types of hookworms. This is most commonly transmitted by animal feces depositing eggs in the soil, with larvae entering humans through direct contact with skin

Question 4

What will be the cause of death in case the hydatid cyst ruptures inside the body of the host?

a hypotensive shock
b anaphylactic shock
c amputation of limb
d dehydration

Answer 4

b

Rupture of the hydatid cyst releases hydatid fluid which is antigenic and toxic to the body. This leads to anaphylactic reactions.

Question 5

A 3-year-old lethargic and anemic dog was presented to you. You performed blood smear and you observed large, paired piroplasms within erythrocytes. Which do you think is the most appropriate treatment?

a enrofloxacin
b ivermectin
c imidocarb
d sulfadimethoxine

Answer 5

c

This is a case of canine Babesiosis and the best possible treatment among the choices is Imidocarb. Imidocarb is a urea derivative used in the practice as an antiprotozoal agent.

Question 6

Which of the following ingests more blood in the span of 24 hours?

a One adult Ancylostoma caninum
b One gravid Ctenocephalides felis
c Both A and B ingests an equal amount of blood
d Neither A and B ingest blood

Answer 6

a

One adult A. caninum can ingest 0.1 mL of blood in a day. One gravid C. felis consumes 13.6 uL of blood in a day (that’s 0.0136 mL).

Learn more about hookworms here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_qELNE7V7A8 Learn more about fleas and their life cycle here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=va-ce4iDup8

Question 7

A cat rapidly develops severe neurologic signs that include seizures. After the cat dies, necropsy reveals a 15 cm long, thin, white worm in the brain tissue. The worm is most likely?

a Dirofilaria immitis
b Toxocara cati
c Gnathostoma spinigerum
d Toxoscaris leonina

Answer 7

a

In cat, Dirofilaria immitis have usually been recovered from the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. In cats, there is also a tendency for the worms to appear in ectopic sites. There have been several cases reported where heartworms have been recovered from the brains of cats at necropsy. The long white worms are very easily recognized when removed from the cat either surgically or at necropsy.

Question 8

An intact male feral kitten presents for routine examination. You notice large numbers of glistening white eggs adherent to the hair shafts on the dorsal and lateral aspect of the thorax. Closer inspection reveals several dorsoventrally flattened insects clinging to the hair shafts themselves. What parasite is this?

a Phthirus
b Linognathus
c Hematopinus
d Felicola

Answer 8

d

Felicola subrostrata is commonlyn known as cat louse. Lice can live in the environment provided by the skin and hair. It can be seen as white eggs known as nits that addhears to the hairs of the host near the skin. The nits age glued by female lice are tightly attached and ordinary shampooing will not dislodge them.

Question 9

A dog developed eosinophilic pleuritis. A microscopic exam revealed Paragonimus spp egg. Ingestion of what caused the disease?

a crayfish
b snails
c ants
d fish

Answer 9

a

Dogs become infected by Paragonimus kellicoti by eating raw crayfish or crabs that contain the encysted parasite. The young flukes eventually migrate to the lungs where they become established.

Question 10

Kittens are most likely infected with Toxocara cati through:

a. transplacental migration of larvae from the queen
b. transmammary migration of larvae from the queen
c inhalation
d skin penetration by infective larvae

Answer 10

b

Cats can become infected through one of three methods: consuming contaminated eggs, consuming mice that contain larvae, or infecting kittens through transmammary infection. Toxocara cati infection in kittens frequently manifests as without any clinical symptoms. However, it is commonly believed that kittens are capable of exhibiting symptoms comparable to puppies with modest worm burdens, i.e., a pot-bellied appearance and a general failure to thrive.

Question 11

Which Eimeria spp will cause “salt and pepper” lesion in the mid-intestine of chicken?

a Eimeria brunette
b Eimeria necatrix
c Eimeria maxima
d Eimeria acervulina

Answer 11

b

The anterior and middle regions of the small intestine experience significant damages as a result of E. necatrix infection. On the serosal surface, there are tiny white spots that are typically accompanied by spherical, bright- or dull-red patches of different sizes. This appearance is sometimes described as ““salt and pepper.””

Question 12

Which parasitic nematode ruminant is of most concern in case of pale mucous membrane as theo predominant clinical sign?

a Fascioloides
b Trichostrongylus
c Haemonchus
d Schistosoma

Answer 12

c

Haemonchus are blood feeders and can cause severe anemia, hypoproteinemia, and resultant edema.

Question 13

A Beagle housed in an outdoor doghouse with straw bedding develops ventral papular dermatitis characterized by crusts and scales. Treatment with corticosteroids and antifungal does not resolve the lesions. Skin scrapings reveal nematode larvae that are all the same in size and have short esophagus with a bulb at its base. No parasites are detected in repeated fecal examinations. Treatment with an organophosphate dip removes the parasites and the disease resolves. The skin disease in this dog was most likely caused by:

a Rhabditis strongyloides
b Strongyloides stercoralis
c Demodex caninum
d Uncinaria sternocephala

Answer 13

a

Rhabditis strongyloides is a free-living nematode that occasionally becomes a facultative parasite of the skin.

Question 14

Which of the following biting flies has been implicated as a biological vector of African horse sickness?

a Anopheles
b Culex
c Culicoides
d Simulium

Answer 14

c

African horse sickness is a non-contagious disease transmitted by Culicoides biting midges. The virus replicates in insect and equine hosts.

Question 15

Cyst of which parasite is visible to the naked eye as whitish streaks along the muscle fibers?

a Eimeria
b Neospora
c Toxoplasma
d Sarcocystis

Answer 15

d

The large Sarcocystis cysts found in ducks, sheep, rabbits, and mice are easily seen with the unaided eye as grayish to whitish streaks, 1-10 mm in length, running lengthwise with the muscle fibers.

Question 16

Which of the following statements on the general life cycle of Babesia species is INCORRECT?

a. Infective sporozoites from the tick vector enter the host erythrocyte and undergo merogony.
b. Gametocytes are formed in the erythrocytes of vertebrate host and can be acquired by the ticks.
c. The zygote formed in the tick midgut lumen produces motile kinetes
d. Kinetes may penetrate the ovary resulting to transovarial transmission, or the salivary glands where sporogony occurs.

Answer 16

b

Gametocytes are formed in the lumen of the tick midgut.

Question 17

The most effective mechanical vector of Equine Infectious Anemia is:

a Phlebotomus spp.
b blackflies
c tsetse flies
d horse flies

Answer 17

d

Horse flies, deer flies, and to a lesser extent, stable flies are mechanical vectors of the EIA virus. Feeding of these flies from one host to another to complete their blood meal makes the transmission of the virus efficient. This occurs as the host defensive behavior is triggered upon feeding of the flies, disrupting their feeding.

Question 18

Which of the following parasite can cause parasitic castration?

a Dermatobia hominis
b Cuterebra emasculator
c Ixodes persulcatus
d Margaropus winthemi

Answer 18

b

Cuterebra emasculator, the squirrel bot fly, is a species of new world skin bot fly in the family Oestridae. The species’ name comes from the belief that larvae ate the testicles of chipmunks. This belief is false, as parasitism by the larvae of these flies does not result in lower fertility - chipmunks mate in the spring, while botfly infections occur in the summer, and the larva does not impede sperm production as they reside below the skin.

Question 19

This is a relatively unusual Eimeria species in that it often will be found in the epithelium of the biliary system, it can cause marked hypertrophy of the epithelium and significant pathogenic changes on the surface of the liver as large white foci that may be visible on necropsy, and it often is fatal.

a Eimeria bovis
b Eimeria truncata
c Eimeria stiedae
d Eimeria acervulina

Answer 19

c

Among the other choices, only Eimeria stiedae affects the liver. The rest are in the intestinal segment.

Question 20

Which drug will you administer to a pig infested with scabies and ascaris?

a Malathion
b Hygromycin
c Ivermectin
d Dichlorvos

Answer 20

c

Ivermectin is effective in the treatment of both scabies and ascaris infestations. Dichlorvos and malathion are organophosphate acaricides, while Hygromycin is an effective antibiotic against Ascaris, Oesophagostomum, and Trichuris in pigs.

Question 21

Man can be infected with Capillaria philippinensis thru:

a ingestion of infected raw fish
b direct contact
c ingestion of infected beef
d ingestion of infected snail

Answer 21

a

The infective larvae of C. philippinensis develop in tissue of freshwater fish. Ingestion of undercooked fish results in infection of human host.

Question 22

A specimen was submitted to you and was previously identified as Eimeria subepithelialis. The parasite was most likely collected from which of the following?

a parrot
b carp
c snake
d rabbit

Answer 22

b

Eimeria subepithelialis is parasitic in the intestinal tract of common carp causing nodular coccidiosis.

Question 23

Ingestion of which stage of Diphyllobothrium latum will result in patent infection?

a Coracidium
b Procercoid
c Plerocercoid
d Metacestode

Answer 23

c

Plerocercoid from 2nd intermediate hosts can result in patent infection.

Question 24

Which of the following serves as vectors of Equine Infectious Anemia?

a ticks
b mites
c flies
d fleas

Answer 24

c

Equine infectious anemia (EIA) is a noncontagious infectious disease of horses. The causative agent, EIA virus, is an RNA virus, classified in the Lentivirus genus, family Retroviridae. All horses infected with EIA virus remain lifelong carriers. Transmission of EIA by biting flies is purely mechanical; the virus does not replicate in the insect. Horse flies, deer flies, and to a lesser extent, stable flies, are the most efficient vectors of the virus.

Question 25

Where is the predilection site of Strongylus vulgaris?

a Renal vein
b Cranial mesenteric artery
c Coeliac artery
d Thigh vein

Answer 25

b

S. vulgaris is the most pathogenic nematode parasite of horses. It is known for extensive migration in the cranial mesenteric artery which can lead to life threatening intestinal infarctions.

Question 26

Hyalomma truncatum secretes a toxin while sucking blood, causing a condition known as “sweating sickness” in:

a ruminants
b man
c dog
d horse

Answer 26

a

Hyalomma truncatum, also known as the shiny hyalomma or small smooth bont-legged tick, is a species of hard tick in the family Ixodidae. It is found in Africa. Sweating sickness is a tick-borne, toxic condition that affects the skin and visible mucous membranes of cattle. The cause is a toxin attracted to skin, which is secreted by females of certain strains of the tick Hyalomma truncatum.

Question 27

Which of the following nematodes is classified as “bursate”?

a Ascarids
b Oxyurids
c Strongylids
d Spirurids

Answer 27

c

Bursa is a lobular modification of the male posterior end in some groups of nematodes which is highly elaborated in strongylid nematodes.

Question 28

Which of the following usual practice in South East Asian region that most likely the cause of Pentastomiasis in man?

a drinking snake wine
b ingestion of lizard
c drinking of snake’s bile
d ingestion of rabbit meat

Answer 28

b

Pentastonids parasitizes the respiratory tract of reptiles. Man can be infected by ingestion of lizards. Lizards are ingested in a belief that it can cure asthma.

Question 29

What is the shape of the basis capituli of Rhipicephalus?

a octagonal
b hexagonal
c oblong
d triangular

Answer 29

b

Basis capitulum is the base of the head of ticks onto which mouthparts are attached. Basis capitulum is the distinguishing part of Rhipicephalus as it is the only tick species with hexagonal-shaped capitulum.

Question 30

Cattle with chronic Fasciola hepatica infection typically have:

a fibrotic bile duct
b rumenitis
c pneumonia
d renal disease

Answer 30

a

Fasciola hepatica is one of the most important flukes of domestic ruminants worldwide, causing liver fluke disease (liver rot, fascioliasis). Chronic liver fluke disease is more common in cattle and rarely fatal. Acute and subacute disease is more common in sheep and camelids and is often fatal. The lesion in the bile ducts is thought to be due, in part, to the secretion of large amounts of proline by the parasites.

Question 31

White, porous, proliferative encrustations affecting the corners of the mouth, cere, beak, and rarely the periorbital area, legs, or vent are common in budgerigars. Which of the following parasites is most usually responsible for it?

a. Knemidocoptes pilae
b Sternostoma tracheacolum
c Dermanyssus gallinae
d Knemidocoptes gallinae

Answer 31

a

Knemidocoptes pilae commonly causes crusty legs and face in budgerigars

Question 32

Summer bleeding, which is a condition produced by Parafilaria multipapillosa, is a disease of which domestic animals?

a cat
b cattle
c horse
d primates

Answer 32

c

Parafilaria multipapilosa is a nematode that infects horses. It causes the disease known as ““summer bleeding”” due to the pathognomonic clinical signs such bleeding and the skin nodules.

Question 33

Dorsally spined tail nematodes were seen in the feces of a cat with a history of coughing and dyspnea. The cat is most likely infected with:

a Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
b Crenosoma vulpis
c Ollulanus tricuspis
d Physaloptera praeputialis

Answer 33

a

Aelurostrongylus abstrusus is common in cats around the world. The cat appears to be the only definitive host; wild mice and other rodents, along with frogs, toads, snakes, lizards, and small birds, can serve as transport hosts. Crenosoma vulpis is a lung parasite of foxes. Ollulanus tricuspis nematodes are worms found in the gastric mucosa of the cat. Physaloptera praeputialis are pink worms found in the stomach of cat, usually with their anterior end attached to the mucosa. First-stage larvae are passed in the feces. The larvae are about 400 μm long, have “kinky” tail with a dorsal spine. Nematodes and eggs may cause chronic coughing, dyspnea, open-mouth breathing, sneezing, wheezing or no clinical signs.

Question 34

A lemon-shaped parasite ova were found on fecal flotation of a 5-year-old dog with the history of intermittent bloody diarrhea. Which of the following is the most appropriate labeled pharmacotherapy?

a fenbendazole
b ivermectin
c metronidazole
d trimethoprim-sulfa

Answer 34

a

By description, the one saw in fecalysis is an egg of Trichuris spp (whipworms) which is actually related to the manifesting clinical sign which is intermittent bloody diarrhea. Among the choices, fenbendazole is the most recommended drug as it is a broad spectrum benzimidazole anthelmintic used against gastrointestinal parasites including whipworms.

Question 35

The lesions of coccidia usually confined at the upper segment of the small intestine is suggestive of which Eimeria species?

a Eimeria brunetti
b Eimeria acervulina
c Eimeria tenella
d Eimeria necatrix

Answer 35

b

Coccidiosis is a protozoal disease causing diarrhea, weight loss, and decreased production in poultry. Diagnosis is by fecal flotation to detect oocysts, often in combination with characteristic necropsy findings. E tenella infections are found only in the ceca and can be recognized by accumulation of blood in the ceca. This is the most pathogenic among poulty Eimeria spp. E necatrix produces major lesions in the proximal and mid portions of the small intestine. They produce the characteristic “salt and pepper” lesion. E acervulina is the most common cause of infection. Lesions include numerous whitish, oval or transverse patches in the upper half of the small intestine, which may be easily distinguished on gross examination. E brunetti is found in the lower small intestine, rectum, ceca, and cloaca.

Question 36

Haematopinus eurysternus is a louse that is generally found in which of the following:

a cattle
b horse
c pig
d cat

Answer 36

a

Haematopinus eurysternus is known as the short-nosed cattle louse; H. asini is the horse-sucking louse; and H. suis is also known as the pig louse.

Question 37

Lungworm infection of the lower respiratory tract in cats, usually resulting in bronchitis or pneumonia, can be caused by any of several parasitic nematodes (roundworms), including Aelurostrongylus abstrusus and Eucoleus aerophilus. What is the transmission route of Eucoleus aerophilus?

a Ingestion of slug
b Ingestion of bird
c Ingestion of rodent
d Direct life cycle

Answer 37

d

Eucoleus aerophilus (with a direct life cycle) is transmitted through contaminated sputum and feces. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus have an indirect life cycle

Question 38

A cat is brought to your clinic because the client is 2 months pregnant and concerned about Toxoplasmosis. She added that the cat is staying indoor. Which of the following is not an appropriate course of action

a. submit a serum sample from the cat for Toxoplasma gondii
a titer and recommend euthanizing the cat if the titer is
positive
b. instruct the client to only eat thoroughly cooked meat
c. encourage the client to continue to keep the cat indoors and prevent the cat from ingesting any wildlife that may serve as reservoir hosts
d. instruct the client that she should not feed raw meat to her cat

Answer 38

a

Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the single-celled parasite Toxoplasma gondii. Although cats are a necessary part of the life cycle of T. gondii, the parasite rarely causes clinical disease in them. Immunodeficient people and pregnant women were advised to avoid cats in the past; however, the CDC now advises that this is not necessary.

Question 39

Decoquinate is continually fed to confine poultry. to control which specific parasites?

a Luecocytozoon
b Ascardia
c Coccidia
d Eimeria

Answer 39

d

Decoquinate, a 4-hydroxyquinoline, is a synthetic coccidiostat used for poultry and cattle as a feed additive against Eimeria species. This drug interfere with sporozoite development by inhibiting electron transport in protozoal mitochondria.

Question 40

Pigeon racing is one of the popular events for pigeon hobbyists. What is the treatment of choice for the most common parasitic disease that is commonly transmitted through drinking contaminated water in common waterer during transportation of pigeons and most commonly seen in crops as yellow buttons?

a Macrocylic lactones
c Nitroimidazoles
b Formamidines
d Insect growth regulators

Answer 40

c

Under Nitroimidazoles, (Ronidazole, carnidazole and metronidazole) are the most common drug against trichomonas gallinae.

Question 41

In fluke, Mehli’s gland is responsible for the production of?

a Cuticle of the worm
b Egg shell
c Cilia of the miracidium
d Yolk

Answer 41

b

Mehli’s gland, also known as Shell gland, is a component of the female reproductive system of Platyhelminthes and is mainly found surrounding the ootype. It plays a significant part in directing the eggs toward the channel that leads to the uterus of flat worms as a component of the female reproductive system. As a result, its secretion lubricates the uterine tube through which ovaries travel. It might have an impact on how eggshells form.

Question 42

At the necropsy of a military macaw, the small intestine is filled with white worms 4-6 cm long. The male worms have a pseudosucker cranial to the anus. These worms are most likely a species of:

a Syngamus
b Ascaridia
c Heterakis
d Histomonas

Answer 42

b

Ascaridia spp. are one of the most common nematodes in birds. The location in the small intestine and the large size can be used to differentiate Ascaridia from Heterakis. Ascaridia galli is a nematode parasite occurring in all parts of the small intestine, while H. gallinarum is in the cecum. However, these different roundworms do have very similar egg and life cycles and are widely distributed in different parts of the world.

Question 43

Toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted most likely to people via:

a contact with intermediate host
bingestion of undercooked meat
c contact with a cat
d ingestion of snail

Answer 43

c

Exposure to feces from infected cats can cause toxoplasmosis in people.

Question 44

A control program to eradicate Trypanosoma cruzi is not feasible because the parasite tends to infect and resides in many wild mammalian species.
Which of the following wild animals is a known reservoir of T. cruzi?

a pangolin
b bats
c mink
d armadillo

Answer 44

d

Apart from humans, a number of mammals serve as reservoir hosts for T. cruzi, e.g. armadillos, opossums, raccoons, woodrats, some other rodents, and domestic dogs.

Question 45

Which of the following method or tool is used to count helminth ova?

a Baermann technique
b McMaster slide
c Sheathers fecal flotation
d direct fecal smear

Answer 45

b

McMaster is a fecal egg counting slide.

Question 46

Brown stomach worm causes disease in cattle primarily by:

a. blood loss from wounds in the a abomasum left by feeding adult worms
b. destruction of the abomasal glands due to larval growth within these glands
c. destruction of the small intestinal mucosa, particularly in the duodenum, due to extensive larval migration in the mucosa
d. intestinal inflammation d resulting from secretion of toxins from adult worms

Answer 46

b

Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm) is the most pathogenic and most costly of the cattle nematodes. Worms can readily be seen and identified in the abomasum, and small petechiae (blood spots) may be visible where the worms have been feeding. Heavy infections they tend to coalesce and give rise to a ““cobblestone”” or ““morocco leather”” appearance.

Question 47

Sparganosis is associated with which of the following parasite?

a Taenia multiceps
b Diphyllobothrium latum
c Spirometra erinacei
d All of the above

Answer 47

c

Sparganosis is parasitic infection caused by the larva of the tapeworm in the genus Spirometra. Humans are the definitive host of the disease and can be infected by drinking water contamined with copepods which acts as the intermediate hosts.

Question 48

Tick paralysis occurs in a tick-infested animal when the ticks inject a:

a neural toxin
b neurotrophic virus
c rickettsial agent
d substance that induces anaphylaxis

Answer 48

a

Neural toxin is paralytic agent secreted through the saliva of ticks that causes rapidly progressive motor paralysis or tick paralysis. Tick paralysis is a noninfectious and neurologic disease caused by several species of ticks.

Question 49

A mechanical vector of a parasite is one that transmits the parasite:

a. directly, without development or multiplication of the parasite
b. after internal multiplication of the parasite
c. after required development has occurred
d. after external multiplication of the parasite

Answer 49

a

Mechanical vectors transmit diseases by transporting the causative agent from contaminated material (e.g. feces) on their feet or mouth parts and then spreading the pathogens or parasites onto food, drink, faces or eyes. Biological vectors may carry pathogens that can multiply within their bodies and be delivered to new hosts, usually by biting.

Question 50

What is the larval stage of Dirofilaria immitis when it is on the proboscis of mosquito?

a L1
b L2
c L3
d L4

Answer 50

c

There are 5 filarial stages of the D. immitis. Female worms release the microfilaria or the L1 which can be ingested by a vector (mosquito) during blood meal. L1 will mature within the vector until it reach the L2 and L3. Once it matured into L3 it will migrate to the probocis of the mosquito which can be transfer to another host as the mosquito feeding. L4 remains in the subcutaneous tissue and then the young adult or L5 will then migrate to pulmonary arteries.

Question 51

Which of the following is the most likely predilection site of Eimeria maxima?

a cecum
b mid-intestine
c upper segment of intestine
d lower segment of intestine

Answer 51

b

The small intestine (middle segment) is where E. maximum develops. It results in petechial bleeding, a reddish, orange, or pink sticky mucous exudate, and dilatation and thickening of the intestinal wall.

Question 52

Spircocerca lupi is a parasite that causes sarcoma in which of the following parts of a dog’s body?

a esophagus
b duodenum
c cranial mesenteric artery
d urinary bladder

Answer 52

a

The predilection site of S. lupi is the esophagus. Many dogs who have S. lupi infection doesn’t typically have any clinical symptoms, but when it does, the most common symptoms are weight loss, coughing, and dyspnea. The dog may have trouble swallowing and may repeatedly vomit after trying to eat if the esophageal lesion is very large (which typically happens when it has developed into a neoplasm).

Question 53

A pigeon was presented to your clinic with a history of weight loss resulted from 1-week of being anorexic. The oral cavity is filled with irregular yellow plugs and caseous exudates. Micoscopic evaluation revealed several pear- shaped flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane. What is your most likely diagnosis?

a Trichinella
b Trichosomoides
c Trichomonas
d Trypanosoma

Answer 53

c

This is a case of Trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas gallinae and is extremely common in domestic pigeons. It causes necrotic ulcerations in the esophagus, crop, and proventriculus.

Question 54

Which of the following products is appropriate treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?

a metronidazole
b ponazuril
c mebendazole
d fenbendazole

Answer 54

b

Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) is caused by CNS infection of equids with either of the apicomplexan protozoa Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi. Among the choices, the approved treatment of choice for EPM is ponazuril. Ponazuril is given by mouth in the form of a paste.

Question 55

Which of the following Plasmodium species can cause hepatomegaly and brain edema in infected chickens?

a Plasmodium juxtanucleare
b Plasmodium gallinaceum
c Plasmodium elongatum
d Plasmodium relictum

Answer 55

b

P. gallinaceum is the most pathogenic species affecting chickens.

Question 56

What is the double-pored tapeworm of dog?

a Anoplocephala perfoliata
b Diphyllobothrium latum
c Dipylidium caninum
d Raillietina tetragona

Answer 56

c

Because of their bilateral genital pores, Dipylidium caninum is in often referred to as the ““double pored tapeworm.”” Eggs accumulate within each proglottid until the proglottid becomes packed like a ripe seed pod. Gravid proglottids are creamy white, 10 to 12 mm in length and resemble cucumber seeds.

Question 57

Dogs acquire infection with Sarcocystis sp. via:

a. ingestion of sporulated oocyst from the environment
b. ingestion of infected tick
c. ingestion of intermediate host containing sarcocyst in muscle
d. ingestion of naked sporocyst from the environment

Answer 57

c

A dog can develop sarcocystosis after eating undercooked beef or pork containing sporocysts or after eating food infected with sporocysts from another animal’s feces. Infected dogs often have no signs, although a mild diarrhea may be seen.

Question 58

You were asked to check a Gamefowl with profuse lacrimation. Upon checking, you noticed a worm that is irritating the eye. Which of the following is the possible nematode?

a Ascaridia galli
b Oxyspirura mansoni
c Thelazia californiensis
d Menopon gallinae

Answer 58

b

Oxyspirura mansoni is a species of roundworm which infects the chicken’s eye. Thelazia is also an eyeworm but it infects mammals like dogs and ruminants. Ascaridia galli is a nematode present in the small intestine while Menopon gallinae is a louse and not a worm.

Question 59

What is the major role of tegument in the life of tapeworm?

a Excretion of waste
b Reproductive purposes
c Absorption of nutrients
d Chemoreceptors

Answer 59

c

Tegument is outer body covering of members of tapeworms and flukes which serves as protective cover and also serves secretory and absorbtive functions for nutrients.

Question 60

Which species of Eimeria can cause subclinical coccidiosis typically affecting the proximal part of o the small intestines and characterized by whitish ladder-like lesions?

a Eimeria necatrix
b Eimeria maxima
c Eimeria acervulina
d Eimeria brunetti

Answer 60

c

E. necatrix affects the entire small intestine characterized by hemorrhagic mucosa; E. maxima affects the middle to lower SI characterized by salmon pink exudate; E. brunetti occurs in the lower SI characterized by boody enteritis.

Question 61

Cats become infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingesting fleas containing cysticercoids. The fleas become infected with this cestode by ingesting:

a cysterci in circulating blood
b tapeworm eggs in larval fleas
c tapeworm eggs in young adult fleas
d infected oribatid mites

Answer 61

b

Flea larvae that feed on undigested blood passed in the feces of the adult fleas and detritus (organic matter produced by the decomposition of organisms) in the environment are attracted to the egg balls of D. caninum that are passed in the feces of dogs and cats. Tapeworm larvae in the larval, pupal, and adult fleas do not become infective until adult fleas have been on the mammalian host for a couple of days.

Question 62

Which of the following parasites does not cause visceral larva migrans?

a Baylisascaris procyonis
b Ancylostoma braziliense
c Toxocara canis
d Kalicephalus spp.

Answer 62

b

Ancylostoma braziliense causes only mild digestive disturbance and diarrhea in affected animals, but is regarded as the main cause of cutaneous larva migrans in humans. Bayliascaris procyonis mainly affects racoons and skunks, but a range of animals including small mammals, poultry, and rabbits serve as intermediate hosts and may be affected by visceral larval migration where the nervous system is invaded by the parasite. Toxocara canis mainly parasitizes the small intestines of dogs and foxes, and is also the most widely recognised form of VLM in humans. Kalicephalus spp. affects the small intestines of snakes, but may undergo VLM and cause respiratory problems.

Question 63

Which mouthpart is missing in a male Haematopota?

a mandibles
b maxilla
c labella
d labium

Answer 63

a

Male horse flies (Tabanus, Chrysops, Haematopota spp.) do not have the paired mandibles, hence cannot feed on blood. They feed on honeydew or nectars instead.

Question 64

Old age” appearance due to hyperkeratinization and hyperpigmentation of the skin can be seen in cats infested with which ectoparasite?

a Notoedres cati
b Demodex cati
c Felicola subrostrata
d Lynxacarus radovskyi

Answer 64

a

Notoedric mange, also referred to as Feline scabies, is a highly contagious skin infestation caused by an ectoparasitic and skin burrowing mite Notoedres cati. The disease is characterized by severe itching and a crusty appearance of the skin, particularly around the head, ears, and neck.

Question 65

The fresh feces of pigs showing respiratory signs were found to have oval, thick-shelled eggs containing larvae. The eggs could be from which helminth?

a Ascaris suum
b Hyostrongylus rubidus
c Metastrongylus salmi
d Oesophagostomum dentatum

Answer 65

c

The eggs of other choices are unembryonated when laid and passed out in fresh feces.

Question 66

Which anti-malaria drug posses greater toxicity?

a proguanil
b doxycycline
c arteminisin
d quinine

Answer 66

d

Quinine is used for the treatment of malaria in humans and is associated with a triad of dose-related toxicities when given at full therapeutic or excessive doses, e.g. hypoglycemia, cinchonism, and hypotension. It may also cause blindness due to retinopathy. All the other choices are generally well-tolerated.

Question 67

Hydatid cyst is a feature of which parasite?

a Taenia taeniaformis
b Echinococcus granulosus
c Anoplocephala magna
d Mesocestoides lineatus

Answer 67

b

Hydatid cyst is a parasitic feature of the larval stage of Echinococcus. Hydatid cyst are commonly found in the liver and lungs, it may also occur in other organs like bones and muscle.

Question 68

What is the management system used to prevent the continuity of the lifecycle of Stephanurus dentatus?

a Weanling Only Scheme
b Sow Only Scheme
c Gilt Only Scheme
d Boar Only Scheme

Answer 68

c

Gilt Only Scheme is one of the identified measures to control Stephanurus dentatus. The infection has long long prepatent period and this scheme prevents infection from developing. Older boars are replaced with young boars from clean herds, and only gilts are bred and then sold after weaning.

Question 69

Which zoonotic parasitic disease can be transmitted by cats to man?

a leishmaniasis
b anaplasmosis
c histomioniasis
d toxoplasmosis

Answer 69

d

People can be infected by accidental ingestion of oocysts after cleaning a cat’s litter box when the cat has shed Toxoplasma in its feces. Leishmaniasis can be transmitted to humans and animals by the bite of phlebotomine sand flies. Histomoniasis is caused by the protozoa Histomonas meleagridis (HM) that are laterally transmitted among birds leading to high mortality in commercial flocks. This is not zoonotic. Anaplasmosis is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans by Ixodes scapularis (blacklegged tick or deer tick).

Question 70

Which of the following flea is identified based on the absence of genal or pronotal combs and presence of an ocular bristle below the eye?

a Pulex irritans
b Ctenocephalides canis
c Ceratophyllus niger
d Spilopsyllus cuniculi

Answer 70

a

A holometabolous insect that has a four-stage life cycle that includes eggs, larvae, pupae, and adults. They are wingless, dark brown in color, and feature piercing-sucking mouthparts that help them feast on the blood of their hosts. The adult flea lacks genal and pronotal combs and has a rounded head.

Question 71

Numerous microfilariae were found on a blood smear from a 2-month-old puppy. The puppy’s heartworm antigen test result was negative, and heartworm preventive therapy had not yet been started. How did this puppy most likely acquire this parasite?

a Mosquito bite
b Flea bite
c Transplacentally
d ingestion of intermediate host

Answer 71

c

Puppies born to mothers with patent infections of the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis will often have circulating microfilariae in their blood at birth. It is one of the top transplacental parasitic Infections in dogs.

Question 72

Ostertagia ostertagi causes profuse watery diarrhea, anemia, and hypoproteinemia manifested clinically as submaxillary edema in an affected animal. What is the predilection site of the said worm?

a abomasum
b blood vessel
c heart
d small intestine

Answer 72

a

Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm) is the most pathogenic and most costly of the cattle nematodes. Worms can readily be seen and identified in the abomasum, and small petechiae (blood spots) may be visible where the worms have been feeding. Heavy infections they tend to coalesce and give rise to a ““cobblestone”” or ““morocco leather”” appearance.

Question 73

What is the shape of the egg of Moniezia benedeni?

a oval
b square
c triangle
d round

Answer 73

b

M. benedeni primarily affects cattle. The egg of this parasite is characteristically quadrangular in apperance.

Question 74

The Babesia species are usually transmitted by?

a mites
b flies
c ticks
d cockroaches

Answer 74

c

Babesia is an apicomplexan parasite that infects red blood cells and is transmitted by ticks.

Question 75

Repeated examination of the blood of a pigeon over a 2-day period reveals red blood cells containing elongated gametocytes of a protozoan parasite. No other stage is identified. The parasite in question is probably a species of:

a trypanosome
b Hemoproteus
c Leukocytozoon
d Babesia

Answer 75

b

The parasite being described is Hemoproteus columbae. It is a major protozoan infection reported in pigeons and appeared in the erythrocyte of the peripheral circulation. H. columbae is a species of blood parasite related to Plasmodium and other malaria parasites.

Question 76

You were asked to examine the external parasites of a chicken. Which of the following does not belong to your list of parasites to check?

a Pediculus spp.
b Menopon spp.
c Menacanthus spp
d Goniodes spp

Answer 76

a

Pediculus spp. is an example of a sucking louse or Anoplura. Anoplura is only present in mammalian hosts so this is not present in chickens.

Question 77

Mal de Caderas is a disease caused by which of the Trypanosoma species?

a T. evansi
b T. equinum
c T. equiperdum
d T. lewisi

Answer 77

b

Trypanosoma equinum affects horses and causes an infectious disease marked by fast emaciation, anemia, blood-colored urine, paresis, and edema. This disease is called Mal de Caderas or Derrengadera

Question 78

Which of the following best describes Culicoides hypersensitivity in horses?

a. Seasonal ventral and pectoral
dermatitis, with areas of depigmentation
b. Seasonal pruritus involving the base of the tail and mane
c. A bull’s-eye lesion in the middle of the face
d. Ventral midline dermatitis with ulcers and crusting

Answer 78

b

Culicoides Hypersensitivity, also known as Sweet Itch, is a condition caused by an allergic reaction to the saliva of Culicoides species known as “No See Ums.” Horses with this hypersensitivity are extremely pruritic or itchy. They will rub their manes, ears, faces, and tails to the point of self-mutilation.

Question 79

Where is the usual predilection site of Hematopinus suis?

a base of the ear
b digital pads
c inguinal area
d elbow

Answer 79

a

Infestations typically begin in the area around the ears before spreading to the lower body. The inside of the legs, the neck, the skin folds, and the ears are among the predilection sites

Question 80

Leishmania adleri is a parasite of which of the following?

a frog
b lizard
c pigeon
d chinchillas

Answer 80

b

Leishmania adleri is a lizard parasite.

Question 81

The most likely cause of death in Ancylostoma caninum-infected puppies that die of peracute hookworm disease during the second week of life is

a renal failure
b anemia
c diarrhea
d pneumonia

Answer 81

b

A significant number of hookworms can cause inflammation in the dog’s intestine, as well as a life-threatening decrease of red blood cells (anemia). Anemia is most common in puppies but can occur in adult dogs.

Question 82

What is the vector of Acanthocheilonema reconditum?

a mites
b dung beetles
c mosquitoes
d fleas

Answer 82

d

Acanthocheilonema (formerly Dipetalonema) reconditum is a non-pathogenic nematode that lives in the body cavity and subcutaneous tissues of dogs. Its importance lies in the fact that its imicrofilariae can be easily confused with those of Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm). Among the choices, flea is the most commonly reported vector although lice were also considered.

Question 83

How many pairs of teeth are present at the ventral margin of the stoma of Ancylostoma caninum?

a 2
b 3
c 4
d 6

Answer 83

b

Adult hookworms can be identified based on their teeth. Their buccal capsule contain either three pairs of teeth (A. caninum), two pairs of teeth (A. braziliense), or cutting plates (U. stenocephala).

Question 84

The following are true about Chagas disease, except:

a. armadillo are considered as principal reservoir host
b. also known as American trypanosmiasis
c. transmitted naturally by mosquitoes
d. dividing amastigote forms occur in the heart muscle cells of the infected host

Answer 84

c

Chagas disease is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi, which is transmitted to animals and people by insect vectors and is found only in the Americas. Chagas disease is also referred to as American trypanosomiasis. The insect vectors are called triatomine bugs. These blood-sucking bugs get infected with T. cruzi by biting an infected animal or person. Because they tend to bite people’s faces, triatomine bugs are also known as “kissing bugs”. After they bite and ingest blood, they defecate (poop) on the person. The person can become infected if T. cruzi parasites in the bug feces enter the body through mucous membranes or breaks in the skin. The unsuspecting, sleeping person may accidentally scratch or rub the feces into the bite wound, eyes, or mouth. Inside the host, the trypomastigotes invade cells near the site of inoculation, where they differentiate into intracellular amastigotes . The amastigotes multiply by binary fission and differentiate into trypomastigotes, and then are released into the circulation as bloodstream trypomastigotes

Question 85

All of the following are superficial mites, except:

a Sarcoptes
b Psoroptes
c Chorioptes
d Cheyletiella

Answer 85

a

Sarcoptes is a burrowing mite.

Question 86

It is associated with granulomatous disease in African cichlids and discus. Clinical disease is manifest in severe weight loss and cachexia.

a. Cryptocaryon irritans
b Cryptobia iubilans
c Amyloodinium spp.
d Oodinium spp.

Answer 86

b

Cryptobia iubilans is a flagellate that can be dangerous and can cause frequent fish deaths in the aquarium due to the said clinical signs. Cryptobia iubilans, an endoparasite that lives in the intestines and causes granulomatous inflammation of the abdominal organs, resulting in weight loss and death. Cryptobia salmositica, C. borreli, and C. bullocki, blood parasites that lead to anaemia and lesions in the haematopoietic tissues.

Question 87

What is the insect intermediate host of Macracanthorynchus ingens?

a cockroach
b beetle
c dragon fly
d flies

Answer 87

b

Acanthocephala (also known as spiny- or thorny-headed worms) are common parasites of wildlife and some domestic animal species, but they rarely infect humans. Natural definitive hosts include rats (Moniliformis moniliformis), swine (Macracanthorynchus hirudinaceus), and raccoons (Macracanthorynchus ingens). The insect intermediate host varies by species but is usually beetles for M. hirudinaceus and M. ingens. In can be beetles or cockroaches for M. moniliformis.

Question 88

The spinose ear tick has the ear canal as its predilection site. Which of the following is not a host of this parasite?

a goat
b sheep
c deer
d rabbit

Answer 88

d

Otobius megnini ( Spinose Ear Tick) affects cattle, sheep, goat, horse, deer, wild ruminants, dogs, and humans. The ear tick species affecting rabbits and hares is O. lagophilus.

Question 89

This parasite is called the “Guppy killer”.

a Ichthyophthirius spp.
b Tetrahymena spp.
c Hexamita spp.
d Brooklynella spp.

Answer 89

b

Tetrahymena spp. is a cilliated protozoa that causes Guppy killer disease as it commonly affects the guppies, although other tropical aquarium fish can be affected as well. It is usually a commensal of the fish, only becoming a pathogen when there is a build up of bacteria in the water. The lesions are similar to those of the white spot disease caused by Ichthyophthirius multifiliis.

Question 90

Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus is a pig small intestine acanthocephalan parasite (thorny- headed worm). Adults measure 10 cm (males) to 65 cm (females), are 3 to 9 mm thick, and have a transversely wrinkled outer layer. What exactly is the intermediate host?

a Cockroach
b Dung beetle
c Millipede
d Leech

Answer 90

b

Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus has an indirect life cycle that requires scarabaeoid or hydrophilid beetle larvae as intermediate hosts. Dogs infected with M. hirudinaceus shed eggs in their feces, which contain the larval (acanthor) stage. Dung beetle is the only intermediate host of this specific parasite

Question 91

Honey bee colonies are infested with honey bee tracheal mites. Which of the following fumigant can be used for controlling these parasites?

a Hydrogen cyanide
b Napthalene
c Menthol crystals
d Organophosphates

Answer 91

c

Only menthol crystal can be used safely without affecting the honey bee colonies and it is also registered as a pesticide for tracheal mite control in honey bees.

Question 92

What is the intermediate host of the kidney worm of pig?

a cyclops
b earthworm
c frog
d fish

Answer 92

b

Stephanurus dentatus is also known as kidney worm of swine. Pigs can be infected by ingestion of the larvae but earthworm can serve as transport host. Earthworms can also ingest the larva and once the pig ingests the earthworm it will also be infected.

Question 93

Which of the following parasite:final host relationship is INCORRECT?

a. Eurytrema procyanois: racoon
b. Alaria americana: man
c. Platynosomum fastomum: lizard
d. Heterophyes heterophyes: cat

Answer 93

c

Platynosomum fastosum is a trematode that infects the biliary ducts and gallbladder of cats. Intermediate hosts include lizards, marine toads, and various arthropods. Lizard is an intermediate host and not a final host.

Question 94

Which of the following is the most readily recognizable protozoan fish parasite because of o the presence of a relatively large horseshoe- shaped or C-shaped macronucleus?

a Cryptokaryon
b Ichthyophthirius
c Hexamita
d Spironucleus

Answer 94

b

The most readily recognized protozoan fish parasite is Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, commonly referred to as ““Ich”” or ““white spot disease””. It causes multiple small raised, white lesions that develop as a result of the parasite residing in the skin, fins and gill tissue of the host. It can be identified by the presence of a relatively large horseshoe-shaped macronucleus.

Question 95

Of the orders Mallophaga and Anoplura, which is blood sucking?

a both
b Anoplura only
c Mallophaga only
d neither

Answer 95

b

Lice are divided into two general categories: Anoplura or known as the blood sucking/sucking lice; and the Mallophaga or the chewing/biting lice.

Question 96

Pulmonary acariasis in monkeys rarely causes major symptoms, though it can induce sneezing and coughing. Dilation and localized chronic inflammation of terminal bronchioles are examples of lesions. What is the recommended course of treatment?

a Afoxolaner
b Ivermectin
c Fipronil
d Imidacloprid

Answer 96

b

All of the other choices are medications used for external parasites. Only ivermectin can be used to control internal parasites such as pulmonary acariasis.

Question 97

Cyclorrhaphan antennae is consisted of three dissimilar segments, the third and largest of which bears a frondlike structure is called

a arista
b palp
c labellum
d ptilium

Answer 97

a

Arista is the last segment of the antenna in the Sub Order Cyclorrapha.

Question 98

What is the host and predilection site of Eimeria stiedae?

a dog, small intestine
b rabbit, liver
c cattle, rumen
d chicken, ceca

Answer 98

b

A typical and widespread protozoal disease affecting rabbits is coccidiosis. Carriers are often recovering rabbits. There are two anatomic forms: the hepatic form, which is caused by Eimeria stiedae, and the intestinal form, which is caused by E. magna, E. irresidua, E. media, E. perforans, E. flavescens, E. intestinalis, or other Eimeria spp.

Question 99

The males of these nematodes have only one spicule, except:

a Trichuris vulpis
b Trichinella spiralis
c Oxyuris equi
d Dioctophyma renale

Answer 99

b

Males of roundworms usually possess cuticular copulatory organs (spicules) that are inserted in the female’s vulva to attach the male to the female and to widen the vulva against the inner body pressure for sperm transfer. The male of Trichinella species do not have a spicule and the tail terminates with two lateral lobes that give it a characteristic appearance

Question 100

Which of the following animal is most likely severely affected in the case of Surra?

a pig
b horse
c goat
d dog

Answer 100

b

Surra is a disease caused by protozoan Trypanosoma evansi which infects the blood of the vertebrate host, causing fever, weakness, and lethargy which lead to weight loss and anemia. It is transmitted mechanically by hematophagous biting flies of the species Tabanus and Stomoxys. Surra is most severe and most frequently diagnosed in horses and camels. It may also affect cattle, buffalo, llamas, dogs, cats, sheep, goats, pigs, and elephants.

Question 101

An acanthocephalan found in Central and South American nonhuman primates that burrows into the mucosa of the ileocecal junction and, when present in great numbers, can perforate the intestine or induce obstruction. Which of the following is the etiologic agent?

a Moniliformis spp.
b Acanthocephalus spp.
c Prostenorchis spp.
d Bertiella studeri

Answer 101

c

Only Prosthenorchis (Acanthocephalan) and Bertiella (Tapeworm) affects monkey in the choices given. Prosthenorchis spp. infestation is influenced by diet with an increased risk of exposure from ingesting invertebrate intermediate hosts.

Question 102

Snakes infested with Ophionyssus natricis usually die from:

a starvation
b secondary fungal infection
c anemia
d secondary bacterial infection

Answer 102

c

Ophionyssus natricis is a snake mite that feeds on blood of its host. Heavy infestation, when left untreated, causes anemia and death. Bacterial or viral infection may also occur secondarily.

Question 103

Pigeon racing is a popular event among pigeon enthusiasts. What is the most prevalent parasite o disease that is usually transmitted through drinking contaminated water from a common waterer during pigeon transportation and is most commonly evident in crops as yellow buttons?

a Columbicola columbae
b Histomonas meleagridis
c Lipeurus caponis
d Trichomonas gallinae

Answer 103

d

Among the following choices, only Trichomonas gallinae produces yellow button lesions on the crop surface.

Question 104

Salmon poisoning is associated in which of the following helminth parasite?

a Troglotrema acutum
b Collyriclum faba
c Neorikettsia helminthoeca
d Nanophyetus salmincola

Answer 104

d

Salmon poisoning disease (SPD), a lethal condition that affects dogs, is brought on by the obligate intracellular endosymbiotic bacterium Neorickettsia helminthoeca, which is carried by the trematode Nanophyetus salmincola.

Question 105

The adults of these nematodes occur in the colon of its definitive host, except:

a Oesophagostomum columbianum
b Trichuris vulpis
c Ancylostoma caninum
d Strongylus edetatus

Answer 105

c

Ancylostoma spp. and other hookworms typically occur in the small intestine of their definitive host.

Question 106

The following are classified as arthropods, except:

a flesh flies
b mites
c lungworms
d anchor worms

Answer 106

c

Arthropods are invertebrates with jointed legs. The main arthropod assemblages include crustaceans (crabs, lobsters, crayfish, shrimp), arachnids (spiders, scorpions, ticks, mites) and insects (beetles, bugs, earwigs, ants, bees, termites, butterflies, moths, crickets, roaches, fleas, flies, mosquitoes, lice). Lungworms are nematodes. Anchor worms are technically not a worm at all but a Lernaea species, a type of copepod crustacean of the arthropod family

Question 107

In the life cycle of Dicrocoelium dendriticum, slime balls are perceived as food and eaten by?

a oribatid mites
b dung beetle
c mollusk
d ants

Answer 107

d

Dicrocelium dendriticum has two intermediate hosts in its life cycle, namely the land snail, and ant (Formica sp.). The land snail ingests the embryonated egg, which later on forms into sporocyts, and further into cercaria. The land snail shed a mass of mucus, known as slime ball, which contains the cercaria. The ants then ingests the slime ball.

Question 108

What is the portion of the ingested food mixed with saliva and crop fluid being regurgitated by the housefly, which serves as an important mechanism in the spread of pathogenic organisms?

a Vomit drops
b Expelled feces
c Excess saliva
d Chyme

Answer 108

a

As the fly moves onto its next feeding station, it will rid itself of excess water in its crop by a process known as “bubbling” or regurgitating the water out. This is commonly known as fly vomit or vomit drops. When a fly’s feeling hungry, it will land on its food and vomit out a mix of saliva and stomach acids. These liquids have digestive proteins that help to break down the food before it even enters the fly’s mouth, turning a solid meal into a soup. Like using a straw, the fly uses its long-sucking mouthpart to slurp up its liquefied meal. Their mouthparts even have sponges at the end so they fly can suck up every last drop.

Question 109

What could be the possible clinical sign seen in a cat infected with trombiculid mites?

a pruritic dermatitis at the ears
b alopecia of the tail region
c swollen abdomen
d non-opening of the eyelid

Answer 109

a

This mite’s larvae can cause redness and itching on the cat’s skin. The adults reside in the soil and leaf litter; only the larvae form are parasitic.

Question 110

This protozoal infection in pigeons is commonly transmitted via sharing of waterer during transport or by drinking contaminated water leading to crop infection. What is the reason for the efficient transmission from water to pigeon?

a. It can swim directly into the mouth of pigeon
b. It can survive effectively in moist environment and water
c. No, It is not because of the water
d. It is because of the enzymes released by the protozoa

Answer 110

b

Trichomonas gallinae thrives in moist environments leading to infection due to contaminated waterer in pigeons.

Question 111

You were called to perform a necropsy in a cattle that died few hours ago. Immediately, you observed worms in the gastrointestinal tract. Which of the following could be the most likely seen worms given that you used only your naked eye?

a Nematodirus, Trichostrongylus
b Haemonchus, Bunostomum
c Trichirus, Ostertagia
d Trichuris, Cooperia

Answer 111

b

Among the pairing, only the Haemonchus and Bunostomun are more likely can be seen by the naked eye.

Question 112

Coenurus cerebralis is the larval form of Taenia multiceps. Dogs can be infected by ingestion of raw meat of which of the following:

a sheep
b. rabbit
c horse
d mouse

Answer 112

a

Coenurosis is caused by Coenurus cerebralis, the larval stage of Taenia multiceps. Its life cycle includes a canid as the definitive host and the sheep as the natural intermediate host.

Question 113

Which of the following fish parasites can cause “velvet disease” in milkfish?

a Icthyophthirius multifiliis
b Cryptocaryon irritans
c Brooklynella hostilis
d Amyloodinium ocellatum

Answer 113

d

Icthyophthirius multifiliis- causes white spot disese or”ich” in freshwater fish; Cryptocaryon irritans causes ich in marine fish; Brooklynella hostilis causes subcutaneous and respiratory problems in groupers.

Question 114

An ostrich farm with several mortalities especially in young birds was investigated by a veterinarian.. Upon necropsy, severe lesions on the surface of the glandular stomach were found along with a few nematodes. Which of the following nematode species was most likely to affect the glandular stomach of the ostriches?

a Codiostomum struthionis
b Houttuynia struthionis
c Libyostrongylus douglassi
d Philophthalmus gralli

Answer 114

c

Libyostrongylus douglassi, also known as ostrich wireworm, is the most significant GI parasite of ostriches economically. The crypts of the glandular section of the stomach are home to adult worms and late larval stages causing severe lesions and high mortalities in young ostriches.

Question 115

The following are transmitted by fleas, EXCEPT:

a Dirofilaria
b Dipylidium
c Dipetalonema
d Bartonella

Answer 115

a

Dirofilaria is normally transmitted by mosquitoes.

Question 116

Puppies with hookworm eggs in their feces 2 weeks after birth have typically become infected with Ancylostoma caninum by:

a. ingestion of hookworm eggs containing immature larvae
b. transmammary migration of larvae from the bitch
c. transplacental migration of large from the bitch
d. penetration of the skin by infective larvae

Answer 116

b

Ancylostoma caninum infections can be acquired by vertical (transmammary) transmission, percutaneous invasion, or ingestion of infective third-stage larvae or paratenic hosts. In mature dogs with some acquired immunity, infective larvae may not develop directly into adults, but rather migrate to somatic tissues such as kidney and skeletal muscle, where they undergo prolonged arrested development. These arrested larvae are most commonly reactivated by the hormones of pregnancy and lactation, and larvae are transmitted to suckling pups in the bitch’s milk.

Question 117

In a dog with disease caused by Dirofilaria immitis, common clinical findings include:

a hepatic dysfunction
b renal dysfunction
c. coughing, decreased exercise tolerance and weight loss
d edema of extremities

Answer 117

c

A dry cough, shortness of breath, tiredness, sluggishness, and lack of stamina are the most noticeable clinical symptoms of D. immitis infection. All of these symptoms are most obvious after exercise, when some dogs may even pass out or become confused. When listening to the chest using a stethoscope, you might hear unusual heart and lung sounds.

Question 118

The flotation technique is useful in demonstrating the eggs of the following helminths, except:

a Fasciola
b Ascaris
c Strongylus
d Taenia

Answer 118

a

Fluke eggs do not float; sedimentation is applicable for fluke egg recovery.

Question 119

The length of a female Macracanthorynchus hirudinaceus can reach up to how many centimeters?

a 10 cm
b 20 cm
c 25 cm
d 35 cm

Answer 119

d

Adults of Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus are large pseudocoelomates that vary in color from milky-white to pinkish to reddish. The body typically has a wrinkled appearance, giving the illusion of segmentation (pseudosegmentation). Adult females measure 18–65 cm long by 4–10 mm wide; adult males measure 5–10 cm long by 3–5 mm wide.

Question 120

Where is most likely predilection site of Fischoederius spp?

a liver
b rumen
c small intestine
d lungs

Answer 120

b

Fischoederius spp are amphistomes present in the rumen.

Question 121

Generally, how long will it take for the Rhipicephalus to complete its lifecycle?

a 1 week
b 2 weeks
c 1 month
d 2 months

Answer 121

d

Rhipicephalus sanguineus is a three-host tick, all hosts being dogs, with each stage of the tick life cycle coming off the canine host to moult in the environment. The entire life-cycle can be completed in as little as 2 months but normally takes longer (4-5 months) if ticks of all stages are not able to find an appropriate host

Question 122

The following organisms may parasitize the nervous system, except:

a Taenia saginata
b Taenia multiceps
c Bayliascaris procyonis
d Parelaphosytongylus tenuis

Answer 122

a

Taenia saginata lesions are found in different muscles of cattle, including the heart, tongue, masseter, and intercostal muscles. In humans, the small intestine is affected. Taenia multiceps, the cause of gid in sheep, affects the CNS of its intermediate hosts through the cyst form, Coenurus cerebralis. Bayliascaris procyonis signs in its hosts may resemble that of rabies as it damages the CNS. Parelaphosytongylus tenuis, also known as cerebrospinal nematodosis, meningeal worm, or moose disease, is a parasite of the veins and venous sinuses of cranial meninges, as well as the CNS.

Question 123

Some free-ranged native chickens were found to have swollen nictitating membranes. Upon close infection, gross worms were observed in the eyes. The worms were most likely acquired through:

a. ingestion of infective L3 in the environment
b. ingestion of infected earthworm
c. deposition by infected fly
d. ingestion of infected cockroach

Answer 123

d

The eyeworm of birds, Oxyspirura, is acquired by ingestion of an infected cockroach.

Question 124

Which parasite of often termed the Giant Thorny- headed worm of pig?

a Macracanthorhynchus ingens
b Moniliformis moniliformis
c Acanthocephalus rauschi
d Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus

Answer 124

d

Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus is an intestinal, acanthocephalan parasite also known as the “Giant Thorny-Headed Worm of Swine,” as its primary definitive host is swine. The intermediate host for is usually a scarabaeoid or hydrophilid beetle. In pigs, the prepatent period is 8–12 weeks, and the incubation period takes only 10 days; then the following symptoms of the disease may be seen: enteritis, peritonitis, diarrhea, malnutrition, and abdominal pain.

Question 125

Aside from Eimeria tenella, which of the following is classified as the most pathogenic in chicken?

a Eimeria acervulina
b Eimeria brunetti
c Eimeria necatrix
d Eimeria maxima

Answer 125

c

Eimeria necatrix and Eimeria tenella are the most pathogenic in chickens, because schizogony occurs in the lamina propria and crypts of Lieberkühn of the small intestine and ceca, respectively, and causes extensive hemorrhage

Question 126

Necropsy of a sheep that was anemic and emaciated revealed edematous and congested with small hemorrhages colonic mucosa, with several worms measuring 1.5-2.0 cm attached. This species is considered the largest nematode found in the colon of ruminants.

a Trichuris vulpis
b Oesophagostomum columbianum
c Skrjabinema ovis
d Chabertia ovina

Answer 126

d

The lesions described are those of Chabertia ovina, affecting the large intestine of sheep and goat, and occasionally cattle. The presence of a large bell-shaped buccal capsule makes it distinct. The prepatent period is around 6-7 weeks.

Question 127

Which of the following is also known as the Fringed tapeworm?

a Thysanosoma actinioides
b Fasciola hepatica
c Dictyocaulus viviparus
d Moniezia benedini

Answer 127

a

Thysanosoma actinioides, also known as the fringed tapeworm, is a worm infecting the bile ducts, pancreatic ducts, and small intestines of sheep and goats.

Question 128

Dogs get infected with the double-pored tapeworm Dipylidium caninum by ingesting the intermediate host, fleas. At which stage of their life cycle does the flea acquire D. caninum infection?

a Egg stage
b Larval stage
c Pupal stage
d Adult stage

Answer 128

b

At the larval stage, fleas feed on organic debris from the environment. This is the stage where they may ingest Dipylidium caninum eggs from the environment. The egg and pupal stages do not feed. Adults feed on blood.

Learn more about fleas and their life cycle here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=va-ce4iDup8

Question 129

Although now rarely seen in managed horses, theo migrating larvae of this large strongyle can cause severe inflammation in the wall of the cranial mesenteric artery, and this nematode was, at one time, the most commonly diagnosed cause of equine colic:

a Strongylus minor
b Strongylus edentatus
c Strongylus equinus
d Strongylus vulgaris

Answer 129

d

The major branches of the cranial mesenteric artery can be damaged by the migrating forms of Strongylus vulgaris.

Question 130

The infective stage of the following nematodes iso the third stage larva EXCEPT:

a Oesophagostomum columbianum
b Ancylostoma braziliense
c Trichuris vulpis
d Haemonchus contortus

Answer 130

c

The infective stage of T. vulpis is the egg-containing first-stage larva (L1).

Question 131

You are visiting a small “back-yard” flock of chickens and examining the animals. You find several small gray-red mites (approx 0.7 mm) on several of the chickens which you recognize as Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum. How are these mites best controlled?

a. Control of both Ornithonyssus sylviarum and Dermanyssus gallinae relies on application of approved pesticides to affected birds
b. Dermanyssus gallinae is controlled primarily by thorough acaricidal treatment of the environment, and Ornithonyssus sylviarum must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds.
c. Ornithonyssus sylviarum is controlled primarily by thorough insecticidal treatment of the Jhm environment and Dermanyssus gallinae must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds pesticides to affected birds.
d. Control of both Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum relies on thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment

Answer 131

b

Dermanyssus gallinae (the common red mite) maintains the majority of the population in the environment so it is important to monitor and treat the environment including the cracks and crevices where mites tend to reside. Ornithonyssus sylviarum mites (northern fowl mites) spend their entire life cycle on the bird. This allows them to multiply more rapidly and makes it essential to treat the birds themselves to control the problem.

Question 132

Furcocercous-type of cercaria is present in which of the following fluke?

a. Echinostma ilocanum
b Schistosoma japonicum
c Apatemon gracilis
d Fischoderius cobboldi

Answer 132

b

Furcocercous cercariae are characterized by having a forked tail. Schistosoma japonicum has a Furcocercous-type of cercaria.

Question 133

In the lifecycle of Taenia saginata, man is the:

a Final host
b First intermediate host
c Second intermediate host
d Aberrant host

Answer 133

a

T. saginata is commonly known as the “beef tapeworm”. Human serves as the final host and cattle is the intermediate host. Human infection can be due to the consumption of raw or undercooked beef.

Question 134

A mite that has long, jointed pedicels and is occasionally found in the ears of llamas is a species of:

a Sarcoptes
b Psoroptes
c Chorioptes
d Knemidokoptes

Answer 134

b

Psoroptes is one of the mange mites that affects ruminants and camelids including llamas.

Question 135

Why is it difficult to control Anoplocephala spp.?

a. continuous use of snake flesh as dressing in wounds
b. grazing near the pond where copepods are residing
c. forage mites are widespread in pasture
d. poor hygiene in slum areas

Answer 135

c

Anoplocephala sp. is cestode which needs oribatid mites as intermediate hosts. It is found in grasses or forages, thus making it impossible to control.

Question 136

Which of the following is identified to be the transmitter of Lyme disease?

a Otobius megnini
b Ixodes scapularis
c Borrelia burgdorferi
d Anplasma marginale

Answer 136

b

Lyme disease is cause by Borrelia burgdorferi which is transmitted by Ixodes scapularis.

Question 137

Which of the following is the transmitter of Babesia caballi?

a tabanid fly
b louse
c mite
d tick

Answer 137

d

Babesia spp. is naturally spread by ticks, though it can also happen mechanically. The principal vector for B. caballi, which can be transmitted transovariously through tick generations, is Dermacentor nitens, a tick that has been firmly established in regions where the temperature consistently rises beyond 16°C (60°F).

Question 138

Pilobolus is important in the lifecycle of which parasitic nematode?

a Oxyspirura mansoni
b Syngamus trachea
c Dictyocaulus viviparus
d Gonglyonema pulchrum

Answer 138

c

Pilobolus is a type of fungi in which the L3 larvae of Dictyocaulus attaches to its sporangia. Upon their consumption by the suitable host, the larvae move from the digestive tract to infect the respiratory tract of the animal.

Question 139

Where is the predilection site of Capillaria annulata in chicken?

a small intestine
b gizzard
c esophagus
d cloaca

Answer 139

c

The bird’s esophagus serves as the predeliction site for this worm, where it buries its anterior end and causes inflammation. High concentrations can be deadly and cause a noticeable thickening of the esophageal wall.

Question 140

Which of the following can be practically used to visualize small worms that are too small to be seen by the naked eye?

a iodine
b Safranin red
c crystal violet
d acetone alcohol

Answer 140

a

Iodine is readily available and can provide good contrast.

Question 141

What is the first intermediate host of Gnathostoma spinigerum, a spirurid nematode?

a an earthworm
b a snail
c a mammal
d an arthropod

Answer 141

d

The Spirurida are a group of nematodes that use an IH (usually an arthropod) and live in the upper digestive system, primarily in the stomach.

Question 142

The following blood parasites are transmitted when the arthropod vector feeds on the host, except:

a Babesia bovis
b Plasmodium falciparum
c Theileria annulata
d Hepatozoon canis

Answer 142

d

Hepatozoon canis is acquired when the vector tick is ingested by the dog.

Question 143

Corridor fever is transmitted by:

a Amblyomma spp.
b Hyalomma spp.
c Rhipicephalus spp.
d Ixodes spp.

Answer 143

c

Corridor fever, East Coast fever, or Theileriosis, is caused by Theileria parva affecting cattle and buffalo. The hosts are infected when the intermediate host, Rhipicephalus appendiculaus., sucks their blood.

Question 144

Feather damage in ostrich is usually associated in which of the following parasites?

a Libostrongylus douglassii
b Houttuynia struthionis
c Chandlerella quiscali
d Struthioliperurus struthionis

Answer 144

d

Three types of arthropods can affect ratites: lice, ticks, and quill mites. Lice can be a problem, especially in ostriches. Biting lice (Struthioliperurus struthionis) cause skin and feather damage. Treatment with permethrin spray (poultry concentration) is effective.

Question 145

Which of the following parasite causes “wet feather” in ducks?

a Megninia cubitalis
b Trinoton anserinum
c Holomenopon leucoxanthum
d Anaticola crassicornis

Answer 145

c

Wet feather is a condition that occurs when a duck’s feathers become water-logged, and lose their ability to repel water. Loss of waterproofing on their feathers also affects a duck’s ability to float The Amblycera is a large clade of chewing lice. Holomenopon leucoxanthum causes “wet feathers” of ducks.

Question 146

An egg of Pearsonema plica was detected on urine sediment examination of a 4-year-old neutered male mixed-breed dog with the history of cystitis. How did the dog become infected with this parasite?

a. skin penetration of third-stage larvae
b. ingestion of earthworm containing first- stage larvae
c. ingestion of egg containing third- stage larvae
d. ingestion of dung beetle containing third-stage larvae

Answer 146

b

Pearsonema plica (Capillaria plica) is a nematode commonly seen in urinary bladder and kidneys of dogs, foxes and other mammals. Animals can be infected by ingestion of earthworm containing first-stage larvae.

Question 147

The following can be used to differentiate Anoplocephala perfoliata from A. magna, EXCEPT:

a. Presence or absence of lappets
b Predilection site
c Size
d None of the above

Answer 147

d

A.perfoliata and A. magna can be diffentiated through the lappets, predilection site and size. A. perfoliata has four ear-shaped lappets while A. magna has none and is usually larger in size. The ileocecal valve of horses is the predilection site of A. perfoliata while small intestines of the horse’s digestive tract for A. magna.

Question 148

Horses that share pastures with cattle infected with Trichostrongylus axei and become infected with this parasite are likely to develop:

a summer sore
b gastritis
c ulcerative colitis
d pneumonia

Answer 148

b

The stomach hair worm, Trichostrongylus axei, is a trichostrongylid parasite that affects a wide range of hosts, including sheep, goats, cattle, and horses. The third stage larva, which is the infectious stage, is comparable to the cyathostomin life cycle. The larvae enter the stomach, pass through the mucosa, grow into adult worms, and then come out into the gastric lumen.

Question 149

The short prepatent period of this nematode insures that eggs of this parasite are likely to be the first detected in a fecal float on a young foal:

a Oxyuris equi
b Strongylus vulgaris
c Parascaris equorum
d Strongyloides westeri

Answer 149

d

Strongyloides eggs can be recognized using fecal flotation or fecal egg counts. They resemble ovoid strongyle eggs but are shorter and have thinner walls. They frequently have larvae inside.

Question 150

To complete the ife cycle of black fly (Simulium spp.), egg deposition requires which of the following condition?

a running water
b fresh blood of definitive host
c fresh blood of intermediate host
d all of the above

Answer 150

a

Simulium (black fly) is a genus of insect that prefers fast-running (highly oxygenated) waters. Running water is required for their egg deposition and larval/pupal development.

Question 151

At which site in the chicken will you see the Echidophaga spp? most likely

a skin around eyes and wattles
b distal end of the feathers
c scales of the feet
d feathers around the vent

Answer 151

a

The eyes, comb, and wattle of hens are prime targets for Echidnophaga spp. since they lack hair and fur in those places.

Question 152

Which of the following is the first metacestode of pseudotapeworms?

a Cystecercus
b Plerocercoid
c Procercoid
d Cystecercoid

Answer 152

c

A metacestode is the larval stage of a tapeworm, found in an intermediate host. In pseudotapeworms, the first metacestode is called procercoid. The second metacestode is plerocercoid.

Question 153

The following drugs are used for the treatment of surra caused by Trypanosoma evansi, except:

a Suramin
b Melarsomine dichlorhydrate
c Quinapyramine sulfate
d Quinapyramine dimethylsulfate

Answer 153

d

Quinapyramine dimethylsulfate can be used for prophylaxis only.

Question 154

A honey bee farm with 9 colonies per hectare was seriously devastated leading to the collapse and death of the honey bee colonies. Which of the following external parasite of honey bees is most likely to cause this damage?

a Acarapis woodi
b Varroa destructor
c Galleria mellonella
d Braula coeca

Answer 154

b

One of the honey bees’ most devastating enemies is the Varroa mite. The brood cells of bee hives are where adult female varroa mites lay their eggs. The mites feed on bee larvae and pupae, which causes the bees’ wings and bodies to become deformed when they grow up and become adults. They consume adult bees as well.

Question 155

FAMACHA technique is used to detect anemia in sheep caused by which of the following parasitic worm?

a Haemonchus
b Cooperia
c Nematodirus
d Trichostrongylus

Answer 155

a

FAMACHA (FAffa MAlan CHArt) is a selective treatment method for controlling the level of parasitic barber’s pole worm (Haemonchus contortus, also known as twisted wireworm) among domesticated small ruminant populations.

Question 156

Which of the following is the most economically important gastrointestine parasite of ostriches?

a Libostrongylus douglassii
b Houttuynia struthionis
c Chandlerella quiscali
d Struthioliperurus struthionis

Answer 156

a

The wirewormLibostrongylus douglassii is the most economically important GI parasite of ostriches. Mature worms and late larval stages live in the crypts of the glandular portion of the stomach. Diagnosis is based on finding trichostrongyloid-type eggs in the feces. The recommended treatment for the ostrich wireworm is administration of ivermectin at 0.2 mg/kg or fenbendazole at 15 mg/kg.

Question 157

Milk spot in liver is an immunologic reaction caused by which of the following parasite?

a Ascaris
b Macaracanthorynchus
c Oesophagostomum
d Fasciolosis

Answer 157

a

The large roundworm of pigs (Ascaris suum) is the most common and widespread parasite of swine. Larval migration through the liver results in focal hepatitis (milk spots) and condemnation of the liver at slaughter but no clinical signs.

Question 158

What is the larval stage absent in the lifeycle of Schistosoma spp?

a egg
b metacercaria
c sporocyst
d miracidium

Answer 158

b

Unlike other flukes, the infective stage of Schistosoma spp is only at the level of cercaria. In the entire lifecycle, it lacks redia and metacercariae.

Question 159

Which of the following diagnostic technique will most likely reveal that a respiratory disease is associated with parasitic agent in a cattle?

a Baermann for larva in feces
b fecal float for ascarid eggs
c fecal sedimentation for trematode eggs
d blood antigen test

Answer 159

a

A unique test called a fecal Baermann can identify specific parasite species. Some parasites, however, secrete free larvae rather than eggs in the stool. A special procedure known as a ““fecal Baermann”” is required to diagnose infection because these larvae cannot be found using standard fecal flotation.

Question 160

Dermacentor andersoni is also known as:

a Florida cat tick
b Tropical horse tick
c American dog tick
d Rocky mountain wood tick

Answer 160

d

Dermacentor andersoni, or also known as the Rocky Mountain Wood tick is said to transmit Rocky mountain spotted fever, Colorado tick fever, and Tularemia.

Question 161

The most pathogenic trematode of poultry mostly parasitizes which of the following parts of the host?

a intestine
b oviduct
c brain
d ceca

Answer 161

b

Species of the family Prosthogonimidae are considered the most pathogenic poultry trematodes worldwide, affecting particularly low intensity farming in rural areas. Adults of Prosthogonimus occur mainly in the bursa of Fabricius, oviduct and cloaca of ducks, geese, fowl and other birds feeding at least occasionally on dragonflies .

Question 162

Which of the following disease is most likely being avoided when turkeys are not allowed to be mixed with chickens?

a Coccidiosis
b Histomoniasis
c Trichomoniasis
d Ascardiasis

Answer 162

b

Histomonas meleagridis infects a wide range of gallinaceous birds and causes histomoniasis (blackhead disease). H meleagridis is primarily transmitted in the egg of the cecal nematode, Heterakis gallinarum. Chickens and other gallinaceous birds act as a reservoir for H. gallinarum. Chickens are typically asymptomatic carriers, but mortality in turkeys is commonly 80%-100%.

Question 163

Which of the following drugs is effective for treating Giardia and has the least toxicity problems associated with its use in dogs and cats?

a ivermectin
b fenbendazole
c metronidazole
d albendazole

Answer 163

b

In the majority of European nations, fenbendazole (50 mg/kg per day, for 3–10 days) is approved for the treatment of dogs, and it may also be suggested for cats. It is suitable for pregnant and nursing animals and is said to halt the shedding of Giardia cysts in dogs. There have been no known adverse effects. As a result, fenbendazole is regarded as the first line of treatment; nevertheless, should clinical indications persist, metronidazole may also be considered, either by itself or in combination with fenbendazole.

Question 164

A horse bitten by Simulium is most likely prone to which of the following disease?

a Fasciolosis
b Equine aural plaques
c Doruine
d Equine piroplasmosis

Answer 164

b

Equine aural plaques, also known as papillary acanthoma or ear papillomas, are caused by papillomavirus. Black flies (Simulium spp) are likely the mechanical vector. The flies are active at dawn and dusk when they attack the head, ears, and ventral abdomen of horses. Dourine is a chronic or acute contagious disease of equids that is primarily transmitted directly from animal to animal during coitus. Fasciolosis is caused by Fasciola hepatica, requires a snail intermediate host, and can be transmitted through ingestion of metacercaria. Equine Piroplasmosis is a blood-borne protozoal infection of horses caused by Theileria (Babesia) equi and/or Babesia caballi. The protozoa are transmitted by ticks.

Question 165

Where is the predilection site of gapeworm?

a small intestine
b trachea
c gall bladder
d heart

Answer 165

b

A gapeworm (Syngamus trachea), also known as a red worm and forked worm, is a parasitic nematode worm that infects the tracheas of certain birds. The resulting disease, known as ““gape”” occurs when the worms clog and obstruct the airway.

Question 166

Where is the predilection site of Trichomonas tenax?

a anus
b oral cavity
c lungs
d small intestine

Answer 166

b

Trichomonas tenax is a flagellated protozoan parasite found in the oral cavities of humans and animals and has been associated with periodontal disease.

Question 167

Pneumonyssus simicola is a parasite of the respiratory system of?

a fish
b mouse
c monkey
d snake

Answer 167

c

Pneumonyssus simicola, the monkey lung mite is the most common arachnid mite of primates, infesting the lungs.

Question 168

The following are considered as possible transmission of Toxoplamosis to man, except:

a. eating undercooked contaminated meat
b. exposure from infected cat feces
c. mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy
d. aerosol from cat’s sneeze

Answer 168

d

Toxoplasmosis is a disease that results from infection with the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, one of the world’s most common parasites. Infection usually occurs by eating undercooked contaminated meat, exposure from infected cat feces, or mother-to-child transmission during pregnancy.

Question 169

What is the shape of the egg of Moniezia expansa?

a Ellipsoidal
b Triangular
c Qudrangular
d Round

Answer 169

b

Triangular eggs are distinct characteristics of the Moniezia expansa eggs which are approximately 55 x 65 micrometers. It can infect sheep and goat. Quadrangular eggs are eggs of Moniezia benedini and ellipsoidal eggs are usually fluke eggs.

Question 170

Which of the following is the definitive host of Eimeria aurati?

a carp
b horse
c goldfish
d snake

Answer 170

c

From the name itself, Eimeria aurati is a parasite of goldfish. (Au means gold).

Question 171

Eggs of Haematobia irritans are deposited at

a. the base of the horn of cattle
b. freshly voided cattle manure
c. the nictitating membrane of the host
d. the tip of the hair of the host

Answer 171

b

Haematobia irritans takes advantage of the opportunity to lay eggs while the dung is still at body temperature. The temperature is essential for further development of the eggs of H. irritans.

Question 172

Which of the following parasites is often termed as gapeworm?

a Syngamus trachea
b Mammomonogamus laryngeus
c Stephanurus dentatus
d Ancyslostoma caninum

Answer 172

a

Syngamus trachea (gapeworm) can cause considerable losses in pheasants and turkeys. Gasping for breath or ‘gaping’ as it is known is the biggest sign of gapeworm. Mammomonogamus is a genus of parasitic nematodes of the family Syngamidae that parasitise the respiratory tracts of cattle, sheep, goats, deer, cats, orangutans, and elephants. The nematodes can also infect humans and cause the disease called mammomonogamiasis. Stephanurus dentatus (swine kidney worm) is a nematode that parasitizes the urinary tract of domestic and wild pigs, especially in tropical areas. Ancylostoma caninum is a species of nematode known as a hookworm, which principally infects the small intestine of dogs.

Question 173

The eggs of Unicinaria stenocephala is than those of the Ancylostoma.

a larger
b smaller
c thicker
d rounder

Answer 173

a

The bigger size of this worm’s eggs can also help to distinguish them from Ancylostoma’s. When present in mixed infections, the eggs of U. stenocephala are notably simple to distinguish from the eggs of Ancylostoma because they are roughly 70 to 90 um length by 40 to 50 um wide.

Question 174

Anoplurans are parasite of:

a mammals only
b birds only
c mammals and birds
d none of the above

Answer 174

a

The morphology of these host-specific, blood-sucking insects is designed for living on mammals: they lack wings, are dorso-ventrally flattened, have tibio-tarsal claws for attaching to host hair, and have feeding mouthparts that pierce the host’s skin.

Question 175

Mouthparts that are missing in non-biting flies or sucking flies?

a labrum and epipharynx
b mandible and maxilla
c palps and mandible
d labium and hypopharynx

Answer 175

b

Muscomorpha and in most lower Diptera with vestigial maxillae and mandibles, the hypopharynx closes ventrally to the lumen of the food canal.

Question 176

Acanthor is the fully developed larva of which of the following worm?

a Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus
b Probstmayra vivipara
c Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
d Moniezia expansa

Answer 176

a

Acanthor is the first larva of Acanthocephala

Question 177

The red blood cells of a giraffe are found to be infected with species of Theileria. The giraffe was most likely infected from the bite of a:

a flea
b tse-tse fly
c tick
d mosquito

Answer 177

c

Babesia, Theileria and Cytauxzoon are all tick-transmitted.

Question 178

Which of the following is a sexual form of reproduction in protozoa?

a Schizogony
b Syngamy
c Endopolyogeny
d Fission

Answer 178

b

Syngamy, or sexual fusion, is a permanent form of sexual reproduction whereby two protozoan cells fuse together to create a fertilized cell, also known as a zygote. More specifically, the nuclei of both parent cells fuse together to form the zygote, which grows into an adult through one of many types of fission. Schizogony is an asexual type of reproductive process by protozoans by multiple fission. In protozoa, a trophozoite increases in cell size while the nucleus, together with other organelles, divides repeatedly. The organism in that condition is referred to as schizont. Endopylogeny is a form of internal budding resembling schizogony, except that daughter cells (endozoites) form new organelle sets within their own plasma membranes anywhere in the cytoplasm of the parent cell (as opposed to at the periphery, as in schizogony). Binary fission is an asexual mode of reproduction in which a cell splits into two daughter cells.

Question 179

What is the final host of Taenia pisiformis?

a dog
b sheep
c rabbit
d pig

Answer 179

a

Carnivores are the final host and rabbits serve as intermeddiate host of Taenia pisiformis. Taenia saginata is commonly known as the beef tapeworm and Taenia solium is porktapeworm which both of can infect human.

Question 180

The following are obligate myiasis flies, except:

a Oestrus ovis
b Lucilia cuprina
c Hypoderma lineatum
d Gasterophilus intestinalis

Answer 180

b

Lucilia cuprina is a primary facultative myiasis fly.

Question 181

Which of the following best describes the microscopic appearance of Metagonimus yokogawaii?

a Acetabulum is centrally located
b Testes are oval- shaped
c Testes are parallel with each other
d With simple intestinal ceca

Answer 181

d

Metagonimus yokogawai is a minute intestinal fluke and considered as the smallest human fluke. The diagnosis is based on the microscopic identification of eggs in the stool. However, the eggs are indistinguishable from those of Heterophyes heterophyes and resemble those of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis. Microscpically, the ceca is described to be simple.

Question 182

The larva of this fly can migrate to the region of the spinal canal, and can be found in the epidural fat and observable within warbles at the back of cattle

a Hypoderma bovis
b Hypoderma lineatum
c Chrysomyia bezziana
d Gasterophilus pecorum

Answer 182

a

Hypoderma lineatum migrates to the submucosal connective tissue of the esophageal wall; Gasterophilus pecorum occurs in the GIT and mainly affects horses.

Question 183

Mosquitoes are known vectors of heartworm in dogs. They prefer to pierce and suck blood on:

a skin with sparse hair
b skin with rich underlying capillaries
c thick skin
d thin skin

Answer 183

b

Mosquitoes use their labella that act as sensory probes to find the most suitable area to feed on, which is usually that of closest to capillaries.

Question 184

Which of the following parasite use grasshopper as intermediate host?

a Fasciolopsis buski
b Troglotrema acutum
c Eurytrema pancreaticum
d Heterakis gallinae

Answer 184

c

Eurytrema pancreaticum is one of the most common flukes, which mainly infects ruminants. Snails act as the first intermediate host and grasshoppers the second intermediate hosts.

Question 185

Which of the following will be most likely to be susceptible with Tritrichomonas foetus infection?

a bulls > 4 years of age
b COWS
c steers
d bulls > 4 years of age and cows

Answer 185

d

Trichomoniasis is a venereal disease of cattle characterized primarily by early fetal death and infertility, resulting in extended calving intervals. Bulls of all ages can remain infected indefinitely, but this is less likely in younger males. By contrast, most cows are free of infection within 3 months after breeding. However, immunity is not longlasting and reinfection does occur.

Question 186

You were asked to be a vet that investigate the presence of Hyostrongylus rubidus in a certain locality. Which of the following is the most likely slaughterhouse samples to be collected?

a proventriculus of chicken
b abomasum of cattle
c stomach of pig
d brain of goat

Answer 186

c

Hyostrongylus rubidus is the red stomach worm of pig. It is approximately 6 mm long, red in color and quite slender.

Question 187

A mature cyst of Entamoeba hystolitica has how many nuclei?

a 2
b 3
c 4
d 8

Answer 187

c

Pathogenic Entamoeba species must be differentiated from other intestinal protozoa such as the nonpathogenic amebae (Entamoeba coli, E. hartmanni, E. gingivalis, Endolimax nana, Iodamoeba buetschlii). Mature Entamoeba histolytica cysts have 4 nuclei that characteristically have centrally-located karyosomes and fine, uniformly distributed peripheral chromatin.

Question 188

Which parasite is known as cattle grubs?

a Hypoderma lineatum
b Xenopsylla cheopis
c Cordylobia anthropophaga
d Dermatobia hominis

Answer 188

a

Cattle grubs (Hypoderma lineatum and Hypoderma bovis) are obligate parasites that cause myiasis in cattle in the Northern Hemisphere. Larval stages, migrating within the host body and in subdermal warbles, cause marked economic losses and increased susceptibility to other diseases. Xenopsylla cheopis, the Oriental rat flea, also known as the tropical rat flea or the rat flea, is a parasite of rodents, primarily of the genus Rattus, and is a primary vector for bubonic plague and murine typhus. Cordylobia anthropophaga, the mango fly, tumbu fly, tumba fly, putzi fly, or skin maggot fly, is a species of blow-fly common in East and Central Africa. The parasite produces a painful boil-like (furuncular) swelling in the skin in both man and animals. Dermatobia hominis is the primary human bot fly.

Question 189

The parasite cuts the blood arteries in the fish’s tongue, causing it to come off. It subsequently attaches itself to the fish’s remaining tongue stub and becomes the fish’s new tongue.

a Henneguya spp.
b Cymothoa exigua
c Argulus japonicus
d Lernaea cyprinacea

Answer 189

b

Cymothoa exigua is also known as the fish tongue-eating louse.

Question 190

The pathogenesis of cyathostomes in horses involve:

a mass emergence of a hypobiotic L4 from the intestinal wall
b feeding of plugs of intestinal mucosa
c mass emergence of hypobiotic L5 from the intestinal wall
d migration of larvae to mesenteries

Answer 190

a

Cyathostomes or small strongyles are intestinal parasites of horses and donkeys. The parasitic larvae develop intraluminally in the mucosa of cecum and colon, and no migration occurs. The L3 may further develop into L4 without interruption, or may undergo hypobiosis in the mucosa where development into L4 proceeds only after a period of dormancy. When the L4 emerges from the intestinal wall, they feed on the mucosa superficially and may rupture capillaries.

Question 191

Egg of which ruminant parasite is most likely to be seen using sedimentation procedure?

a Thysanosoma actinioides
b Fasciola hepatica
c Dictyocaulus viviparus
d Moniezia benedini

Answer 191

b

Fecal sedimentation is a procedure used to recover eggs of trematodes, which normally do not float in standard flotation technique. Among the choices, the only trematode is the Fasciola hepatica.

Question 192

Ticks in reptiles are least likely to be seen

a between the eyes
b at the belly
c at the head
d at the dorsal side of the body

Answer 192

b

Ticks in reptiles are frequently hidden in areas with the thinnest scaling because these areas are least likely to be nibbled or brushed off. These areas include the area behind the legs and the area close to the eyes, nostrils, and vent. The belly is rubbed at the floor so it is least likely to locate ticks at that region.

Question 193

Which of the following best describe the type of esophagus of Ascarids?

a Double-bulb
b Trichuroid
c Bulb
d Rhabditiform

Answer 193

c

The esophagus is a muscular organ that pumps food into the intestines. It can be used for identification of roundworms. The common types are filarial, double-bulb, trichuroid, bulb and rhabditiform. For ascarid esophagus are bulb type which can be described as simple and slightly thickened posterior.

Question 194

Which Capillaria sp has unusual lifecycle?

a Capillaria obsignata
b Capillaria plica
c Capillaria hepatica
d Capillaria contorta

Answer 194

c

Capillaria species usually have direct lifecycle except for C. hepatica. The life cycle of C. hepatica may be completed in a single host species. However, the eggs, which are laid in the liver, must mature outside of the host body (in the environment) prior to infecting a new host. The death of the host in which the adults reach sexual maturity, either by being eaten or dying and decomposing, is necessary for completion of the life cycle.

Question 195

An adult budgie presents with severe crusting on the beak and cere which has resulted in severe deformity of the beak. What diagnostic assay is most likely to reveal the etiologic agent?

a. serum chemistry profile
b. bacterial culture of the crusted material for the presence of Staphylococcus
c. microscopic examination of the crusted material for mites
d. radiographs to evaluate calcium deposition in the long bones

Answer 195

c

Scaly face mites also known as Budgie mites typically affects bugerigars and canaries. Symptoms include crusty thickening of the skin on the cere and on and surrounding the beak. This crustiness also can be around the vent and on the legs and feet. Budgie mites can be detected through microscopic examination of the crusted material.

Question 196

Where is the best location to collect skin scraping from a pig suspected with Sarcoptes scabei var. suis infestation?

a Axillary area
b Inguinal area
c Folds of skin on the neck
d Ear canal

Answer 196

d

Sarcoptic mange occurs in all age groups but is inapparent in neonatal pigs until signs and lesions have had time to develop. The mite Sarcoptes scabiei var suis causes most mange in swine. Scrapings from the inner surface of the ear usually reveal more mites than do other sites. Scrapings are usually wetted with 10% potassium hydroxide, cover-slipped, and examined under a microscope using a low-power objective

Question 197

A winter outbreak of acute parasitic bronchitis in a stabled dairy replacement stock is best managed by treatment with the following, except:

a ivermectin
b fenbendazole
c levamisole
d praziquantel

Answer 197

d

Acute parasitic bronchitis is caused by the nematode, Dictyocaulus viviparus. Common treatment used against it are imidothiazoles (ivermectin), benzimidazoles (fenbendazole), and imidathiazole (levamisole). The action of praziquantel is limited only to cestodes and trematodes.

Question 198

The stage of heartworm infection in which retrograde migration of worms into the right ventricle and atrium and caudal and cranial vena cavae precipitates tricuspid valve insufficiency on top of severe pulmonary hypertension. The resulting low-output heart failure, hemolysis with pigmenturia, anemia, and hepatorenal dysfunction merge to produce an often terminal crisis.

a Class II
b Class III
c Class IV
d Class V

Answer 198

c

All of the following symptoms described is called Caval syndrome (Class IV) There are four stages to heartworm disease. Stage 1 — This is when a dog is infected but does not yet show symptoms. The heartworms are present in the heart even if there are no detectable antigens. Stage 2 — In stage 2, a dog will start to have less exercise tolerance and be more lethargic. A dog may also develop a dry cough. Heartworms are usually producing microfilariae to create more heartworms. Stage 3 — In this stage, you can detect definite signs of adult heartworms in the heart and vessels. They are like long strands of spaghetti growing in the heart. A dog will become increasingly lethargic and start coughing more with the possibility of coughing up blood. Stage 4 — In the most advanced stage, the heart and lungs will show significant damage. The liver will also be enlarged. Dogs at this stage are very ill and are at risk of death.

Question 199

Among the following tapeworms, which has a snail intermediate host?

a Reillietina tetragona
b Davainea proglottina
c Fasciola hepatica
d Hymenolopis nana

Answer 199

b

Davainea proglottina, also called the minute tapeworm or the small chicken tapeworm, is a parasitic worm that has chicken, turkey, guineafowl, grouse, other domestic and wild gallinaceous birds but also pigeons as final hosts. Terrestrial slugs and snails act as intermediate hosts. Fasciola is a fluke and not a tapeworm.

Question 200

Which of following can be used as basis to completely differentiate Fasciola hepatica from Fasciola gigantica?

a Size only
b Size and color only
c Climate preference and size only
d Size, color, climate preference and presence of shoulder

Answer 200

d

Size is the major difference between the two Fasciola spp. However, all of the choices can be used to differentiate the two.

Question 201

Where is the predilection site of the thorny- headed worms of pigs?

a small intestine
b esophagus
c stomach
d heart

Answer 201

a

Acanthocephala or the spiny- or thorny-headed worms are common parasites of wildlife and some domestic animal species. The most common is the Macracanthorynchus hirudinaceus. In the definitive host, juvenile acanthocephalans attach to the wall of the small intestine, where they mature.

Question 202

A skin lesion on the face of a horse contains large numbers of eosinophils and nematode larvae, and improves after ivermectin therapy. The larvae are probably those of:

a Habronema muscae
b Strongylus vulgaris
c Trichostrongylus axei
d Strongyloides westeri

Answer 202

a

Cutaneous habronemiasis is a skin disease of horses caused in part by the larvae of the spirurid stomach worms in the genera Draschia and Habronema. When the larvae emerge from flies feeding on preexisting wounds or on the moisture of the genitalia or eyes, they migrate into and irritate the tissue, which causes a granulomatous reaction. The lesion becomes chronic, and healing is protracted. Diagnosis is based on finding nonhealing, reddish brown, greasy skin granulomas that contain yellow, calcified material the size of rice grains. Larvae, recognized by spiny knobs on their tails, can sometimes be demonstrated in scrapings of the lesions. Fortunately, the lesions respond very well to ivermectin therapy.

Question 203

Cattle serve as a host to a long adult tapeworm, Moniezia benedini. Cattle become infected by ingesting:

a infective eggs
b infective ants
c infective snails
d infective free-living mites

Answer 203

d

Moniezia benedeni is a cestode which infests the small intestine of ruminants, such as cattle. M. expansa is for small ruminants like sheep and goats. The parasite needs an intermediate host, the oribatid mite, to complete its lifecycle.

Question 204

Which of the following is the definitive host of Sarcocystis neurona:

a Dog
b Goat
c Horse
d Opossum

Answer 204

d

A common mistake for students is to answer C. Horse because that is the animal veterinarians directly work with. The correct answer, however, is D. Oppossum because this is where the sexual stages of S. neurona occur. The horse is an aberrant, dead-end host (although some references say intermediate host).

Learn more about Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (the disease caused by S. neurona) here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Fq_8zuPmTXM

Question 205

West nile virus is commonly transmitted to horses, people and other animals via:

a fleas
b mosquitoes
c horse flies
d ticks

Answer 205

b

West nile virus is a single stranded RNA virus. It causes the disease called West Nile fever, a mosquito-borne disease that is commonly transmitted by culex mosquitoes to human and horses.

Question 206

Pigs become infected with the thorny-headed worm, Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus upon:

a. ingestion of free L3 from the environment
b. skin penetration by L3 from the environment
c. ingestion of L3 in larvated eggs from the environment
d. ingestion of an infected beetle containing a cystacanth stage

Answer 206

d

Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus is commonly known as the thorny-headed worm of pigs. Pigs can become infected by ingesting of grubs or adult beetles containing cystacanth stage.

Question 207

What is the predilection site of Physaloptera praeputialis?

a rectum
b lungs
c stomach
d heart

Answer 207

c

The adults and larvae of P. praeputialis are found in the stomach of dogs and cats normally with their anterior end attached to the mucosa.

Question 208

Which of the following disease can be prevented by the avoidance of infected frog or snake flesh as a dressing for wounds?

a Spirometrosis
b Ligulosis
c Dipylidiasis
d Taeniasis

Answer 208

a

Frog or snake flesh are usually used as dressing for wounds in traditional medicine. This is one of route of having Spirometrosis or Sparganosis because Fishes, reptiles, and amphibians are recognized as second intermediate hosts of Spirometra spp.

Question 209

Which fluke causes lizard poisoning?

a Platynosomum fastosum
b Chlonorchis sinensis
c Eurytrema pancreaticum
d Fasciolopsis buski

Answer 209

a

Platynosomum fastosum is a hepatic trematode which causes ‘lizard poisoning’ in cats. “Lizard Poisoning” refers to disease as a result to ingesting lizards containing the P. fastosum infective stage (metacercariae) and subsequent infection with the fluke – not as a result of ingesting the lizard itself.

Question 210

Which of the following Eimeria spp localizes at the distal segment of the intestinal tract?

a Eimeria acervulina
b Eimeria brunetti
c Eimeria necatrix
d Eimeria maxima

Answer 210

b

Eimeria spp can be identified based on the location of the liver. Among the choices, only the E. brunetti localizes in the distal segment of the intestinal tract.

Question 211

Dogs typically acquire Demodex infestation from:

a association with infested dog
b the bitch as pups while nursing
c wild rodents
d contact with infested people

Answer 211

b

Demodex canis and Demodex cati are considered normal commensal fauna ubiquitous on dogs and cats, respectively, live in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands, and are transmitted early in life by direct contact from dams to nursing neonates. As normal skin inhabitants, the mites reside in hair follicles without causing cutaneous changes in most dogs.

Question 212

Chagoma, a localized reaction to injected Trypanosoma cruzi parasites, is common in thin areas of the body such as

a eyelid
b lips
c ears
d neck

Answer 212

a

In less than 50% of people bitten by a triatomine bug, the characteristic first visible signs can be a skin lesion or a purplish swelling of the lids of one eye. Additionally, they can present fever, headache, enlarged lymph glands, pallor, muscle pain, difficulty in breathing, swelling, and abdominal or chest pain.

Question 213

A rabbit with a severe ear infection caused by mites is brought to your clinic. The organism most. likely responsible is:

a Psoroptes cuniculi
b Otodectes cynotis
c Knemidocoptes mutans
d Sarcoptes scabiei

Answer 213

a

The common ear mite of rabbits, Psoroptes cuniculi, results in external ear canal ulcers and crusting. Despite being barely visible to the naked eye, the mites are big and active. They are surface-dwelling creatures that, in large populations, can be extremely irritating.

Question 214

Cattle become infected with the brown stomach worm by:

a. ingestion of infected oribatid mite
b. ingestion of infective larvae
c. transmammary migration of infective larvae
d. transmammary migration of infective adult

Answer 214

b

Cattle is infected with the brown stomach worm or Ostertagia ostertagi through the ingestion of the third larval stage

Question 215

Which of the following is the cause of the visceral larva migrans?

a Ancylosotma
b Toxocara
c Wenyonella
d Onchocerca

Answer 215

b

Visceral larva migrans (VLM) and ocular larva migrans (OLM) are the two main clinical manifestations of toxocariasis, however the majority of infections remain asymptomatic. In VLM, the larvae infect numerous tissues (often the heart, liver, lung, and skeletal muscle).

Question 216

Which among the choices best describes the egg of Ascaris suis?

a pitted
b operculated
c mamilliated
d non-larvated

Answer 216

c

One method of identifictaion of parasite is through the eggs. Some eggs can be describered as pitted or cannis, operculated or with lid or operculum for flukes and rippled surface or mamilatted as for Ascaris.

Question 217

An egg of a worm was found in camel. It is triangular in shape and can be found also in sheep. What is the parasite?

a Fascioloides magna
b Moniezia expansa
c Oxyuris equi
d Thysanosoma actinioides

Answer 217

b

Moniezia expansa’s egg is triangular in shape and ~55 x 65 micrometers in size. Its egg also has a thick envelope. Sheep is a known host.

Question 218

Which of the following animals possess genetic resistance to Trypanosoma?

a Katahdin
b West African Shorthorn
c Thoroughbred
d Nubian

Answer 218

b

The West African Shorthorn, along with N’Dama, are cattle breeds of Bos taurus type that have shown trypanotolerant characteristics. Other known trypanotolerant animals include Djallonke sheep, and the West African sheep and goat.

Question 219

A nymphal Ixodes can be differentiated from a nymph of other genera of hard ticks by its:

a. elongated third palpal segments
b. spur at the base of the tarsal segment of the first pair of legs
c. 3 pair of legs
d. pre-anal groove on its ventral surface

Answer 219

d

The larvae, nymphs and adults of Ixodes can all be recognized by the pre-anal groove. This structure is not present in any other ticks. Due to the public awareness of Lyme disease, of which Ixodes are primary vectors, this characteristic is useful in identifying a tick as a possible vector when it is brought to the clinic for identification.

Question 220

What is the snail intermediate host of Echinostoma ilocanum?

a Pila luzonica
b Brotea aspirata
c Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa
d Oncomelania hupensis quadrasii

Answer 220

a

In the Philippines, the reported snail second intermediate host of Echinostoma ilocanum is Pila luzonica.

Question 221

What is the term used to describe the inflammation in case of Chagas disease?

a lipoma
b chagoma
c hematoma
d papilloma

Answer 221

b

Chagas disease is a vector-borne disease commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated feces/urine of the reduviid bug, also known as the kissing bug or triatomine bug. Chagoma is a swelling resembling a tumor that appears at the site of infection in Chagas disease. There is an intense local inflammation and/or 2 months of uniocular conjunctivitis. Chagoma is also known as Romana’s sign.

Question 222

Man can be infected with Sacrocystis suihominis through

a bite of mosquitoes
b ingestion of raw pork
c bite of sandflies
d ingestion of cooked meat

Answer 222

b

Sarcocystosis is a disease caused by a parasite called Sarcocystis. There are numerous species of Sarcocystis. This disease usually affects animals but also can also cause disease in humans. Two types of the disease can occur, one type causes diarrhea, mild fever, and vomiting (intestinal type, for example infection caused by S. hominis and S. suihominis), and the other type causes muscle pain, transitory edema, and fever (muscular type). Most people infected with Sarcocystis do not have symptoms. Sarcocystis hominis and S. suihominis use humans as definitive hosts and are responsible for intestinal sarcocystosis in the human host. Humans may also become dead-end hosts for non-human Sarcocystis spp. after the accidental ingestion of oocysts. In the intestinal type of sarcosystosis, people become infected when they eat undercooked meat containing the parasite.

Question 223

Which of the following is the best route of transmission of Hepatozoon canis?

a tick bite
b ingestion of tick
c flea bite
d ingestion of flea

Answer 223

b

Hepatozoon canis is a protozoal agent that is known to be transmitted by oral uptake of H. canis-infected Rhipicephalus sanguineus sensu lato ticks in dogs This mode of transmission of hepatozoonosis is not typical in the classical sense of a tickborne disease; like other species in the genus, H canis and H americanum infections occur when infected ticks, the definitive host, are ingested by canine hosts. Sporozoites released from the mature oocysts in the ticks’ hemocoel enter canine hosts via the gut.

Question 224

Which fish parasite will induce excessive mucus production thus affected skin often has a steel- gray appearance (“blue slime disease”), and gills may appear bloated?

a Ichthyobodo spp.
b Uronema spp.
c Tetrahymena corlissi
d Saprolegnia spp.

Answer 224

a

Ichthyobodo spp. are ectoparasitic flagellates of fish that may cause disease (Ichthyobodosis) causing this kind of steel gray discoloration. Poor water quality and other stresses (especially crowding) may allow this mutualistic parasite to reproduce rapidly and overwhelm the fish host. The skin of affected fish may appear “cloudy” or covered with a thin mucus layer. Infected fish commonly have clamped fins, gulp at the surface for air, and “shimmy” or “shake” back and forth in the water column.

Question 225

Which of the following organism is used as a biological control of blackflies?

a Bacillus thuringiensis
b Bacillus israelensis
c Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis
d Bacillus israelensis thuringiensis

Answer 225

c

Bacillus thuringiensis israelensis is a naturally occuring soil bacterium that targets the larvae of blackflies in rivers and streams. It is a gram positive, aerobic, spore-forming bacterium that produces protoxins in the form of parasporal protein crystals. In the alkaline digestive tract of black flies and mosquitoes, the protoxins become activated into highly toxic delta-endotoxins.

Question 226

You were called to necropsy a turkey. The most striking lesion is the target-shaped circular areas of necrosis in the liver. What is the most likely protozoal cause of death?

a Histomonas meleagridis
b Eimeria meleagridis
c Tyzzeria pernicoiosa
d Trichomonas gallinae

Answer 226

a

Histomoniasis (blackhead) is a protozoal disease caused by Histomonas meleagridis that primarily affects the liver and ceca of turkeys. Gross lesions are characterized by pathognomonic, necrotic target lesions in the liver and caseous cecal cores.

Question 227

Which larvae of the following flies can cause the condition called “grubby hide” in cattle?

a Spirometra erinacei
b Hypoderma bovis
c Condylobia anthropophagi
d Gasterophilus intestinalis

Answer 227

b

Larvae of Hypoderma spp cause myiasis characterized by the presence of subcutaneous warbles on the dorsal and lumbar regions of domestic and wild ruminants. Two species—Hypoderma bovis and Hypoderma lineatum—are economically important and primary parasites affecting cattle and water buffalo. L1 larvae (~15 mm long) of Hypodermis leave their respective resting sites and arrive in the subdermal tissue of the host’s back, where they make breathing holes (central puncta) through the skin. A granulomatous reaction, referred to as a warble, forms around the larvae. Carcasses and hides of cattle infested with cattle grubs show marked evidence of the infestation and have decreased value.

Question 228

In the Dicrocoelium dendtriticum lifecycle, affected ants attach and remain on the tip of herbage due to :

a Epimeleptic cramp
b Cataleptic cramp
c Emetic cramp
d Catatrophic cramp

Answer 228

b

When the temperature drops below 15 degrees Celsius, cercaria may be concentrated in the ant’s sub-esophageal ganglion (brain-worm) and induce a cataleptic cramp. This blocks the ant from crawling up the ends of grass and plants, making it easier for grazing animals to eat.

Question 229

Which of the following is classified as the excretory organ insects?

a Malphigian tubule
b Coxal gland
c Nephridia
d Flame cells

Answer 229

a

The Malpighian tubule system is a type of excretory and osmoregulatory system in insects. The system consists of branching tubules extending from the alimentary canal that absorbs solutes, water, and wastes from the surrounding hemolymph. Coxal gland is a gland found in some arthropods, for collecting and excreting urine. The nephridium is an invertebrate organ, found in pairs and performing a function similar to the vertebrate kidneys. It is present in annelids. Flame cell is a specialized excretory cell found in the simplest freshwater invertebrates, including flatworms.

Question 230

Flea allergy dermatitis in dogs is usually observed at:

a axillary region
b webbed area between first and second toe
c base of the tail
d around eyes and mouth

Answer 230

c

An immunologic condition known as flea allergy dermatitis is brought on by the injection of flea salivary gland antigens into the host animal. Pruritis and papulocrustous lesions that are dispersed across the lower back, tailhead, caudal, and inner thighs of dogs are the main clinical signs.

Question 231

Which of the following parasitic disease will show signs of icterus, and anemia but no hemoglobinuria in cattle?

a Anaplasmosis
b Leukocytozoonosis
c Leishmaniosis
d Trichomoniosis

Answer 231

a

The most marked clinical signs of Anaplasmosis are anemia and jaundice, the latter occurring late in the disease. Haemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria are not present, and this may assist in the differential diagnosis of anaplasmosis from babesiosis, which is often endemic in the same regions.

Question 232

A 5-year-old gelding presents with ataxia and incoordination in all four limbs. A CSF tap reveals antibodies to Sarcocystis neurona. How did the horse most likely to acquire this infection?

a. ingestion of sporocysts from a opossum feces in contaminated feed or water
b. ingestion of oocysts from the feces of an infected horse
c. ingestion of a sacrocysts in the muscle tissue of an infected opossum
d. transmission of sporozoites via tick bite

Answer 232

a

Sacrocystis neurona is protozoan parasite of horses that causes equine protozoal encephalomyelitis. Horses can be infected by ingestion of sporocysts from opossum feces in contaminated feed or water.

Question 233

How long is the prepatent period of Trichuris vulpis infection?

a 1 week
b 1 month
c 3 months
d 5 months

Answer 233

c

Trichuris vulpis occurs in dogs, cats, foxes, and coyotes. Eggs are unembryonated when passed in feces and are highly resistant to desiccation, extremes in temperature, and ultraviolet radiation. Eggs embryonate in 9 to 21 days (or longer) depending on the temperature and moisture content of the soil. Infective whipworm eggs can remain viable for many years. Hosts are infected by ingesting embryonated eggs from the soil or other substrates in which eggs are found. Each female T. vulpis can produce more than 2,000 eggs per day. Larvae hatch from eggs (generally in the small intestine) and penetrate the mucosa. They develop for 2 to 10 days in the mucosa, move to the cecum (occasionally the terminal small intestine or colon), and mature into adult worms. The prepatent period of T. vulpis is 74 to 90 days or 3 months.

Question 234

Adult fleas of cats usually prefer to be:

a in the soil
b in the bedding of the host
c on the host
d in the crevices

Answer 234

c

Adult fleas of cats usually prefer to be on the host because fleas prefer to wait and jump onto a passing animal.

Question 235

A horse is exhibiting head shaking and aural irritation due to several heavily-spined neural soft ticks in both ears. What is the parasite?

a Ixodes
b Dermacentor
c Rhipicephalus
d. Otobius

Answer 235

d

Otobius sp. is exceedingly specialized biologically and structurally, infests the ear canals of cattle, horses, goats, sheep, dogs, and people.

Question 236

Merozoites are products of

a sporulation
b gametogony
c asexual reproduction
d sexual reproduction

Answer 236

c

Merozoite is a small amoeboid sporozoan trophozoite produced by schizogony that is capable of initiating a new sexual or asexual cycle of development. Schizogony is an asexual reproduction by multiple fission. Gametogony is a stage in the sexual cycle of sporozoans in which gametes are formed.

Question 237

Pastured swine are anemic and off-feed, with occasionally darkened feces. Necropsy reveals small (less than 1 cm long), reddish nematodes within the gastric mucosa. These worms are most likely:

a Trichostrongylus axei
b Hyostrongylus rubidus
c Strongyloides stercoralis
d Ascaris suum

Answer 237

b

Hyostrongylus rubidus (red stomach worm of pigs) is a gastric parasite that causes a thickening of the mucosa, with mucus accumulation and mucous cell hyperplasia and inflammation of the lamina propria by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils.

Question 238

All of the following parasites can be found in the body surface and gills of fish, except:

a Ergasilus
b Cryptobia
c Trichodina
d Icthyobodo

Answer 238

b

Cryptobia occurs in the blood of fishes.

Question 239

Which of the following is common between Cyclophyllidea and Pseudophyllidea?

a Both have 2nd intermediate host
b Both are flukes
c Both have hexacanth embryo
d Both have vitellaria

Answer 239

d

Cyclophyllidea and Pseudophyllidea are both tapeworms and not flukes. Both of them have vittelairum/vitellaria which are also know as vitteline glands or yolk glands. The cells from the vitellaria are used in the formation of yolk and eggshell.

Question 240

In the lifecycle of Fasciola spp, what comes next after redia?

a miracidium
b sporocyst
c cercaria
d metacercaria

Answer 240

c

Fasciola spp pass through phases in their life cycle in the following order: egg, miracidium, sporocyst, redia, cercaria, metacercaria, and adult fluke.

Question 241

What is the use of haltere in Dipterans?

a respiration
b balance
c flight
d reproduction

Answer 241

b

Halteres are modified hind wings and are used for balance when in flight.

Question 242

The biting lice of birds belong to which order?

a Orthoptera
b Hemiptera
c Anoplura
d Mallophaga

Answer 242

d

Mallophaga (biting or chewing lice) is a group of obligatory ectoparasites mainly of birds and to a lesser extent (only 12%) of mammals. Orthoptera is an order of insects that comprises the grasshoppers, locusts, and crickets, including closely related insects. Hemiptera is an order of insects, commonly called true bugs. Anoplura is a suborder of Phthiraptera. They are the sucking lice.

Question 243

Which of the following are effective for the treatment of clinical coccidiosis in cattle?

a amprolium
b metronidazole
c decoquinate
d. a and b

Answer 243

a

Twelve Eimeria spp have been identified in the feces of cattle worldwide, but only three (E zuernii, E bovis, and E auburnensis) are most often associated with clinical disease. Coccidiosis in cattle is usually a self limiting but drugs such as Sulfaquinoxaline and amprolium can be used as treatment and prevention.

Question 244

Piglets may acquire this nematode from their mother through transmammary route.

a Ascaris suum
b Hyostrongylus rubidus
c Strongyloides ransomi
d Oesophagostomum dentatum

Answer 244

c

The other nematodes are not transmitted by transmammary route.

Question 245

Which of the following is FALSE?

a. Babesia canis is pear-shaped
b. Babesia gibsoni is bround to oval in shape
c. Babesia canis can be detected in RBC
d. Babesia spp is found only in tropical countries

Answer 245

d

Geographical distribution of Babesia spp. is worldwide but it is normally prevalent in warm locations.

Question 246

Which of the following is being described as a laterally compressed parasite?

a bug
b beetle
c lice
d flea

Answer 246

d

Fleas are laterally compressed, wingless insects; the head is shield or helmet-shaped, compound eyes are absent, and mouthparts are specialized for piercing and sucking.

Question 247

Fasciola jacksoni is an important fluke infecting which of the following wild animals?

a tiger
b elephant
c giraffe
d zebra

Answer 247

b

Fasciola jacksoni is a significant contributor to the health and mortality of Asian elephants.

Question 248

Which of the following does NOT utilize muscid flies as an intermediate host?

a Draschiamegastoma
b Thelazia rhodesi
c Parafilaria bovicola
d Setaria labiatopapillosa

Answer 248

d

Setaria labiatopapillosa utilizes mosquitoes as an intermediate host.

Question 249

Commonly known as gopher tortoise tick which is a species of hard tick native in USA.

a Hyalomma aegyptium
b Amblyomma tuberculatum
c Dermacentor variabilis
d Ixodes daminii

Answer 249

b

All of the following choices are hard ticks. Hyalomma aegyptium (Tortoise tick) is more prevalent in hermann’s tortoises but not in gopher tortoises. Dermacentor variabilis is also known as american dog tick. Ixodes daminii is also known as deer tick.

Question 250

Although variability exists between animals, lesions of flea-bite dermatitis in cats most commonly develop on the:

a. Dorsum at the base of the tail
b ventrum
c Pinna
d Lateral elbows and lateral hocks

Answer 250

a

The area most commonly involved in flea allergy dermatitis is over the rump, just in front of the tail. Many flea-allergic cats chew or lick the hair off their legs. Itching and hair loss around the tail base, neck, and head should be considered suspicious for flea allergy dermatitis.

Question 251

Which of the following is an intermediate host for Anoplocephala perfoliata ?

a horse
b oribatid mite
c house fly
d copepods

Answer 251

b

Free-living oribatid mites act as intermediate hosts of A. perfoliata. The final hosts are horse and donkey.

Question 252

A dog that chases wild rabbit will mostly to become infected with which cestode?

a Taenia saginata
b Echinococcus granulosus
c Taenia pisiformis
d Diphyllobothrium latum

Answer 252

c

Although adult tapeworm infections are uncommon in domestic rabbits, cysts of the larval form are frequently found on the serosal peritoneum. Rabbits are intermediate hosts for two species of canine tapeworm, Taenia serialis and T. pisiformis.

Question 253

You had attended a slaughter of a culled horse. Incidentally, you saw tapeworms at the ileo-cecal junction and based on this, you concluded that:

a. cockroach is common at the farm
b. oribatid mites are scattered at the grassland
c. fish can be seen near the pond where horse is being grazed
d. stablefly is a common pest in the stud farm

Answer 253

b

Anoplocephala sp. is a tapeworm of horses that infects the caudal part of the small intestine and cranial part of the cecum (ileo-cecal junction). The horses get infected through the ingestion of the oribatid mites in the grasses.

Question 254

Which of the following is a parasite of a fowl?

a Strongylus vulgaris
b Hymenolepis nana
c Knemidocoptes mutans
d Balantidium coli

Answer 254

c

The scaly leg mite caused by Knemidocoptes mutans, is a small, spherical, sarcoptic mite that usually tunnels into the tissue under the scales of the legs of poultry birds.

Question 255

All of the following are classified as external parasites of honey bees except:

a Acarapis woodi
b Varroa destructor
c Galleria mellonella
d Braula coeca

Answer 255

a

Acarapis woodi is an internal parasite commonly known as tracheal mite of honey bees capable of infecting queen bees, drones, and worker bees affecting their respiratory system.

Question 256

Increase incidence of worm infestation in human was correlated to increase eating of raw fish. What could be the worm in suspect?

a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Eichinostoma ilocanum
c. Stepahanofilaria assamensis
d. Brugia malayi

Answer 256

a

The largest tapeworms that may infect humans are Diphyllobothrium latum. Fish eaten uncooked or undercooked might cause infection. Fish that has been properly frozen or cooked will kill the parasite.

Question 257

Emus infected with this nematode develops cerebral larval migrans with profound torticollis and incoordination that leads to emaciation, scoliosis, and death.

a Chandlerella quiscali
b Codiostomum struthionis
c Struthioliperurus struthionis
d Libyostrongylus douglassi

Answer 257

a

C. quiscali is exposed to emus after a bite from Culicoides crepuscularis. Birds with C. quiscali infection experience severe torticollis and incoordination, which cause emaciation, scoliosis, and eventual death. The preferred treatment for C. quiscali infection in emus is ivermectin.

Question 258

What is the scientific name of yellow dog tick?

a Otobius megnini
b Argas percicus
c Haemyphysalis leachi leachi
d Otodectes cyanotis

Answer 258

c

Haemaphysalis leachi leachi is also known as the yellow dog tick. it is attached in to three hosts to complete its life cycle. When the host such as a dog starts to scratch, female dog tick starts to produce a dog-repelling allomone, which enable tick to survive on the hosts further time

Question 259

Ingestion of infective Toxocara canis egg by a mature bitch is most likely lead to:

a patent infection
b. destruction of the eggs by gastric fluids
c. accumulation of c arrested larvae in tissues
d. hepatomegaly and eosinophilia

Answer 259

c

In puppies, the most common mode of infection is transplacental transfer. If pups < 3 months old ingest embryonated infective eggs, the hatched larvae penetrate the intestinal mucosa and reach the lungs via the liver and bloodstream. Then they are coughed up and swallowed, maturing to egg-producing adults in the small intestine. However, when infective eggs of T canis are swallowed by older dogs, the larvae hatch, penetrate the intestinal mucosa, and migrate to the liver, lungs, muscles, connective tissue, kidneys, and many other tissues, where development is arrested.

Question 260

Renal dropsy in goldfish is characterized by renal degeneration and ascites and is often identified by spore detection in histologic sections of the kidney. Affected fish show significant abdominal distention but little other clinical symptoms.
Which of the following is the causative agent?

a. Sphaerospora auratus
b Eimeria aurata
c Cryptobia iubilans
d Myxobolus cerebralis

Answer 260

a

Sphaerospora auratus is a parasite that causes renal dropsy. It attacks the kidneys of pond-raised goldfish and can lead to severely enlarged kidneys.

Question 261

How can a dog be infected with Pearsonema plica?

a. skin penetration of 3rd larval stage
b. Ingestion of earthworm containing 1st larval stage
c. Ingestion of egg containing 3rd larval stage
d. Ingestion of beetle containing 3rd larval stage

Answer 261

b

By consuming earthworms that contain the first-stage larvae, dogs and cats catch the infection. Most cats and dogs exhibit no symptoms.

Question 262

Small white foci found in the diaphragm of a cow during necropsy are most likely indicate which parasitic organism?

a Sarcocystis
b Fasciola
c Haemonchus
d Chabertia

Answer 262

a

Sarcocystis spp cysts appear as small, white foci in skeletal muscle. Diaphragm is a skeletal muscle.

Question 263

Infection with which fluke can predispose its definitive host to liver carcinoma?

a Fasciola hepatica
b Opisthorchis sinensis
c Dicrocoelium dendriticum
d Schistosoma japonica

Answer 263

b

Studies reported the occurrence of liver cancer in humans infected with Opisthorchis sinensis.

Question 264

What is the first intermediate host of Paragonimus westermanii?

a snail
b dragon fly
c crab
d frog

Answer 264

a

Freshwater snails serve as the initial intermediate hosts, where the flukes go through a number of phases of development (sporocyst, mother and daughter rediae, and cercariae).

Question 265

The already-hatched larvae of pinworm enter the anus causing renewed infection. This is an example of:

a autoinfection
b retrograde infection
c selfinfection
d spring rise

Answer 265

b

Female pinworms deposit their eggs near the anus on the perianal skin. Some of these eggs are detached from the perianal region and lodge on clothing, bedding, and other surfaces. Infection takes place through ingestion or inhalation of infective eggs or retrograde migration of hatched juveniles from the anus to the intestines.

Question 266

Which of the following is the most practical way to control culicoides in the farm?

a. installation of screen in the entire farm
b. application of insecticides directly in the animal
c. diking and drainage of marshlands
installation of screen in stables
d. with smaller mesh size treated with insecticides

Answer 266

d

Most biting midges can pass through 16-mesh insect wire screen and netting, so a smaller mesh size is required. Larval habitats are not targeted in control efforts because of the extensive amount of area that the habitats may cover, some negative environmental impacts. Applications of insecticides directly to the animal is impractical and not efficient.