Veterinary Parasitology Flashcards
Which of the following animals would be most likely to serve as a source of Trichinella spp. infection to humans in the U.S.?
a deer
b sheep
c cattle
d bear
d
Trichinellosis also known as Trichinosis is caused by the nematode Trichinella. The lifecycle of this worm can be domestic or sylvatic cycle. In sylvatic cyle it affects different animals but the most often associated with human infection are bear, moose and wild boar
What is the white tubular structure seen spirally twisted on the intestine of a female Haemonchus contortus?
a copulatory bursa
b ovary
c esophagus
d cecum
b
Haemonchus contortus’s didelphic reproductive system in females possesses telogonic ovaries with a germinal zone and a thin layer of squamous epithelium surrounds the growing zone. In the growth zone, the ovaries are tightly coiled around the intestine suggesting the trans-membrane flow of nutrients from the later to the former. The white ovary and the red intestine twisted together resulted to its barber pole’s appearance.
Creeping eruptions in man is caused by which parasite?
a hookworm
b arrow-headed worm
c thorny-headed worm
d biting midges
a
Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM), also having been termed the clinical sign of creeping eruption, is an infectious syndrome caused by multiple types of hookworms. This is most commonly transmitted by animal feces depositing eggs in the soil, with larvae entering humans through direct contact with skin
What will be the cause of death in case the hydatid cyst ruptures inside the body of the host?
a hypotensive shock
b anaphylactic shock
c amputation of limb
d dehydration
b
Rupture of the hydatid cyst releases hydatid fluid which is antigenic and toxic to the body. This leads to anaphylactic reactions.
A 3-year-old lethargic and anemic dog was presented to you. You performed blood smear and you observed large, paired piroplasms within erythrocytes. Which do you think is the most appropriate treatment?
a enrofloxacin
b ivermectin
c imidocarb
d sulfadimethoxine
c
This is a case of canine Babesiosis and the best possible treatment among the choices is Imidocarb. Imidocarb is a urea derivative used in the practice as an antiprotozoal agent.
Which of the following ingests more blood in the span of 24 hours?
a One adult Ancylostoma caninum
b One gravid Ctenocephalides felis
c Both A and B ingests an equal amount of blood
d Neither A and B ingest blood
a
One adult A. caninum can ingest 0.1 mL of blood in a day. One gravid C. felis consumes 13.6 uL of blood in a day (that’s 0.0136 mL).
Learn more about hookworms here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_qELNE7V7A8 Learn more about fleas and their life cycle here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=va-ce4iDup8
A cat rapidly develops severe neurologic signs that include seizures. After the cat dies, necropsy reveals a 15 cm long, thin, white worm in the brain tissue. The worm is most likely?
a Dirofilaria immitis
b Toxocara cati
c Gnathostoma spinigerum
d Toxoscaris leonina
a
In cat, Dirofilaria immitis have usually been recovered from the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. In cats, there is also a tendency for the worms to appear in ectopic sites. There have been several cases reported where heartworms have been recovered from the brains of cats at necropsy. The long white worms are very easily recognized when removed from the cat either surgically or at necropsy.
An intact male feral kitten presents for routine examination. You notice large numbers of glistening white eggs adherent to the hair shafts on the dorsal and lateral aspect of the thorax. Closer inspection reveals several dorsoventrally flattened insects clinging to the hair shafts themselves. What parasite is this?
a Phthirus
b Linognathus
c Hematopinus
d Felicola
d
Felicola subrostrata is commonlyn known as cat louse. Lice can live in the environment provided by the skin and hair. It can be seen as white eggs known as nits that addhears to the hairs of the host near the skin. The nits age glued by female lice are tightly attached and ordinary shampooing will not dislodge them.
A dog developed eosinophilic pleuritis. A microscopic exam revealed Paragonimus spp egg. Ingestion of what caused the disease?
a crayfish
b snails
c ants
d fish
a
Dogs become infected by Paragonimus kellicoti by eating raw crayfish or crabs that contain the encysted parasite. The young flukes eventually migrate to the lungs where they become established.
Kittens are most likely infected with Toxocara cati through:
a. transplacental migration of larvae from the queen
b. transmammary migration of larvae from the queen
c inhalation
d skin penetration by infective larvae
b
Cats can become infected through one of three methods: consuming contaminated eggs, consuming mice that contain larvae, or infecting kittens through transmammary infection. Toxocara cati infection in kittens frequently manifests as without any clinical symptoms. However, it is commonly believed that kittens are capable of exhibiting symptoms comparable to puppies with modest worm burdens, i.e., a pot-bellied appearance and a general failure to thrive.
Which Eimeria spp will cause “salt and pepper” lesion in the mid-intestine of chicken?
a Eimeria brunette
b Eimeria necatrix
c Eimeria maxima
d Eimeria acervulina
b
The anterior and middle regions of the small intestine experience significant damages as a result of E. necatrix infection. On the serosal surface, there are tiny white spots that are typically accompanied by spherical, bright- or dull-red patches of different sizes. This appearance is sometimes described as ““salt and pepper.””
Which parasitic nematode ruminant is of most concern in case of pale mucous membrane as theo predominant clinical sign?
a Fascioloides
b Trichostrongylus
c Haemonchus
d Schistosoma
c
Haemonchus are blood feeders and can cause severe anemia, hypoproteinemia, and resultant edema.
A Beagle housed in an outdoor doghouse with straw bedding develops ventral papular dermatitis characterized by crusts and scales. Treatment with corticosteroids and antifungal does not resolve the lesions. Skin scrapings reveal nematode larvae that are all the same in size and have short esophagus with a bulb at its base. No parasites are detected in repeated fecal examinations. Treatment with an organophosphate dip removes the parasites and the disease resolves. The skin disease in this dog was most likely caused by:
a Rhabditis strongyloides
b Strongyloides stercoralis
c Demodex caninum
d Uncinaria sternocephala
a
Rhabditis strongyloides is a free-living nematode that occasionally becomes a facultative parasite of the skin.
Which of the following biting flies has been implicated as a biological vector of African horse sickness?
a Anopheles
b Culex
c Culicoides
d Simulium
c
African horse sickness is a non-contagious disease transmitted by Culicoides biting midges. The virus replicates in insect and equine hosts.
Cyst of which parasite is visible to the naked eye as whitish streaks along the muscle fibers?
a Eimeria
b Neospora
c Toxoplasma
d Sarcocystis
d
The large Sarcocystis cysts found in ducks, sheep, rabbits, and mice are easily seen with the unaided eye as grayish to whitish streaks, 1-10 mm in length, running lengthwise with the muscle fibers.
Which of the following statements on the general life cycle of Babesia species is INCORRECT?
a. Infective sporozoites from the tick vector enter the host erythrocyte and undergo merogony.
b. Gametocytes are formed in the erythrocytes of vertebrate host and can be acquired by the ticks.
c. The zygote formed in the tick midgut lumen produces motile kinetes
d. Kinetes may penetrate the ovary resulting to transovarial transmission, or the salivary glands where sporogony occurs.
b
Gametocytes are formed in the lumen of the tick midgut.
The most effective mechanical vector of Equine Infectious Anemia is:
a Phlebotomus spp.
b blackflies
c tsetse flies
d horse flies
d
Horse flies, deer flies, and to a lesser extent, stable flies are mechanical vectors of the EIA virus. Feeding of these flies from one host to another to complete their blood meal makes the transmission of the virus efficient. This occurs as the host defensive behavior is triggered upon feeding of the flies, disrupting their feeding.
Which of the following parasite can cause parasitic castration?
a Dermatobia hominis
b Cuterebra emasculator
c Ixodes persulcatus
d Margaropus winthemi
b
Cuterebra emasculator, the squirrel bot fly, is a species of new world skin bot fly in the family Oestridae. The species’ name comes from the belief that larvae ate the testicles of chipmunks. This belief is false, as parasitism by the larvae of these flies does not result in lower fertility - chipmunks mate in the spring, while botfly infections occur in the summer, and the larva does not impede sperm production as they reside below the skin.
This is a relatively unusual Eimeria species in that it often will be found in the epithelium of the biliary system, it can cause marked hypertrophy of the epithelium and significant pathogenic changes on the surface of the liver as large white foci that may be visible on necropsy, and it often is fatal.
a Eimeria bovis
b Eimeria truncata
c Eimeria stiedae
d Eimeria acervulina
c
Among the other choices, only Eimeria stiedae affects the liver. The rest are in the intestinal segment.
Which drug will you administer to a pig infested with scabies and ascaris?
a Malathion
b Hygromycin
c Ivermectin
d Dichlorvos
c
Ivermectin is effective in the treatment of both scabies and ascaris infestations. Dichlorvos and malathion are organophosphate acaricides, while Hygromycin is an effective antibiotic against Ascaris, Oesophagostomum, and Trichuris in pigs.
Man can be infected with Capillaria philippinensis thru:
a ingestion of infected raw fish
b direct contact
c ingestion of infected beef
d ingestion of infected snail
a
The infective larvae of C. philippinensis develop in tissue of freshwater fish. Ingestion of undercooked fish results in infection of human host.
A specimen was submitted to you and was previously identified as Eimeria subepithelialis. The parasite was most likely collected from which of the following?
a parrot
b carp
c snake
d rabbit
b
Eimeria subepithelialis is parasitic in the intestinal tract of common carp causing nodular coccidiosis.
Ingestion of which stage of Diphyllobothrium latum will result in patent infection?
a Coracidium
b Procercoid
c Plerocercoid
d Metacestode
c
Plerocercoid from 2nd intermediate hosts can result in patent infection.
Which of the following serves as vectors of Equine Infectious Anemia?
a ticks
b mites
c flies
d fleas
c
Equine infectious anemia (EIA) is a noncontagious infectious disease of horses. The causative agent, EIA virus, is an RNA virus, classified in the Lentivirus genus, family Retroviridae. All horses infected with EIA virus remain lifelong carriers. Transmission of EIA by biting flies is purely mechanical; the virus does not replicate in the insect. Horse flies, deer flies, and to a lesser extent, stable flies, are the most efficient vectors of the virus.
Where is the predilection site of Strongylus vulgaris?
a Renal vein
b Cranial mesenteric artery
c Coeliac artery
d Thigh vein
b
S. vulgaris is the most pathogenic nematode parasite of horses. It is known for extensive migration in the cranial mesenteric artery which can lead to life threatening intestinal infarctions.
Hyalomma truncatum secretes a toxin while sucking blood, causing a condition known as “sweating sickness” in:
a ruminants
b man
c dog
d horse
a
Hyalomma truncatum, also known as the shiny hyalomma or small smooth bont-legged tick, is a species of hard tick in the family Ixodidae. It is found in Africa. Sweating sickness is a tick-borne, toxic condition that affects the skin and visible mucous membranes of cattle. The cause is a toxin attracted to skin, which is secreted by females of certain strains of the tick Hyalomma truncatum.
Which of the following nematodes is classified as “bursate”?
a Ascarids
b Oxyurids
c Strongylids
d Spirurids
c
Bursa is a lobular modification of the male posterior end in some groups of nematodes which is highly elaborated in strongylid nematodes.
Which of the following usual practice in South East Asian region that most likely the cause of Pentastomiasis in man?
a drinking snake wine
b ingestion of lizard
c drinking of snake’s bile
d ingestion of rabbit meat
b
Pentastonids parasitizes the respiratory tract of reptiles. Man can be infected by ingestion of lizards. Lizards are ingested in a belief that it can cure asthma.
What is the shape of the basis capituli of Rhipicephalus?
a octagonal
b hexagonal
c oblong
d triangular
b
Basis capitulum is the base of the head of ticks onto which mouthparts are attached. Basis capitulum is the distinguishing part of Rhipicephalus as it is the only tick species with hexagonal-shaped capitulum.
Cattle with chronic Fasciola hepatica infection typically have:
a fibrotic bile duct
b rumenitis
c pneumonia
d renal disease
a
Fasciola hepatica is one of the most important flukes of domestic ruminants worldwide, causing liver fluke disease (liver rot, fascioliasis). Chronic liver fluke disease is more common in cattle and rarely fatal. Acute and subacute disease is more common in sheep and camelids and is often fatal. The lesion in the bile ducts is thought to be due, in part, to the secretion of large amounts of proline by the parasites.
White, porous, proliferative encrustations affecting the corners of the mouth, cere, beak, and rarely the periorbital area, legs, or vent are common in budgerigars. Which of the following parasites is most usually responsible for it?
a. Knemidocoptes pilae
b Sternostoma tracheacolum
c Dermanyssus gallinae
d Knemidocoptes gallinae
a
Knemidocoptes pilae commonly causes crusty legs and face in budgerigars
Summer bleeding, which is a condition produced by Parafilaria multipapillosa, is a disease of which domestic animals?
a cat
b cattle
c horse
d primates
c
Parafilaria multipapilosa is a nematode that infects horses. It causes the disease known as ““summer bleeding”” due to the pathognomonic clinical signs such bleeding and the skin nodules.
Dorsally spined tail nematodes were seen in the feces of a cat with a history of coughing and dyspnea. The cat is most likely infected with:
a Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
b Crenosoma vulpis
c Ollulanus tricuspis
d Physaloptera praeputialis
a
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus is common in cats around the world. The cat appears to be the only definitive host; wild mice and other rodents, along with frogs, toads, snakes, lizards, and small birds, can serve as transport hosts. Crenosoma vulpis is a lung parasite of foxes. Ollulanus tricuspis nematodes are worms found in the gastric mucosa of the cat. Physaloptera praeputialis are pink worms found in the stomach of cat, usually with their anterior end attached to the mucosa. First-stage larvae are passed in the feces. The larvae are about 400 μm long, have “kinky” tail with a dorsal spine. Nematodes and eggs may cause chronic coughing, dyspnea, open-mouth breathing, sneezing, wheezing or no clinical signs.
A lemon-shaped parasite ova were found on fecal flotation of a 5-year-old dog with the history of intermittent bloody diarrhea. Which of the following is the most appropriate labeled pharmacotherapy?
a fenbendazole
b ivermectin
c metronidazole
d trimethoprim-sulfa
a
By description, the one saw in fecalysis is an egg of Trichuris spp (whipworms) which is actually related to the manifesting clinical sign which is intermittent bloody diarrhea. Among the choices, fenbendazole is the most recommended drug as it is a broad spectrum benzimidazole anthelmintic used against gastrointestinal parasites including whipworms.
The lesions of coccidia usually confined at the upper segment of the small intestine is suggestive of which Eimeria species?
a Eimeria brunetti
b Eimeria acervulina
c Eimeria tenella
d Eimeria necatrix
b
Coccidiosis is a protozoal disease causing diarrhea, weight loss, and decreased production in poultry. Diagnosis is by fecal flotation to detect oocysts, often in combination with characteristic necropsy findings. E tenella infections are found only in the ceca and can be recognized by accumulation of blood in the ceca. This is the most pathogenic among poulty Eimeria spp. E necatrix produces major lesions in the proximal and mid portions of the small intestine. They produce the characteristic “salt and pepper” lesion. E acervulina is the most common cause of infection. Lesions include numerous whitish, oval or transverse patches in the upper half of the small intestine, which may be easily distinguished on gross examination. E brunetti is found in the lower small intestine, rectum, ceca, and cloaca.
Haematopinus eurysternus is a louse that is generally found in which of the following:
a cattle
b horse
c pig
d cat
a
Haematopinus eurysternus is known as the short-nosed cattle louse; H. asini is the horse-sucking louse; and H. suis is also known as the pig louse.
Lungworm infection of the lower respiratory tract in cats, usually resulting in bronchitis or pneumonia, can be caused by any of several parasitic nematodes (roundworms), including Aelurostrongylus abstrusus and Eucoleus aerophilus. What is the transmission route of Eucoleus aerophilus?
a Ingestion of slug
b Ingestion of bird
c Ingestion of rodent
d Direct life cycle
d
Eucoleus aerophilus (with a direct life cycle) is transmitted through contaminated sputum and feces. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus have an indirect life cycle
A cat is brought to your clinic because the client is 2 months pregnant and concerned about Toxoplasmosis. She added that the cat is staying indoor. Which of the following is not an appropriate course of action
a. submit a serum sample from the cat for Toxoplasma gondii
a titer and recommend euthanizing the cat if the titer is
positive
b. instruct the client to only eat thoroughly cooked meat
c. encourage the client to continue to keep the cat indoors and prevent the cat from ingesting any wildlife that may serve as reservoir hosts
d. instruct the client that she should not feed raw meat to her cat
a
Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the single-celled parasite Toxoplasma gondii. Although cats are a necessary part of the life cycle of T. gondii, the parasite rarely causes clinical disease in them. Immunodeficient people and pregnant women were advised to avoid cats in the past; however, the CDC now advises that this is not necessary.
Decoquinate is continually fed to confine poultry. to control which specific parasites?
a Luecocytozoon
b Ascardia
c Coccidia
d Eimeria
d
Decoquinate, a 4-hydroxyquinoline, is a synthetic coccidiostat used for poultry and cattle as a feed additive against Eimeria species. This drug interfere with sporozoite development by inhibiting electron transport in protozoal mitochondria.
Pigeon racing is one of the popular events for pigeon hobbyists. What is the treatment of choice for the most common parasitic disease that is commonly transmitted through drinking contaminated water in common waterer during transportation of pigeons and most commonly seen in crops as yellow buttons?
a Macrocylic lactones
c Nitroimidazoles
b Formamidines
d Insect growth regulators
c
Under Nitroimidazoles, (Ronidazole, carnidazole and metronidazole) are the most common drug against trichomonas gallinae.
In fluke, Mehli’s gland is responsible for the production of?
a Cuticle of the worm
b Egg shell
c Cilia of the miracidium
d Yolk
b
Mehli’s gland, also known as Shell gland, is a component of the female reproductive system of Platyhelminthes and is mainly found surrounding the ootype. It plays a significant part in directing the eggs toward the channel that leads to the uterus of flat worms as a component of the female reproductive system. As a result, its secretion lubricates the uterine tube through which ovaries travel. It might have an impact on how eggshells form.
At the necropsy of a military macaw, the small intestine is filled with white worms 4-6 cm long. The male worms have a pseudosucker cranial to the anus. These worms are most likely a species of:
a Syngamus
b Ascaridia
c Heterakis
d Histomonas
b
Ascaridia spp. are one of the most common nematodes in birds. The location in the small intestine and the large size can be used to differentiate Ascaridia from Heterakis. Ascaridia galli is a nematode parasite occurring in all parts of the small intestine, while H. gallinarum is in the cecum. However, these different roundworms do have very similar egg and life cycles and are widely distributed in different parts of the world.
Toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted most likely to people via:
a contact with intermediate host
bingestion of undercooked meat
c contact with a cat
d ingestion of snail
c
Exposure to feces from infected cats can cause toxoplasmosis in people.
A control program to eradicate Trypanosoma cruzi is not feasible because the parasite tends to infect and resides in many wild mammalian species.
Which of the following wild animals is a known reservoir of T. cruzi?
a pangolin
b bats
c mink
d armadillo
d
Apart from humans, a number of mammals serve as reservoir hosts for T. cruzi, e.g. armadillos, opossums, raccoons, woodrats, some other rodents, and domestic dogs.
Which of the following method or tool is used to count helminth ova?
a Baermann technique
b McMaster slide
c Sheathers fecal flotation
d direct fecal smear
b
McMaster is a fecal egg counting slide.
Brown stomach worm causes disease in cattle primarily by:
a. blood loss from wounds in the a abomasum left by feeding adult worms
b. destruction of the abomasal glands due to larval growth within these glands
c. destruction of the small intestinal mucosa, particularly in the duodenum, due to extensive larval migration in the mucosa
d. intestinal inflammation d resulting from secretion of toxins from adult worms
b
Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm) is the most pathogenic and most costly of the cattle nematodes. Worms can readily be seen and identified in the abomasum, and small petechiae (blood spots) may be visible where the worms have been feeding. Heavy infections they tend to coalesce and give rise to a ““cobblestone”” or ““morocco leather”” appearance.
Sparganosis is associated with which of the following parasite?
a Taenia multiceps
b Diphyllobothrium latum
c Spirometra erinacei
d All of the above
c
Sparganosis is parasitic infection caused by the larva of the tapeworm in the genus Spirometra. Humans are the definitive host of the disease and can be infected by drinking water contamined with copepods which acts as the intermediate hosts.
Tick paralysis occurs in a tick-infested animal when the ticks inject a:
a neural toxin
b neurotrophic virus
c rickettsial agent
d substance that induces anaphylaxis
a
Neural toxin is paralytic agent secreted through the saliva of ticks that causes rapidly progressive motor paralysis or tick paralysis. Tick paralysis is a noninfectious and neurologic disease caused by several species of ticks.
A mechanical vector of a parasite is one that transmits the parasite:
a. directly, without development or multiplication of the parasite
b. after internal multiplication of the parasite
c. after required development has occurred
d. after external multiplication of the parasite
a
Mechanical vectors transmit diseases by transporting the causative agent from contaminated material (e.g. feces) on their feet or mouth parts and then spreading the pathogens or parasites onto food, drink, faces or eyes. Biological vectors may carry pathogens that can multiply within their bodies and be delivered to new hosts, usually by biting.
What is the larval stage of Dirofilaria immitis when it is on the proboscis of mosquito?
a L1
b L2
c L3
d L4
c
There are 5 filarial stages of the D. immitis. Female worms release the microfilaria or the L1 which can be ingested by a vector (mosquito) during blood meal. L1 will mature within the vector until it reach the L2 and L3. Once it matured into L3 it will migrate to the probocis of the mosquito which can be transfer to another host as the mosquito feeding. L4 remains in the subcutaneous tissue and then the young adult or L5 will then migrate to pulmonary arteries.
Which of the following is the most likely predilection site of Eimeria maxima?
a cecum
b mid-intestine
c upper segment of intestine
d lower segment of intestine
b
The small intestine (middle segment) is where E. maximum develops. It results in petechial bleeding, a reddish, orange, or pink sticky mucous exudate, and dilatation and thickening of the intestinal wall.
Spircocerca lupi is a parasite that causes sarcoma in which of the following parts of a dog’s body?
a esophagus
b duodenum
c cranial mesenteric artery
d urinary bladder
a
The predilection site of S. lupi is the esophagus. Many dogs who have S. lupi infection doesn’t typically have any clinical symptoms, but when it does, the most common symptoms are weight loss, coughing, and dyspnea. The dog may have trouble swallowing and may repeatedly vomit after trying to eat if the esophageal lesion is very large (which typically happens when it has developed into a neoplasm).
A pigeon was presented to your clinic with a history of weight loss resulted from 1-week of being anorexic. The oral cavity is filled with irregular yellow plugs and caseous exudates. Micoscopic evaluation revealed several pear- shaped flagellated protozoa with an undulating membrane. What is your most likely diagnosis?
a Trichinella
b Trichosomoides
c Trichomonas
d Trypanosoma
c
This is a case of Trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas gallinae and is extremely common in domestic pigeons. It causes necrotic ulcerations in the esophagus, crop, and proventriculus.
Which of the following products is appropriate treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis?
a metronidazole
b ponazuril
c mebendazole
d fenbendazole
b
Equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) is caused by CNS infection of equids with either of the apicomplexan protozoa Sarcocystis neurona or Neospora hughesi. Among the choices, the approved treatment of choice for EPM is ponazuril. Ponazuril is given by mouth in the form of a paste.
Which of the following Plasmodium species can cause hepatomegaly and brain edema in infected chickens?
a Plasmodium juxtanucleare
b Plasmodium gallinaceum
c Plasmodium elongatum
d Plasmodium relictum
b
P. gallinaceum is the most pathogenic species affecting chickens.
What is the double-pored tapeworm of dog?
a Anoplocephala perfoliata
b Diphyllobothrium latum
c Dipylidium caninum
d Raillietina tetragona
c
Because of their bilateral genital pores, Dipylidium caninum is in often referred to as the ““double pored tapeworm.”” Eggs accumulate within each proglottid until the proglottid becomes packed like a ripe seed pod. Gravid proglottids are creamy white, 10 to 12 mm in length and resemble cucumber seeds.
Dogs acquire infection with Sarcocystis sp. via:
a. ingestion of sporulated oocyst from the environment
b. ingestion of infected tick
c. ingestion of intermediate host containing sarcocyst in muscle
d. ingestion of naked sporocyst from the environment
c
A dog can develop sarcocystosis after eating undercooked beef or pork containing sporocysts or after eating food infected with sporocysts from another animal’s feces. Infected dogs often have no signs, although a mild diarrhea may be seen.
You were asked to check a Gamefowl with profuse lacrimation. Upon checking, you noticed a worm that is irritating the eye. Which of the following is the possible nematode?
a Ascaridia galli
b Oxyspirura mansoni
c Thelazia californiensis
d Menopon gallinae
b
Oxyspirura mansoni is a species of roundworm which infects the chicken’s eye. Thelazia is also an eyeworm but it infects mammals like dogs and ruminants. Ascaridia galli is a nematode present in the small intestine while Menopon gallinae is a louse and not a worm.
What is the major role of tegument in the life of tapeworm?
a Excretion of waste
b Reproductive purposes
c Absorption of nutrients
d Chemoreceptors
c
Tegument is outer body covering of members of tapeworms and flukes which serves as protective cover and also serves secretory and absorbtive functions for nutrients.
Which species of Eimeria can cause subclinical coccidiosis typically affecting the proximal part of o the small intestines and characterized by whitish ladder-like lesions?
a Eimeria necatrix
b Eimeria maxima
c Eimeria acervulina
d Eimeria brunetti
c
E. necatrix affects the entire small intestine characterized by hemorrhagic mucosa; E. maxima affects the middle to lower SI characterized by salmon pink exudate; E. brunetti occurs in the lower SI characterized by boody enteritis.
Cats become infected with Dipylidium caninum by ingesting fleas containing cysticercoids. The fleas become infected with this cestode by ingesting:
a cysterci in circulating blood
b tapeworm eggs in larval fleas
c tapeworm eggs in young adult fleas
d infected oribatid mites
b
Flea larvae that feed on undigested blood passed in the feces of the adult fleas and detritus (organic matter produced by the decomposition of organisms) in the environment are attracted to the egg balls of D. caninum that are passed in the feces of dogs and cats. Tapeworm larvae in the larval, pupal, and adult fleas do not become infective until adult fleas have been on the mammalian host for a couple of days.
Which of the following parasites does not cause visceral larva migrans?
a Baylisascaris procyonis
b Ancylostoma braziliense
c Toxocara canis
d Kalicephalus spp.
b
Ancylostoma braziliense causes only mild digestive disturbance and diarrhea in affected animals, but is regarded as the main cause of cutaneous larva migrans in humans. Bayliascaris procyonis mainly affects racoons and skunks, but a range of animals including small mammals, poultry, and rabbits serve as intermediate hosts and may be affected by visceral larval migration where the nervous system is invaded by the parasite. Toxocara canis mainly parasitizes the small intestines of dogs and foxes, and is also the most widely recognised form of VLM in humans. Kalicephalus spp. affects the small intestines of snakes, but may undergo VLM and cause respiratory problems.
Which mouthpart is missing in a male Haematopota?
a mandibles
b maxilla
c labella
d labium
a
Male horse flies (Tabanus, Chrysops, Haematopota spp.) do not have the paired mandibles, hence cannot feed on blood. They feed on honeydew or nectars instead.
Old age” appearance due to hyperkeratinization and hyperpigmentation of the skin can be seen in cats infested with which ectoparasite?
a Notoedres cati
b Demodex cati
c Felicola subrostrata
d Lynxacarus radovskyi
a
Notoedric mange, also referred to as Feline scabies, is a highly contagious skin infestation caused by an ectoparasitic and skin burrowing mite Notoedres cati. The disease is characterized by severe itching and a crusty appearance of the skin, particularly around the head, ears, and neck.
The fresh feces of pigs showing respiratory signs were found to have oval, thick-shelled eggs containing larvae. The eggs could be from which helminth?
a Ascaris suum
b Hyostrongylus rubidus
c Metastrongylus salmi
d Oesophagostomum dentatum
c
The eggs of other choices are unembryonated when laid and passed out in fresh feces.
Which anti-malaria drug posses greater toxicity?
a proguanil
b doxycycline
c arteminisin
d quinine
d
Quinine is used for the treatment of malaria in humans and is associated with a triad of dose-related toxicities when given at full therapeutic or excessive doses, e.g. hypoglycemia, cinchonism, and hypotension. It may also cause blindness due to retinopathy. All the other choices are generally well-tolerated.
Hydatid cyst is a feature of which parasite?
a Taenia taeniaformis
b Echinococcus granulosus
c Anoplocephala magna
d Mesocestoides lineatus
b
Hydatid cyst is a parasitic feature of the larval stage of Echinococcus. Hydatid cyst are commonly found in the liver and lungs, it may also occur in other organs like bones and muscle.
What is the management system used to prevent the continuity of the lifecycle of Stephanurus dentatus?
a Weanling Only Scheme
b Sow Only Scheme
c Gilt Only Scheme
d Boar Only Scheme
c
Gilt Only Scheme is one of the identified measures to control Stephanurus dentatus. The infection has long long prepatent period and this scheme prevents infection from developing. Older boars are replaced with young boars from clean herds, and only gilts are bred and then sold after weaning.
Which zoonotic parasitic disease can be transmitted by cats to man?
a leishmaniasis
b anaplasmosis
c histomioniasis
d toxoplasmosis
d
People can be infected by accidental ingestion of oocysts after cleaning a cat’s litter box when the cat has shed Toxoplasma in its feces. Leishmaniasis can be transmitted to humans and animals by the bite of phlebotomine sand flies. Histomoniasis is caused by the protozoa Histomonas meleagridis (HM) that are laterally transmitted among birds leading to high mortality in commercial flocks. This is not zoonotic. Anaplasmosis is a bacterial disease transmitted to humans by Ixodes scapularis (blacklegged tick or deer tick).
Which of the following flea is identified based on the absence of genal or pronotal combs and presence of an ocular bristle below the eye?
a Pulex irritans
b Ctenocephalides canis
c Ceratophyllus niger
d Spilopsyllus cuniculi
a
A holometabolous insect that has a four-stage life cycle that includes eggs, larvae, pupae, and adults. They are wingless, dark brown in color, and feature piercing-sucking mouthparts that help them feast on the blood of their hosts. The adult flea lacks genal and pronotal combs and has a rounded head.
Numerous microfilariae were found on a blood smear from a 2-month-old puppy. The puppy’s heartworm antigen test result was negative, and heartworm preventive therapy had not yet been started. How did this puppy most likely acquire this parasite?
a Mosquito bite
b Flea bite
c Transplacentally
d ingestion of intermediate host
c
Puppies born to mothers with patent infections of the heartworm Dirofilaria immitis will often have circulating microfilariae in their blood at birth. It is one of the top transplacental parasitic Infections in dogs.
Ostertagia ostertagi causes profuse watery diarrhea, anemia, and hypoproteinemia manifested clinically as submaxillary edema in an affected animal. What is the predilection site of the said worm?
a abomasum
b blood vessel
c heart
d small intestine
a
Ostertagia ostertagi (brown stomach worm) is the most pathogenic and most costly of the cattle nematodes. Worms can readily be seen and identified in the abomasum, and small petechiae (blood spots) may be visible where the worms have been feeding. Heavy infections they tend to coalesce and give rise to a ““cobblestone”” or ““morocco leather”” appearance.
What is the shape of the egg of Moniezia benedeni?
a oval
b square
c triangle
d round
b
M. benedeni primarily affects cattle. The egg of this parasite is characteristically quadrangular in apperance.
The Babesia species are usually transmitted by?
a mites
b flies
c ticks
d cockroaches
c
Babesia is an apicomplexan parasite that infects red blood cells and is transmitted by ticks.
Repeated examination of the blood of a pigeon over a 2-day period reveals red blood cells containing elongated gametocytes of a protozoan parasite. No other stage is identified. The parasite in question is probably a species of:
a trypanosome
b Hemoproteus
c Leukocytozoon
d Babesia
b
The parasite being described is Hemoproteus columbae. It is a major protozoan infection reported in pigeons and appeared in the erythrocyte of the peripheral circulation. H. columbae is a species of blood parasite related to Plasmodium and other malaria parasites.
You were asked to examine the external parasites of a chicken. Which of the following does not belong to your list of parasites to check?
a Pediculus spp.
b Menopon spp.
c Menacanthus spp
d Goniodes spp
a
Pediculus spp. is an example of a sucking louse or Anoplura. Anoplura is only present in mammalian hosts so this is not present in chickens.
Mal de Caderas is a disease caused by which of the Trypanosoma species?
a T. evansi
b T. equinum
c T. equiperdum
d T. lewisi
b
Trypanosoma equinum affects horses and causes an infectious disease marked by fast emaciation, anemia, blood-colored urine, paresis, and edema. This disease is called Mal de Caderas or Derrengadera
Which of the following best describes Culicoides hypersensitivity in horses?
a. Seasonal ventral and pectoral
dermatitis, with areas of depigmentation
b. Seasonal pruritus involving the base of the tail and mane
c. A bull’s-eye lesion in the middle of the face
d. Ventral midline dermatitis with ulcers and crusting
b
Culicoides Hypersensitivity, also known as Sweet Itch, is a condition caused by an allergic reaction to the saliva of Culicoides species known as “No See Ums.” Horses with this hypersensitivity are extremely pruritic or itchy. They will rub their manes, ears, faces, and tails to the point of self-mutilation.
Where is the usual predilection site of Hematopinus suis?
a base of the ear
b digital pads
c inguinal area
d elbow
a
Infestations typically begin in the area around the ears before spreading to the lower body. The inside of the legs, the neck, the skin folds, and the ears are among the predilection sites
Leishmania adleri is a parasite of which of the following?
a frog
b lizard
c pigeon
d chinchillas
b
Leishmania adleri is a lizard parasite.
The most likely cause of death in Ancylostoma caninum-infected puppies that die of peracute hookworm disease during the second week of life is
a renal failure
b anemia
c diarrhea
d pneumonia
b
A significant number of hookworms can cause inflammation in the dog’s intestine, as well as a life-threatening decrease of red blood cells (anemia). Anemia is most common in puppies but can occur in adult dogs.
What is the vector of Acanthocheilonema reconditum?
a mites
b dung beetles
c mosquitoes
d fleas
d
Acanthocheilonema (formerly Dipetalonema) reconditum is a non-pathogenic nematode that lives in the body cavity and subcutaneous tissues of dogs. Its importance lies in the fact that its imicrofilariae can be easily confused with those of Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm). Among the choices, flea is the most commonly reported vector although lice were also considered.
How many pairs of teeth are present at the ventral margin of the stoma of Ancylostoma caninum?
a 2
b 3
c 4
d 6
b
Adult hookworms can be identified based on their teeth. Their buccal capsule contain either three pairs of teeth (A. caninum), two pairs of teeth (A. braziliense), or cutting plates (U. stenocephala).
The following are true about Chagas disease, except:
a. armadillo are considered as principal reservoir host
b. also known as American trypanosmiasis
c. transmitted naturally by mosquitoes
d. dividing amastigote forms occur in the heart muscle cells of the infected host
c
Chagas disease is caused by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi, which is transmitted to animals and people by insect vectors and is found only in the Americas. Chagas disease is also referred to as American trypanosomiasis. The insect vectors are called triatomine bugs. These blood-sucking bugs get infected with T. cruzi by biting an infected animal or person. Because they tend to bite people’s faces, triatomine bugs are also known as “kissing bugs”. After they bite and ingest blood, they defecate (poop) on the person. The person can become infected if T. cruzi parasites in the bug feces enter the body through mucous membranes or breaks in the skin. The unsuspecting, sleeping person may accidentally scratch or rub the feces into the bite wound, eyes, or mouth. Inside the host, the trypomastigotes invade cells near the site of inoculation, where they differentiate into intracellular amastigotes . The amastigotes multiply by binary fission and differentiate into trypomastigotes, and then are released into the circulation as bloodstream trypomastigotes
All of the following are superficial mites, except:
a Sarcoptes
b Psoroptes
c Chorioptes
d Cheyletiella
a
Sarcoptes is a burrowing mite.
It is associated with granulomatous disease in African cichlids and discus. Clinical disease is manifest in severe weight loss and cachexia.
a. Cryptocaryon irritans
b Cryptobia iubilans
c Amyloodinium spp.
d Oodinium spp.
b
Cryptobia iubilans is a flagellate that can be dangerous and can cause frequent fish deaths in the aquarium due to the said clinical signs. Cryptobia iubilans, an endoparasite that lives in the intestines and causes granulomatous inflammation of the abdominal organs, resulting in weight loss and death. Cryptobia salmositica, C. borreli, and C. bullocki, blood parasites that lead to anaemia and lesions in the haematopoietic tissues.
What is the insect intermediate host of Macracanthorynchus ingens?
a cockroach
b beetle
c dragon fly
d flies
b
Acanthocephala (also known as spiny- or thorny-headed worms) are common parasites of wildlife and some domestic animal species, but they rarely infect humans. Natural definitive hosts include rats (Moniliformis moniliformis), swine (Macracanthorynchus hirudinaceus), and raccoons (Macracanthorynchus ingens). The insect intermediate host varies by species but is usually beetles for M. hirudinaceus and M. ingens. In can be beetles or cockroaches for M. moniliformis.
The spinose ear tick has the ear canal as its predilection site. Which of the following is not a host of this parasite?
a goat
b sheep
c deer
d rabbit
d
Otobius megnini ( Spinose Ear Tick) affects cattle, sheep, goat, horse, deer, wild ruminants, dogs, and humans. The ear tick species affecting rabbits and hares is O. lagophilus.
This parasite is called the “Guppy killer”.
a Ichthyophthirius spp.
b Tetrahymena spp.
c Hexamita spp.
d Brooklynella spp.
b
Tetrahymena spp. is a cilliated protozoa that causes Guppy killer disease as it commonly affects the guppies, although other tropical aquarium fish can be affected as well. It is usually a commensal of the fish, only becoming a pathogen when there is a build up of bacteria in the water. The lesions are similar to those of the white spot disease caused by Ichthyophthirius multifiliis.
Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus is a pig small intestine acanthocephalan parasite (thorny- headed worm). Adults measure 10 cm (males) to 65 cm (females), are 3 to 9 mm thick, and have a transversely wrinkled outer layer. What exactly is the intermediate host?
a Cockroach
b Dung beetle
c Millipede
d Leech
b
Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus has an indirect life cycle that requires scarabaeoid or hydrophilid beetle larvae as intermediate hosts. Dogs infected with M. hirudinaceus shed eggs in their feces, which contain the larval (acanthor) stage. Dung beetle is the only intermediate host of this specific parasite
Honey bee colonies are infested with honey bee tracheal mites. Which of the following fumigant can be used for controlling these parasites?
a Hydrogen cyanide
b Napthalene
c Menthol crystals
d Organophosphates
c
Only menthol crystal can be used safely without affecting the honey bee colonies and it is also registered as a pesticide for tracheal mite control in honey bees.
What is the intermediate host of the kidney worm of pig?
a cyclops
b earthworm
c frog
d fish
b
Stephanurus dentatus is also known as kidney worm of swine. Pigs can be infected by ingestion of the larvae but earthworm can serve as transport host. Earthworms can also ingest the larva and once the pig ingests the earthworm it will also be infected.
Which of the following parasite:final host relationship is INCORRECT?
a. Eurytrema procyanois: racoon
b. Alaria americana: man
c. Platynosomum fastomum: lizard
d. Heterophyes heterophyes: cat
c
Platynosomum fastosum is a trematode that infects the biliary ducts and gallbladder of cats. Intermediate hosts include lizards, marine toads, and various arthropods. Lizard is an intermediate host and not a final host.
Which of the following is the most readily recognizable protozoan fish parasite because of o the presence of a relatively large horseshoe- shaped or C-shaped macronucleus?
a Cryptokaryon
b Ichthyophthirius
c Hexamita
d Spironucleus
b
The most readily recognized protozoan fish parasite is Ichthyophthirius multifiliis, commonly referred to as ““Ich”” or ““white spot disease””. It causes multiple small raised, white lesions that develop as a result of the parasite residing in the skin, fins and gill tissue of the host. It can be identified by the presence of a relatively large horseshoe-shaped macronucleus.
Of the orders Mallophaga and Anoplura, which is blood sucking?
a both
b Anoplura only
c Mallophaga only
d neither
b
Lice are divided into two general categories: Anoplura or known as the blood sucking/sucking lice; and the Mallophaga or the chewing/biting lice.
Pulmonary acariasis in monkeys rarely causes major symptoms, though it can induce sneezing and coughing. Dilation and localized chronic inflammation of terminal bronchioles are examples of lesions. What is the recommended course of treatment?
a Afoxolaner
b Ivermectin
c Fipronil
d Imidacloprid
b
All of the other choices are medications used for external parasites. Only ivermectin can be used to control internal parasites such as pulmonary acariasis.
Cyclorrhaphan antennae is consisted of three dissimilar segments, the third and largest of which bears a frondlike structure is called
a arista
b palp
c labellum
d ptilium
a
Arista is the last segment of the antenna in the Sub Order Cyclorrapha.
What is the host and predilection site of Eimeria stiedae?
a dog, small intestine
b rabbit, liver
c cattle, rumen
d chicken, ceca
b
A typical and widespread protozoal disease affecting rabbits is coccidiosis. Carriers are often recovering rabbits. There are two anatomic forms: the hepatic form, which is caused by Eimeria stiedae, and the intestinal form, which is caused by E. magna, E. irresidua, E. media, E. perforans, E. flavescens, E. intestinalis, or other Eimeria spp.
The males of these nematodes have only one spicule, except:
a Trichuris vulpis
b Trichinella spiralis
c Oxyuris equi
d Dioctophyma renale
b
Males of roundworms usually possess cuticular copulatory organs (spicules) that are inserted in the female’s vulva to attach the male to the female and to widen the vulva against the inner body pressure for sperm transfer. The male of Trichinella species do not have a spicule and the tail terminates with two lateral lobes that give it a characteristic appearance
Which of the following animal is most likely severely affected in the case of Surra?
a pig
b horse
c goat
d dog
b
Surra is a disease caused by protozoan Trypanosoma evansi which infects the blood of the vertebrate host, causing fever, weakness, and lethargy which lead to weight loss and anemia. It is transmitted mechanically by hematophagous biting flies of the species Tabanus and Stomoxys. Surra is most severe and most frequently diagnosed in horses and camels. It may also affect cattle, buffalo, llamas, dogs, cats, sheep, goats, pigs, and elephants.
An acanthocephalan found in Central and South American nonhuman primates that burrows into the mucosa of the ileocecal junction and, when present in great numbers, can perforate the intestine or induce obstruction. Which of the following is the etiologic agent?
a Moniliformis spp.
b Acanthocephalus spp.
c Prostenorchis spp.
d Bertiella studeri
c
Only Prosthenorchis (Acanthocephalan) and Bertiella (Tapeworm) affects monkey in the choices given. Prosthenorchis spp. infestation is influenced by diet with an increased risk of exposure from ingesting invertebrate intermediate hosts.
Snakes infested with Ophionyssus natricis usually die from:
a starvation
b secondary fungal infection
c anemia
d secondary bacterial infection
c
Ophionyssus natricis is a snake mite that feeds on blood of its host. Heavy infestation, when left untreated, causes anemia and death. Bacterial or viral infection may also occur secondarily.
Pigeon racing is a popular event among pigeon enthusiasts. What is the most prevalent parasite o disease that is usually transmitted through drinking contaminated water from a common waterer during pigeon transportation and is most commonly evident in crops as yellow buttons?
a Columbicola columbae
b Histomonas meleagridis
c Lipeurus caponis
d Trichomonas gallinae
d
Among the following choices, only Trichomonas gallinae produces yellow button lesions on the crop surface.
Salmon poisoning is associated in which of the following helminth parasite?
a Troglotrema acutum
b Collyriclum faba
c Neorikettsia helminthoeca
d Nanophyetus salmincola
d
Salmon poisoning disease (SPD), a lethal condition that affects dogs, is brought on by the obligate intracellular endosymbiotic bacterium Neorickettsia helminthoeca, which is carried by the trematode Nanophyetus salmincola.
The adults of these nematodes occur in the colon of its definitive host, except:
a Oesophagostomum columbianum
b Trichuris vulpis
c Ancylostoma caninum
d Strongylus edetatus
c
Ancylostoma spp. and other hookworms typically occur in the small intestine of their definitive host.
The following are classified as arthropods, except:
a flesh flies
b mites
c lungworms
d anchor worms
c
Arthropods are invertebrates with jointed legs. The main arthropod assemblages include crustaceans (crabs, lobsters, crayfish, shrimp), arachnids (spiders, scorpions, ticks, mites) and insects (beetles, bugs, earwigs, ants, bees, termites, butterflies, moths, crickets, roaches, fleas, flies, mosquitoes, lice). Lungworms are nematodes. Anchor worms are technically not a worm at all but a Lernaea species, a type of copepod crustacean of the arthropod family
