Veterinary Anatomy Flashcards
Which structure functionally connects bone to another bone?
a. aponeurosis
b. tendon
c ligament
d. fascia
c. ligament
Ligaments are structures that connect bone to bone. Tendon connects muscle to bone. Aponeurosis is an example of a flat tendon.
A dog was presented to you. A radiograph showed a tear or rip in the dog’s thoracic diaphragm between the esophageal hiatus and caudal vena cava. This will most likely permit:
a. lung tissue to collapse
b. liver lobes to enter the right pleural cavity
c. liver lobes to enter the left pleural cavity
d. lung tissue to enter the abdominal cavity
b. liver lobes to enter the right pleural cavity
Intraabdominal pressure is normally much higher than intrathoracic pressure. As a result, abdominal organs move into the thoracic compartment with herniation of the thoracic diaphragm. Because the right pleural space is much larger than the left, and the caudal mediastinum deflects to the left to line the diaphragm as diaphragmatic pleura, abdominal organs move into the right pleural space if they penetrate the center or right portion of the thoracic diaphragm.
Which of the following is the furcula?
a pin bone
b wish bone
c hook bone
d thigh bone
b. wish bone
Furcula or wishbone is the fused clavicle of birds.
In a section of the spinal cord, a butterfly-shaped gray matter is seen. Upon higher magnification, you will see the following cells and structures, EXCEPT:
a neuroglia
b dendrites
c neuronal cell bodies
d myelinated axon
d. myelinated axon
Gray matter is a component of nervous tissue that is found in the brain, spinal cord, and some peripheral nerves. It contains clusters of cell bodies, dendrites, and unmyelinated axons, as well as glial cells that provide support and protection for neurons. Myelinated axon is present at the white matter.
The following are missing in birds, EXCEPT:
a teeth
b diaphragm
c colon
d rectum
d. rectum
Birds lack teeth, diaphragm and colon. Birds have rectum
Which animal lacks subclavius?
a dog
b pig
c horse
d cattle
a. dog
Dog lacks subclavius. This muscle can be found as an additional pectoral muscle. This is sometimes been considered as part of the deep pectoral muscle. This muscle is well-developed in pigs and horse. It is poorly developed and narrow in ruminants
In cats, which duct is present connecting the pancreas and the duodenum?
a both accessory and pancreatic duct
b pancreatic duct only
c accessory pancreatic duct only
d neither of the two ducts are present
B
The secretion of pancreas reaches the duodenum through two ducts, pancreatic duct and accessory pancreatic duct. Despite the name, the accessory pancreatic duct is way larger than the pancreatic duct. Domestic animals differ in the presence of these ducts. In cats and small ruminants, only the pancreatic duct is present. In dogs and horse, both ducts are present. In large ruminants and pig, only the accessory pancreatic duct is present.
A dog was lame on the left hind leg. Upon physical examination, the distal end of the femur was drawn cranially. What was the torn ligament?
a Cranial cruciate ligament
b Medial collateral ligament
c Patellar ligament
d Caudal cruciate ligament
D
A distal femur that is drawn cranially indicates that the proximal end of the tibia-fibula is drawn caudally. This means that there is a torn caudal cruciate ligament.
Cricoid is actually a cartilage of which of the following organs?
a larynx
b humeral head
c pinna
d nuchal cord
a. larynx
The larynx is a short cartilaginous tube that connects the lower part of the pharynx with the trachea and contains the organ of phonation. It is composed of the following laryngeal cartilages: Epiglottis or epiglottic cartilage – unpaired, spade-shaped, rostral most cartilage giving structure to the epiglottis which closes the laryngeal opening during deglutition (protecting the lungs from foreign bodies) 2. Arytenoid cartilage – paired, irregular cartilage articulating medially with the cricoid cartilage. It has a number of processes (vocal, muscular, corniculate, and cuneiform). 3. Thyroid cartilage – unpaired, largest laryngeal cartilage and open dorsally. Adam’s apple in man. 4. Cricoid cartilage – unpaired, signet ring-like shaped, connecting thyroid cartilage and the trachea.
In dogs, the intervertebral disc is LEAST likely to rupture at the level of:
a T7-T9
b T10-L1
c L2-L5
d Cd1-Cd3
a. T7-T9
T10 onwards does not have intercapital ligaments. Intercapital ligaments contribute to supporting the annulus fibrosus, which forms the outer portion of intervertebral discs. The ligaments add an extra layer of reinforcement, assisting in preventing herniation or bulging of the discs under pressure or stress.
You saw a dog with a history of a car accident. Upon close examination, you observed that in a standing position, the vertebral border of the right scapula projects dorsally above the tips of the spinous process of the thoracic vertebrae. With this presentation, you might suspect that dog is suffering from:
a rupture of the subscapular muscle
b fracture of the neck of the scapula
c rupture of the serratus ventralis muscle
d paralysis of the trapezius muscle
C
The serratus ventralis muscle attaches to the serrated face of the scapula dorsally to the rib cage ventrally. With this, we can say that the trunk is actually suspended from the scapula by the serratus ventralis muscle. Rupture would allow the scapula to project dorsally above the spinous process of the thoracic vertebrae.
Which part of the chicken oviduct forms a significant portion of the albumen of the egg?
a infundibulum
b isthmus
c uterus
d vagina
c. uterus
Among the choices, both the isthmus and the uterus secretes albumen but only the uterus and the magnum (which is not given in the choices) each secretes about 40% of the egg’s albumen.
On a lateral approach, which muscles should be separated to expose the lateral surface of the femur?
a gastrocnemius and superficial digital flexor
b biceps femoris and vastus lateralis
c superficial and middle gluetus muscle
d common digital extensor and lateral digital extensor
B
The biceps femoris is the lateral most member of the hamstring muscle. Together with the vastus lateralis, they cover the lateral side of the femur.
Triceps surae is also referred to as the
a triceps of calf
b triceps of ewe
c triceps of cow
d triceps of doe
a. triceps of calf
The triceps surae consists of two muscles located at the calf – the gastrocnemius and the soleus.
Which of the following best describes the bulbourethral gland of a bull?
a like a cherry
b pyramidal in shape
c elongated
d bull lacksbulbourethral gland
a. like a cherry
Bull has a pair of bulbourethral glands that is looked like a cherry. Some described it as pea-like structures.
Which nerve can be exposed if you transect the biceps femoris muscle of dog?
a femoral nerve
b sciatic nerve
c tibial nerve
d radial nerve
B
The sciatic nerve is interposed between the biceps femoris and adductor muscle.
What is the lining epithelium of the endocardium of the heart?
a simple squamous epithelium
b simple cuboidal epithelium
c pseudostratified columnar epithelium
d simple columnar epithelium
a
The lining epithelium of the endocardium consists of a simple squamous epithelium called the endothelium. The endothelium is a layer of flattened cells that form a smooth surface covering the inner layer of the heart, including the chambers and valves. The endothelium provides a smooth surface that allows for the unimpeded flow of blood through the heart chambers and valves. This reduces friction and turbulence during blood circulation.
Which of the following animals lack renal papillae but with renal crest?
a dog, horse and cattle
b dog and cattle
c dog, horse and sheep
d dog, pig, cattle and sheep
c
Dog, horse and sheep have the renal crest and lack renal papillae. Take note that the lobes of their kidneys are fused unlike in pig and cattle.
What is the only masticatory muscle that opens the jaw?
a temporalis
b digastricus
c masseter
d pterygoideus
b
Masticatory muscles are those muscles that have attachments to the mandible and whose contractions produce the jaw movements associated with chewing. As a general rule, considerably more muscle mass (and therefore strength) is devoted to the elevation (closure) of the mandible than to depression (opening). Most of the muscles of mastication are innervated by the trigeminal nerve. Digastricus (biventer)- only muscle that opens the jaw, aided by gravity. Masseter - closes the jaw and lies lateral to the mandible. It is located at the deep masseteric fossa of the mandible of dog. Temporalis - also closes the jaw and is the largest and strongest muscle of the head. It covers much of the dorsal and lateral surfaces of the skull. Medial and lateral pterygoids - these are deep muscles that lie medial to the mandible. They aid the temporalis and masseter muscles in closing the jaw, but they are also responsible for the side-to-side movement of the mouth typical of herbivore mastication.
What is the glandular stomach of a chicken?
a crop
b gizzard
c proventriculus
d Meckle’s diverticulum
c
Bird has two stomach, the glandular proventriculus and the muscular ventriculus or the gizzard.
What is the ring of soft horn marking the transition between the skin and the horn?
a vexillum
b epikeras
c cornual rings
d spur
b
Epikeras is a ring of soft horn marking the transition between the skin and the horn. Like periople of the hoof, it grows out and covers the horn with a thin shiny layer.
Which cell has a typical signet ring appearance when viewed under the microscope?
a hepatocytes
b erythrocytes
c adipocytes
d fibroblasts
c
Adipocytes are the fat cells. The fat globules in the cytoplasm of the cell displaces the nucleus making it appear like a signet ring.
Which primitive structure forms the digestive system?
a endocardial cushion
b endocardial tube
c primitive gut
d laryngotracheal tube
c
The primitive gut is divided into foregut, midgut, and hindgut which will give rise to different segments of the digestive tract.
What is fleshy growth or crest on the top of the head of chicken?
a comb
b snood
c caruncle
d wattle
a
The fleshy growth or crest on the top of the head of a chicken is called a comb. Different breeds have different shapes of comb. A wattle is a fleshy growth that hangs down under the chin. A snood is a fleshy appendage that extends over the beak normally present in a turkey. Caruncles are fleshy protuberances found on the head, neck and throat, with larger structures particularly at the bottom of the throat.
The following are classified as tonsil with crypt, EXCEPT:
a palatine tonsil of horse
b tubal tonsil of pig
c paraepiglottic tonsil of cat
d lingual tonsil of pig
c
Tonsillar crypts are invaginations or furrows that can be found on the surface of some tonsils. The primary function of tonsillar crypts is to increase the surface area of the tonsils, allowing for greater exposure of lymphoid tissue to the substances passing through. This facilitates the immune response by capturing and trapping antigens. The trapped substances are then presented to immune cells.
What is the relationship between the number sternebrae with the number of sternal ribs?
a they are equal
b number of sternebrae is one less than the number of sternal ribs
c number of sternal ribs is one less than the number of sternebrae
d the number of sternebrae is twice more than the number of sternal ribs
b
It is constant in all domestic animals that the number of sternal ribs is one more than the number of sternebrae.
The muscles of the tongue are derived from the:
a neural crest
b occipital myotomes
c 1st pharyngeal arch mesoderm
d most rostral somitomeres
b
Occipital myotomes are the origin of the tongue muscles that migrate rostrally into the swellings on the floor of the pharynx.
Which part of the ovum should be penetrated first by the sperm head to start fertilization?
a zona pellucida
b corona radiata
c nuclei
d chromatin
b
The corona radiata is the innermost layer of the cells of the cumulus oophorus and is directly adjacent to the zona pellucida, the inner protective glycoprotein layer of the ovum. For fertilization to occur, sperm cells rely on hyaluronidase (an enzyme found in the acrosome of spermatozoa) to disperse the corona radiata.
Among the choices, which animal has the least to almost no lobations of the liver:
a dog
b ruminants
c horse
d pig
b
The left and right liver lobes of ruminants are undivided, unlike in carnivores and pigs. In horses, only the right liver lobe is undivided.
Which structure is unique in the ovary of mare?
a follicles
b ovulation fossa
c graafian follicle
d cortex
b
The ovary of a mare has an exact location where the ovum is being ovulated. This is called the ovulation fossa and is unique in the ovary of mares.
What is the white-colored part of the eye?
a sclera
b cornea
c pupil
d iris
a
The sclera is the white part of the eye. Together with the transparent outer cornea, they form the fibrous tunic of the eye.
Which nerve is passing through the supracondylar foramen present in the humerus of cat?
a brachial nerve
b median nerve
c femoral nerve
d tibial nerve
b
Supracondylar foramen is a unique foramen in the distal end of the humerus of a cat. The structure is located at the medial side.
Aside from the horse, which animal has undivided Sartorius muscle?
a dog
b pig
c cattle
d cat
d
Sartorius is a long muscle of the cranial part of the thigh. Aside from horse, cats have undivided sartorius muscle.
Which of the following animals will you see a placentome?
a bull
b cow
c ewe
d B and C
d
Placentome is the term used for the combined caruncle (dam component) and cotyledon (fetal component) in the placenta. This is present in all female ruminants like cow, ewe and doe. This is absent in male animals like bull.
Which of the following is the largest compartment in the adult ruminant forestomach?
a rumen
b reticulum
comasum
d abomasum
a
In an adult ruminant, the rumen is the largest compartment of the forestomach. However, in a newly-born and young ruminants, the abomasum is the largest. The change in size correlates with the change in the diet from milk to grass.
The pancreas arises from which specific segment of the primitive gut?
a foregut
b midgut
c hindgut
d mesogut
a
During early embryonic development, the gut tube is divided into three segments: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. The foregut is located closest to the head and gives rise to several important organs, including the esophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. The pancreas arises as two buds from the foregut endoderm. The ventral pancreatic bud arises from the ventral wall of the foregut, while the dorsal pancreatic bud arises from the dorsal wall. These buds eventually fuse together to form the mature pancreas.
Which vein in the thoracic limb is the most common site of venipuncture?
a jugular vein
b medial saphenous vein
c lateral saphenous vein
d cephalic vein
d
In the thoracic limb, the cephalic vein is superficially located and easily accessible for drawing blood.
The heart of a dog is normally located between which rib?
a between 3rd and 4th ribs
b between 4th and 7th ribs
c between 3rd and 7th ribs
d between 1st and 3rd ribs
c
Although variation exists depending on the reference and breed of the animal, dog’s heart are normally located between the 3rd and 7th rib.
Brown adipose tissue is most abundant in which of the following animals?
a pig
b cattle
c dog
d rodents
d
Brown Adipose Tissue (BAT) is composed by mitochondrial rich, multilocular adipocytes. This is abundant in rodents located at their interscapular region. Brown fat produces heat to help maintain body temperature in cold conditions.This tissue is important in hibernating animals like rodents.
Omasal lymph node is a part of which lymphocenter in ruminants?
a cranial mesenteric lymphocenter
b caudal mesenteric lymphocenter
c coeliac lymphocenter
d lumbar lymphocenter
c
Omasal lymph node is a subdivision of the gastric lymph node in ruminants. Gastric lymph node is part of the coeliac lymphocenter.
The udder of cow is located in which specific region?
a inguinal
b abdominal
c umbilical
d thoracic
a
The udder of ruminants and horses are located in the inguinal region; thoracoabdominal in cats; thoracoabdominoinguinal in dogs and pigs.
In dogs, the thymus is located at which part of the mediastinum?
a cranial mediastinum
b middle mediastinum
c caudal mediastinum
d dog lacks thymus
a
In dogs, thymus is situated at the cranial mediastinum.
Damage to which dog’s cranial nerve will have an effect on the action of neck muscles such as brachiocephalicus muscle?
a vagus nerve
b spinal accessory nerve
c trochlear nerve
d hypoglossal nerve
b
The spinal accessory, CN XI, carries sensory and motor information for the muscles of the head and upper neck. Brachiocephalicus is a muscle that extends from the arm to the head covering the neck region of the dog. Vagus (CN X) is the longest cranial nerve and provides sensory and motor control for the major internal organs, including the heart and the digestive tract Trochlear nerve (CN IV) is the smallest cranial nerve and carries motor neurons that control other muscles of the eye. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is the last cranial nerve and acts as motor nerves to the tongue.
Which kidney structure is missing in large ruminants?
a renal cortex
b renal pelvis
c renal medulla
d renal papilla
b
Large ruminant kidneys are lobated like a bunch of grapes and lack renal pelvis. Formed urine directly move from minor to major renal calyces then to the ureter without the renal pelvis.
In most domestic animals, the right kidney is always higher than the left, with the exception of which?
a dog
b horse
c cattle
d pig
d
Kidneys are described to be located in the retroperitoneal space. Organs are retroperitoneal if they have peritoneum on their anterior side only. The kidneys of most animal species are bean-shaped and located in the dorsal part of the abdominal cavity just ventral to the first few lumbar vertebrae. The right is always higher in most domestic animals except in pigs which are of the same level.
What classification of an ovum is being described to have scanty yolk but equally distributed throughout the cytoplasm?
a isolecithal
b telolecithal
c mesolecithal
d macrolecithal
a
Eggs can be classified based on the amount of yolk and based on its distribution. Based on the amount: Alecithal egg - the egg contains no yolk Microlecithal egg -the egg contains small or negligible amount of yolk Mesolecithal egg - the egg contains moderate amount of yolk Macrolecithal - the egg contains large amount of yolk Based on the distribution: Isolecithal - the very little amount of yolk present is uniformly distributed throughout Telolecithal - eggs containing moderate or large quantities of yolk and the distribution of yolk is not uniform. lt is concentrated more toward the vegetal pole.
What type of placentation is being described when rugae are seen in the microscope?
a lamellar
b folded
c zonary
d villous
b
The capacity for exchange between maternal and fetal tissues is enhanced by the increased surface area. This is made possible by a folded, villous, or lamellar interface. In the folded placenta, the fetal–maternal contact surface is increased by the presence of vascularized macroscopic folds (plicae) of varying magnitude and microscopic ridges (rugae) of varying height (sow). In the villous placenta, the allantochorion forms cotyledons (i.e., arborizing chorionic villi with vascular mesenchymal cores that fit into corresponding caruncular crypts). Together, the villi and crypts form macroscopic (ruminants) or microscopic placentomes (mares), or independently, the villous tree extends into the maternal intervillous blood space (humans). In lamellar placentation, the trophoblast of the allantochorion forms an intercommunicating network that envelopes the endothelium of maternal blood vessels (carnivores), or it is in direct contact with maternal blood in trophoblast-lined vascular channels (rats, mice, rabbits).
Which of the following correctly describes Nissl bodies?
a. these are the removed nucleus of the rubricyte
b. these are aggregates of RER at the cytoplasm of a neuron
c. these aggregates of nucleolus in the lymphocytes
d. these are the stacking of the RBC to fit inside a capillary
b
Nissl bodies are composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) at the cytoplasm of neurons and are responsible for the synthesis of proteins. They are named after the German neurologist and psychiatrist, Franz Nissl, who first described them.
Which head of the triceps brachii muscle is missing in horse?
a long head
b accessory head
c lateral head
d medial head
b
Triceps brachii, from the name itself, is a muscle with three heads. This is true in all domestic animals, except in dogs with the addition of the accessory head. The triceps brachii is considered as the strongest extensor of the elbow.
Which domestic animal has a penis classified as fibroelastic-type?
a stallion
b dog
c tomcat
d bull
d
Male ruminants and pigs have fibroelastic-type of penis. Erection is made possible by the straightening of the sigmoid flexure.
What is the bulge at the dorsal root of the large ruminant tongue?
a palatine rugae
b incisive papillae
c dental pad
d torus linguae
d
Large ruminant tongue has a dorsal bulge called torus linguae.
In general, the kidneys of birds are divided into how many lobes?
a 2
b 3
c 4
d 5
b
There are three lobes in the bird kidneys: cranial, middle and caudal lobes.
The sacrum of dogs are composed of three bones joined by what type of joint?
a synostosis
b syndesmosis
c synarthroses
d none of the above
a
The joints between the three sacral vertebrae are fused completely, forming a single sacrum with the segments joined by synostoses. Synostosis is the osseous union between cartilaginous or fibrous tissues in syndesmosis, symphysis, or synchondrosis.
Which of the following best describes the ovaries of a mare?
a bean shape
b round with protruding follicles
c like a bunch of grapes
d heart shape
a
Mare has a distinct bean-shaped or kidney-shaped ovaries because of the presence of ovulation fossa.
Which of the following forms the outermost layer of the fetal membrane?
a chorion
b amnion
c allantois
d yolk sac
a
Four fetal membranes develop in a conceptus. Two arise from the trophoblast layer of the blastocyst (and are continuous with the somatopleure of the embryo). Two arise from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst (and are continuous with splanchnopleure of the embryo). 1. Chorion - forms the outer boundary of the entire conceptus (from trophoblast). 2. Amnion - encloses the embryo within a fluid-filled amnionic cavity; formed by folds of the chorion in domestic mammals. 3. Allantois - is highly vascular and provides the functional vessels of the placenta, via umbilical vessels. 4. Yolk sac - continuous with midgut splanchnopleure (develops early with hypoblast formation from inner cell mass). Supplied by vitelline vessels, it forms an early temporary placenta in the horse and dog. Yolk sac is most important in egg-laying vertebrates.
Which heart valve is the most cranial in location?
a aortic valve
b pulmonary valve
c tricuspid valve
d bicuspid valve
b
The pulmonary and aortic valves can be located almost at the same level, but pulmonary valve is slightly more cranial in position.
Where is the recommended site for thoracocentesis in horse?
a. between 7th and 8th intercostal space, left side
b. between 5th and 6th intercostal space, left side
c. between 9th and 10th intercostal space, left side
d. between 11th and 12th intercostal space, left side
a
Thoracocentesis is an invasive procedure to remove air or liquid from pleural spaces for therapeutic or diagnostic purposes. The site for thoracocentesis can be identified through the use of landmarks. In the horse, it is the 7th - 8th intercostal space on left side and 6th and 7th intercostal space on the right side.
In dogs, the left subclavian artery directly arises from which major artery?
a aortic arch
b brachiocephalic trunk
c right subclavian artery
d ascending aorta
a
In dogs, the left subclavian artery arises from the aortic arch together with the brachiocephalic trunk. This is also true in pigs. However, in large animals like cattle and horse, only the brachiocephalic trunk arises from the aortic arch and their left subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk.
Which of the following animals has a vascular- type of penis?
a dog
b boar
c bull
d buck
a
Dog has a vascular or musculocavernous-type of penis. Ruminants and pig have fibroelastic-type of penis.
Renal notch is present in which of the following organ?
a kidney
b liver
c lungs
d heart
b
Renal notch is a shallow concavity at the right hepatic lobe of all domestic animals except pig. Note that the right kidney is always higher than the left (except in pigs). This arrangement caused a concavity to accomodate the kidney which is just below the liver.
Which of the following has a marble-like spleen?
a horse
b chicken
c pig
d dog
b
The spleen of a chicken is round and is attached closed to the gizzard. It is boot-shaped in dog, falciform or hook-like in horse, tongue-like in pig, leaf-like in small ruminants and strap-like in large ruminants.
Uncinate process are unique anatomical structures present in the ribs of which of the following animals?
a goat
b pig
c chicken
d horse
c
The ribs of birds are different from mammals as it has a hook-shaped projection called uncinate process. This process is present at the vertebral ribs of the chicken and it projects caudally.
What is the wedge-shaped structure between the sole, bars, and bulb of the horse hoof?
a quarter
b coronet
c frog
d heel
c
The frog is the wedge-shaped structure between the sole, bars, and bulb of the equine hoof. It is often called the heart of the horse’s foot because its compression forces blood out of the foot back toward the body. The frog is homologous with other species’ digital pads.
Which of the following lymph nodes is LEAST palpable in dogs?
a. medial retropharyngeal lymph node
b parotid lymph node
c superficial cervical lymph node
d mandibular lymph node
a
Lymph nodes can be palpable and can be used in assessing the condition of the animals especially in dogs. Among the choices, the medial retropharyngeal lymph node is the deepest and lies between the larynx and wing of the atlas. It is not normally palpable. The rest of the choices are normally palpable.
Which segment of the digestive tract is missing in birds?
a jejunum
b colon
c esophagus
d rectum
b
Birds lack colon. The ileum is connected directly to the rectum at the ileocecal junction.
Which layer of the heart is the thickest?
a pericardium
b endocardium
c myocardium
d epicardium
c
The heart is composed of three layers, which are, from the outermost to the innermost: Epicardium: This is the outermost layer of the heart, also known as the visceral pericardium. It is a thin, smooth layer of connective tissue that covers the surface of the heart and forms part of the pericardium. Myocardium: This is the middle and thickest layer of the heart, and it is composed of specialized cardiac muscle tissue. The myocardium is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the heart, which generates the force needed to pump blood throughout the body. Endocardium: This is the innermost layer of the heart, which lines the interior of the heart chambers and covers the heart valves. It is composed of a thin layer of endothelial cells that help to prevent blood clots and regulate blood flow through the heart.
Which of the following animals do not have a cystic portion of the developing liver?
a cattle
b rat
c pig
d dog
b
During embryonic development, the liver initially forms as a simple, hollow tube, known as the hepatic diverticulum or liver bud, which arises from the endoderm of the foregut. The hepatic diverticulum then grows and divides to form the complex structure of the liver. As the liver bud grows, it gives rise to several outgrowths, including a small outpouching known as the cystic diverticulum or cystic bud. The cystic bud eventually gives rise to the gallbladder and cystic duct, which play important roles in the storage and transport of bile. Rats (and some other rodents) do not have a gallbladder.
In castrating dogs, stallions, or bulls, the spermatic cord is ligated. The following are structures present in the spermatic cord, EXCEPT:
a seminiferous tubule
b testicular artery
c testicular vein
d deferent duct
a
The spermatic cord is a bundle of connective tissue, blood vessels, nerves, and ducts that extend from the abdomen to the testicles. It includes the testicular artery, veins, lymph, and the deferent duct. The seminiferous tubule forms the parenchyma of the testes and is where the spermatozoa are produced.
What structure passes through the supratrochlear foramen of dog?
a median artery
b cephalic vein and median nerve
c accessory cephalic vein
d none
d
Supratrochlear foramen is a direct opening between the radial and olecranon fossae of the dog’s humerus. This is present only in dogs and interestingly, no structures pass through it.
What is the first segment of the bird’s cloaca after the rectum?
a proctodeum
b coprodeum
c urodeum
d anus
b
The cloaca of a bird is composed of three segments, the coprodeum, urodeum and proctodeum, serving different functions. Anatomically, the coprodeum is the first segment right after the rectum.
What is the replacement of the missing upper incisors in ruminants?
a palatine rugae
b incisive papillae
c dental pad
d torus linguae
c
The upper dental arcade of small and large ruminants lacks incisors. In replacement, they have a dental pad which is described as a thick, hard gum line.
What is the functional metacarpal bone of a horse?
a Mc l
b Mc II
c Mc III
d Mc IV
c
Mc III or the cannon bone is the only functional and weight-bearing metacarpal bone of horses. Mc II and Mc IV are attached to the Mc III and are called splint bones. Mc I and Mc V are missing.
An embryo undergoing rapid cell division would begin as a:
a morula
b blastula
c zygote
d blastocyst
c
A zygote is the first diploid cell that is formed by the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of an embryo. The zygote stage development occurs in the first week of fertilization. The correct sequence of embryonic development is: Zygote - Morula - Blastula - Gastrula - Embryo.
Which of the following structure served as the copulatory organ of male snake?
a phallus
b penis
c hemipenis
d operculum
c
A hemipenis (plural hemipenes) is one of a pair of intromittent organs of male squamates (snakes, lizards and worm lizards). They are usually held inverted within the body, and are everted during reproduction.
In female embryos, the urogenital sinus contributes to all of the following, except:
a cervix
b urethra
c vestibule
d urinary bladder
a
The primitive urogenital sinus gives rise to urinary bladder, urethra and vestibule in the female embryo. In the male embryo, it gives rise to the bladder and penile urethra. The cervix arises from paramesonephric duct.
The following are branches of the coeliac artery, EXCEPT:
a left gastric artery
b right gastric artery
c splenic artery
d hepatic artery
b
The coeliac artery is one of the unpaired branches of the abdominal aorta. Only the left gastric artery, splenic artery and hepatic artery arises from it. The right gastric artery arises from the hepatic artery.
Among the following statements, which is anatomically incorrect?
a. Ruminants and pigs have the same branching of the left subclavian artery
b. In pigs, the right coronary artery gives rise to the subsinousal interventricular branch
c. The branches of the right subclavian cartery in horse are the same in the dog
d None of the above
d
All statements are anatomically correct.
Nodes of Ranvier are
a gaps between myelinated axon
b spaces between axon and dendrites
c gaps between myelinated dendrites
d spaces between two neuron
a
The nodes of Ranvier, also known as myelin sheath gaps, are regularly spaced gaps in the myelin sheath that surrounds axons of neurons in the nervous system. The myelin sheath is a fatty insulating layer that increases the speed of nerve impulses along the axon. The nodes of Ranvier are important for the efficient propagation of action potentials, which are the electrical signals that neurons use to communicate with each other. These gaps allow the action potential to “jump” from one node to the next, a process known as saltatory conduction. This allows the signal to travel quickly down the axon, while conserving energy and resources for the neuron.
A positive Sudan Red test indicates the presence of what food substrate?
a carbohydrates
b amino acids
c glucose
d fats
d
Sudan IV (Red) is a fat-soluble dye that stains lipids red. Two layer indicates the presence of water-insoluble substances like fats, with red color on the top layer.
Which of the following has the most number of rib pairs?
a dog
b goat
c horse
d cattle
c
The horse has a total number of 18 rib pairs. Take note that the number of rib pairs is equal to the total number of thoracic vertebrae. Ruminants have 13, the pig has 14 and dog has 13 rib pairs.
When peforming onychectomy in cat, which digit is being removed?
a first phalanx
b second phalanx
c third phalanx
d fourth phalanx
c
Onychectomy (declaw removal) is an elective surgery that requires removal of the third phalanx that renders cats unable to scratch.
Which primitive structure forms the digestive system?
a endocardial cushion
b primitive gut
c endocardial tube
d laryngotracheal tube
b
The primitive gut, also known as the embryonic gut tube, is the precursor to the digestive system and associated organs in developing embryos. The gut tube initially consists of a single layer of cells, but it soon undergoes a process of elongation and folding that divides it into three main segments: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut.
Among domestic animals, which has the least number of male accessory sex gland?
a dog
b boar
c rooster
d buck
c
Chicken lacks male accessory sex gland. The ejaculate is composed of sperm and scant additional secretions produced by the testes and the walls of the ducts.
In case you suspect a case of Marek’s disease in a broiler, which anatomical structure should be checked for any abornomalities?
a crop
b duodenal loop
c koilin membrane
d sciatic nerve
d
In case of Marek’s disease, there will be a unilateral enlargement of the sciatic nerve. This is suggestive of the neural form of the disease.
The 4th Aortic Arch will give rise to which of the following adult structure?
a vitelline veins
b pulmonary artery
c carotid artery
d right subclavian artery
d
During embryonic development, the fourth aortic arch gives rise to the proximal portion of the right subclavian artery. The subclavian arteries are major arteries that supply blood to the arms, chest, and back. They arise from the brachiocephalic trunk (in the case of the right subclavian artery) or directly from the aortic arch (in the case of the left subclavian artery).
Which of the following best describe the placentation of carnivores like dogs?
a epitheliochorial, diffuse
b endotheliochorial, zonary
c hemichorial, discoid
d syndesmochorial, diffuse
b
Placentation can be classified based on placental shape and contact (diffuse, cotyledonary, zonary or discoid) or based on the layers between fetal and maternal blood (epitheliochorial, endotheliochorial, hemichorial or syndesmochorial). Dogs and cats have endotheliochorial, zonary type of placentation.
Which accessory sex gland is present in dog surrounding its pelvic urethra?
a prostate gland
b bulbourethral gland
c vesicular gland
d cowper’s gland
a
Prostate gland is located around the pelvic urethra forming a ring-like structure as it encloses the structure. Enlargement as in the case of cancer impedes the flow of urine as in the case of dogs.
Caudal displacement of the tibia relative to femur indicates a torn:
a cranial cruciate ligament
b caudal cruciate ligament
c cranial meniscotibial ligament
d caudal meniscotibial ligament
b
The cranial drawer test is performed in dogs to detect rupture of the cranial cruciate ligament that results in cranial displacement of the tibia relative to femur. The caudal cruciate ligament has antagonistic action to the CrCL, and is rarely affected.
What structure replaces the thymus in adult animals?
a muscle
b fats
c became part of the clavicle
d thymus is not replaced in adult animal
b
Thymus gradually involute until the animal reaches sexual maturity. Regression starts at the cranial, cervical part of the organ, so that the thoracic part remains longer. As it decreases in size and loses its lymphoid structure, it is replaced by fat.
What is the only unpaired hyoid bone?
a basihyoid
b ceratohyoid
c stylohyoid
d epihyoid
a
The hyoid apparatus is located at the intermandibular space which stabilizes the tongue and the larynx by suspending them from the skull. The chronological order of hyoid bone is Stylohyoid, Epihyoid, Ceratohyoid, Basihyoid, and Thyrohyoid. (Remember: Sick Elephants Can Be Treated)
Interzone is important in the development of what adult structure?
a cartilage
b joint
c skin
d lens
b
The term “interzone” refers to the region between two developing skeletal elements in the embryo, where joint formation occurs. Specifically, the interzone is the area where mesenchymal cells condense and differentiate into chondrocytes, which form the cartilage template of the joint. The interzone is important in the development of synovial joints, which are the most common type of joint in the body.
What is the heart-shaped pad on the palmar side of the dog?
a carpal pad
b metacarpal pad
c digital pad
d tarsal pad
b
Among the pads of dogs, the metacarpal pad (or even the metatarsal pad) is characteristically heart-heart shaped as shown in paw prints. Note that dogs lack tarsal pads.
You were asked to identify the animal based on the ovary presented. The ovaries are described to be like a bunch of small grapes. The ovaries were most likely coming from which domestic animal?
a mare
b ewe
c bitch
d sow
d
Among domestic animals, the follicles in the ovary of sow are very evident and look like a bunch of small grapes.
Which part of the cloaca can you see the Bursa of Fabricius?
a coprodeum
b urodeum
c proctodeum
d rectum
c
Bursa of Fabricius is the dorsal outpouching of the proctodeum or most distal portion of the cloaca.
Which domestic animal has a margo plicatus in the stomach?
a dog
b horse
c pig
d cattle
b
Horse stomach is relatively small in relation to its size. It is divided into a glandular and non-glandular part by a distinct structure called margo plicatus. Note that horse is an example of hindgut fermenter in which the cecum plays a very important role in the digestion of feedstuff.
Which of the following muscles is the most lateral of the hamstring group of muscles?
a biceps femoris
b semitendinosus
c semimembranosus
d rectus femoris
a
The hamstring group of muscles includes the biceps femoris (lateral), semitendinosus (middle) and semimembranosus (medial). These are the superficial muscles of the hip and thigh and attach proximal and distal to the stifle joint.
Where is the insertion of supraspinatus muscle?
a supraspinous fossa
b greater tubercle
c lesser tubercle
d deltoid tuberosity
b
Supraspinatus is an intrinsic muscle of the thoracic limb. It originates from the supraspinous fossa of the scapula and inserted at the greater tubercle of the humerus. Take note that both supraspinatus and infraspinatus are inserted at the greater tubercle. They only differ in the origin.
Which layer of the equine’s hoof is the thickest and bears most of the animal’s weight?
a stratum medium
b stratum corneum
c stratum internum
d stratum externum
a
The hoof wall is composed of three distinct layers of stratum corneum. Stratum externum, or periople, is the thin, outermost layer of the hoof wall. Stratum medium, or tubular horn, is the middle and thickest layer of the hoof wall. This layer also may contain pigment. Stratum internum is the innermost layer of the hoof wall. This layer is produced by the epithelium of the laminar epidermis and is fused to the stratum medium, forming a relatively contiguous hoof wall.
The following statements describe the anatomical location of the ovaries of bitch, EXCEPT:
a. both ovaries are near the caudal pole of the kidneys
b. the right ovary is dorsal to the descending duodenum
c. the left ovary is between the descending colon and the abdominal wall
d none of the above
d
All the statements correctly described the position of the ovaries of bitch.
Which primary brain vesicle will develop into theo adult cerebrum?
a rhombencephalon
b mesencephalon
c diencephalon
d prosencephalon
d. prosencephalon
The three primary brain vesicles include the prosencephalon (cranial), mesencephalon (middle) and rhombencephalon (caudal). The prosencephalon will further subdivide into telencephalon (future cerebrum) and diencephalon (future thalamus and hypothalamus).
Which organ will you check to confirm a case of Newcastle disease in a chicken?
a crop
b gizzard
c proventriculus
d Meckle’s diverticulum
c. proventriculus
Petechial hemorrhages in the proventriculus can be a pathognomonic lesion in Newcastle disease.
Which of the following has the largest lumen size?
a arteriole
b vein
c capillary
d artery
b. vein
Arteries have thick walls. Veins have thin walls but typically have wider lumen. Their walls are considerably less elastic, less muscular, and their lumens are correspondingly larger in diameter, allowing more blood to flow with less vessel resistance. However, lumen size may vary depending on the specific artery or vein.
Sella turcica is a shallow depression at the sphenoid bone. This structure is intended to protect which brain part?
a hypothalamus
b pituitary gland
c pons
d medulla
b. pituitary gland
The term “sella turcica” is derived from Latin and means “Turkish saddle” due to its distinctive shape. It is named so because it resembles a saddle used in horseback riding, with its anterior and posterior clinoid processes resembling stirrups. It is a bony structure located at the base of the skull, in the sphenoid bone. It houses the pituitary gland.
Which organ occupies most of the space of the abdominal cavity during fetal development causing the developing midgut to herniate through the umbilicus?
a stomach
b liver
c spleen
d pancreas
b. liver
During fetal development, the organ that occupies most of the space in the abdominal cavity is the liver. As the liver grows and develops, it pushes the developing midgut out of the abdominal cavity and into the umbilical cord, a process known as physiological herniation. The umbilical herniation of the midgut is a temporary and normal process that allows for the proper development of the gastrointestinal tract in the fetus.
In comparing the mandible of a dog and a goat, which of the following anatomical structure should be considered?
a. presence of coronoid process in the mandible of dog
b. absence of condyloid process in the mandible of goat
c. presence of angular process in the mandible of dog
same height of the condyloid and d. coronoid process in the mandible of goat
c. presence of angular process in the mandible of dog
Angular process is present at the angle of the mandible of carnivores like dogs thus goats lack this structure. Both coronoid and condyloid processes are present in both animals. Coronoid process is higher than the condyloid process in all species except in pig. The same height of condyloid and coronoid processes is a feature of a pig’s mandible.
Which of the following is the anticlinal vertebra of cattle?
a T10
b T11
c T13
d T14
c. T13
The anticlinal vertebra of ruminants is the last thoracic vertebra. Anticlinal vertebra is defined as the thoracic vertebra with the most vertically oriented spinous process and is important as landmark especially in radiology.
What is the fate of the 2nd Aortic Arch?
a it will degenerate
b it will become the carotid artery
c it will become the right subclavian artery
d it will become the vitelline veins
a. it will degenerate
The second aortic arch regresses early, but a remnant forms portions of the hyoid and stapedial arteries.
Damage to which of the following nerve will cause problems in the normal function of the triceps brachii muscle?
a median nerve
b radial nerve
c ulnar nerve
d axillary nerve
b. radial nerve
The triceps brachii is the strongest extensor of the thoracic limb. From its name, it has three heads (long, lateral, and medial heads) with the addition of accessory head in dogs. All heads of the triceps brachii are innervated by the branches of the radial nerve.
Which of the following is correct feature of the spleen of a horse?
a boot-shaped
b shape like a hook
c like a marble
d tongue-like
b. shape like a hook
The spleen of a horse is falciform or hook-liked in appearance. Dog has a boot-shaped, chicken has a marble-shaped, pig has a tongue-shape and goat and sheep have a leaf-shaped spleen.
Which of the following is the muscular stomach of chicken? 4
a gizzard
b proventriculus
c Meckel’s diverticulum
d margo plicatus
a gizzard
The ventriculus or gizzard serves as the muscular or mechanical stomach of the birds. Normally, there are grits inside the organ to assist in the physical grinding of feeds.
