Vestibular: Postural Control Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the biomechanical factors that contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Degrees of freedom
Strength
Limits of stability

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2
Q

What are the movt strategies that contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Reactive
Anticipatory
Voluntary

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3
Q

What are the orientations in space the contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Perception
Gravity
Surfaces
Vision
Verticality

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4
Q

What are the sensory strategies that contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Sensory integration
Sensory reweighting

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5
Q

What are the controls of dynamics that contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Gait and proactive responses

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6
Q

What are the cognitive processes that contribute to stability and orientation?

A

Attention and learning

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7
Q

What test can we use to determine which type of balance problem a pt presents with?

A

The miniBEST test

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8
Q

What is the go to test for balance and vestibular pts?

A

The miniBEST test

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9
Q

What are the 6 specific domains of postural control?

A

Dynamic gait (including sensory and motor)
Sensory organization and weighting
COG position and voluntary control (limits of stability)
Postural responses (strategies, APAs, RPRs)
Dual tasking (cognitive interference)
MSK, cardio considerations

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10
Q

What is the DGI?

A

A dynamic gait screen with 4 items to assess balance

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11
Q

What are the 4 items on the DGI?

A

Horizontal head turns
Vertical head turns
Gait on level surfaces
Changes in gait speed

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12
Q

What is the max score of the DGI?

A

12

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13
Q

A score of less than 10/12 on the DGI indicates what?

A

Fall risk

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14
Q

Is the pt allowed to use an AD with the FGA?

A

Yes

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15
Q

What is the FGA?

A

A modification of the DGI with improved reliability and decreased ceiling effect

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16
Q

What is the cutoff scores for the FGA?

A

Greater than or equal to 22/30 predicts falls in older adults

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17
Q

What are the tests done with the computerized dynamic posturography?

A

Sensory organization test (SOT)
Motor control test (MCT)
Adaptation test (ADT)
Limits of stability (LOS)
COG position/control

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18
Q

What is the SOT (sensory organization test)?

A

A 6 condition test with high specificity for what part of the system is contribution to imbalance

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19
Q

What is condition one of the SOT?

A

EO
Firm surface

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20
Q

When would we expect a pt to have issues with condition one of the SOT?

A

If they have a central lesion like a cerebellar issue
If they are making it up

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21
Q

What is condition two of the SOT?

A

EC
Firm surface

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22
Q

What is condition three of the SOT?

A

Firm surface
Moving environment with head in computer thingy creating unsteady vision

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23
Q

What is condition four of the SOT?

A

Unstable surface
EO

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24
Q

What is condition five of the SOT?

A

Unstable surface
EC

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25
What is condition six of the SOT?
Unstable surface Moving visual input in computer thingy to create unstable vision
26
What are the accurate systems in condition one of the SOT?
Vestibular Vision Somatosensory
27
What are the inaccurate systems in condition one of the SOT?
None
28
What are the accurate systems in condition two of the SOT?
Vestibular Somatosensory
29
What are the inaccurate systems in condition two of the SOT?
Vision
30
31
What systems are accurate in condition three of the SOT?
Vestibular Somatosensory
32
What systems are inaccurate in condition three of the SOT?
Vision
33
What systems are accurate in condition four of the SOT?
Vestibular Visual
34
What systems are inaccurate in condition four of the SOT?
Somatosensory
35
What systems are accurate in condition five of the SOT?
Vestibular
36
What systems are inaccurate in condition five of the SOT?
Somatosensory Vision
37
What systems are accurate in condition six of the SOT?
Vestibular
38
What systems are inaccurate in condition six of the SOT?
Vision Somatosensory
39
What is the difference between condition five and six of the SOT?
Condition five takes away vision and therefore unreliable Condition six makes vision unstable and therefore unreliable Both make vision unreliable to test the vestibular system but are treated differently
40
T/f: you have to the stress the system to make it work
True
41
You have to manipulate _____ input to change motor output
Sensory
42
T/f: decreased strength and ROM can decrease the sway envelope available and make balance worse
True
43
With a polyneuropathy, what are the two possible outcomes of putting the pt in condition two of the SOT (firm surface, EC)?
They could have a lot of sway bc they already have impaired somatosensation and now you are taking away their visual system, so they have to relay in their vestibular system OR they could have no sway bc they have adapted to their changed somatosensation
44
What should we document about sway?
The direction and timing of it
45
How can we determine a pts COG?
Using a posturographic measurement (big tech stuff) Using observation in the clinic
46
What are stability limits (limits of stability = LOS)?
The boundaries within which the body can maintain stability w/o changing the BOS
47
What mechanical factors limit normal COG position and LOS?
COG position and control BOS ROM strength
48
What internal factors limit normal COG position and LOS?
Perception
49
Other than mechanical and internal factors, what can limit normal COG position and LOS?
Accurate interpretation Pain Experience with anxiety or fear
50
What is the only way to evaluate postural strategies?
Careful observation in the clinic
51
What questions should we be considering about a pts postural response strategies?
Is the pt choosing the appropriate strategy for the surface situation Is the pt choosing the appropriate strategy for their stability and sway?
52
When an individual is unstable on an unstable or narrow surface, what strategy should be used?
Hip strategy
53
When an individual is stable and on a stable or broad surface, what strategy should be used?
Ankle strategy
54
If the individual is stable on a stable or broad surface and they are using a hip strategy, is this an appropriate strategy choice?
Nope, they should be using ankle strategies
55
If an individual is unstable on an unstable or narrow surface and they are using ankle strategies, if this appropriate for the situation?
No, they should be using hip strategies
56
When should the ankle strategy be used?
When the surface is firm When the sway/demand is little Slow sway
57
When should the hip strategies be used?
On unstable surfaces On narrow BOS When perturbations and sway are too much
58
How can we test dual tasking?
TUGc (not explaining this one bc I think we all got this one)
59
How can we measure postural response strategies?
The miniBEST test
60
What inertial measurement options we should quantify?
Postural control/balance Gait TUG
61
How can we quantify COG sway area, mean sway, sway acceleration, and sway “jerk”?
With wearable sensors
62
How can we quantify gait?
With gait velocity
63
What component impairments may be present with imbalances?
Biomechanical alignment and control Sensory system fxn, weighting, or integration Motor system fxn or movt strategies Cognitive or perceptual processes Interaction with other systems Integration into dynamic gait and fxn
64
What is electronystagmography (ENG)?
Use of electrodes placed to recorder and measure each eye muscle response
65
What is videonystagmography (VNG)?
Use of video/video infrared recording to observe, record, and measure eye muscle responses
66
What do ENG and VNG do?
Record eye movt in response to a stim delivered to each vestibular apparatus
67
What is caloric testing?
Using cold or warm water/air irrigated into the external auditory canal to induce nystagmus
68
What does a cold stim do in caloric testing?
Eyes move in horizontal nystagmus away from the side of the stim
69
What does a warm stim do in caloric testing?
Eyes move toward the side of the stim
70
What does absent or reduced reactive eye movt suggest in caloric testing?
It suggests a vestibular weakness of the horizontal SCC of the side being stimulated
71
If there is <25% difference bw the two ears with caloric testing, is this considered normal?
Yes
72
Increased responses of more than 25% in caloric testing usually signifies what?
Cerebellar disease
73
What is a normal response to caloric testing?
Equal intensity of the nystagmus response in both ears
74
If someone has a unilateral vestibular lesion, what would we see with caloric testing?
Decreased intensity of response in one ear
75
If someone has a bilateral vestibular lesion, what would we see on caloric testing?
No response or a very weak response in both ears
76
What is the stimulus in the rotational chair test?
Movt
77
What is the rotational chair test?
The pt is rotated in a chair in the dark with EO and ENG/VNG recording to stimulate both SCCs simultaneously in a pair where one is inhibited and the other excited
78
What is the rotational chair test used to measure?
The phase and gain (ratio) of head:eye movt
79
If the rotational chair test shows us decreased gain, what does this indicate?
Decreased vestibular sensitivity
80
Does a decreased gain in the rotational chair test usually indicate a unilateral or bilateral loss of vestibular fxn?
BL loss of vestibular fxn
81
If there is an abnormally large (increase) gain in the rotational chair test, what is this usually suggestive of?
Central dysfxn
82
What are the indications to use the rotational chair test?
Those in whom BL is suspected Pediatrics Those who can’t have or tolerate calorics Those in which aphyisologic is suspected
83
What is the vestibular autorotation test (VAT)?
A test for VOR gains and phases that is performed in room light The subject wears an accelerometer device on their head and is asked to focus on a stationary target and move their head at speeds greater than 2Hz and records the head and eye velocities
84
What is calculated by the VAT?
VOR gains (eye velocity amplitude/head velocity amplitude) and phases
85
What are VEMPs (vestibular evoked myogenic potentials)?
High intensity sounds that stimulate the vestibular system in the absence of head movt to provide a method for evaluating the otolithic organs separate from the SCC
86
What are the anatomical difference bw the utricle and saccule?
The utricle supplies the ipsi sup rectus and med rectus and the contralateral inf oblique and inf rectus via the sup vestibular nerve The saccule supplies the ipsi SCM muscle via the inf vestibular nerve
87
88
What are the fxnal differences bw the utricle and saccule?
The utricle is principally related to eye movt The saccule plays a major role in control of postural adjustments
89
What is the c-VEMP?
A series of clicks are used stimulate each ear to stimulate the saccule and inhibit the SCM on the same side The firing rate of the ipsi SCM is recorded using EMG (surface)
90
C-VEMP results are abnormal if….
One side is 2x larger than the others Low amplitude Absent
91
Abnormal results of the c-VEMP would indicate what otolithic organ?
Saccule
92
What is the o-VEMP?
Series of clicks used to stimulate each ear and stimulate the utricle that inhibits the contralateral inferior oblique Firing rate of the CL inf oblique is recoded using EMG (surface)
93
O-VEMP results are abnormal if…
Low in amplitude Absent
94
An abnormal result on the o-VEMP would indicate which otolithic organ?
The utricle