Variants of Surgical Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

.What is the definition of “Richter’s hernia’?

A

Hernia that contains part of the circumference of the bowel wall, which can cause strangulation without obstruction.

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2
Q

What does “Morgagni hernia” mean?

A

Morgagni hernia is a type of diaphragmatic hernia that occurs through sternocostal triangle.

  • Morgagni hernias are most often right-sided, probably because left-sided defects are covered by the heart and pericardium, and are often associated with obesity.
  • The hernia sac usually contains omentum but may contain transverse colon or, rarely, stomach, small bowel, or liver.
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3
Q

Which are the complications of ulcerative colitis?

A
  1. Toxic megacolon (acute dilatation),
  2. massive haemorrhage,
  3. malignant degeneration.
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4
Q

What is the gross pathology appearance in ulcerative colitis?

A

Ulcerative colitis is a disease largely limited to the mucosa and submucosa of the colorectum.

  • The rectum is always involved, and the disease presents from this point proximally.
  • There are numerous ulcers with areas of regenerating mucosa, called pseudopolyps and superficial fissures are seen.
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5
Q

. What is the definition of ‘‘blunt abdominal trauma”?

A

Blunt abdominal trauma (non- penetrating) is a trauma in which traumatic object does not break the skin and doesn not pierce the parietal peritoneum.

  • Blunt trauma can result in the laceration of solid organs usually causing bleeding, which in its most severe form manifests as hemorrhagic shock or as visceral perforation of the gastrointestinal tract
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6
Q

Which classification is used to determine the endoscopic severity of stomach and duodenal ulcer bleeding?

A

Forrest classification is used to determine the endoscopic severity of stomach and duodenal ulcer bleeding.

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7
Q

What is the definition of “toxic adenoma”?

A

It is a benign single thyroid nodule consisting of hyperplastic epithelium with overproduction of thyroid hormones.

  • This nodule is autonomous in its overproduction of thyroid hormones and is surrounded by acini in the resting phase [due to the negative feedback loop regulation of TSH secretion].
  • Women are more likely than men to be affected with this type of hyperthyroidism, and its maximum prevalence occurs between the ages of 40 and 60 years, although children may also be affected.
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8
Q

What is the classic triad of presenting symptoms in achalasia?

A

The classic triad of presenting symptoms in achalasia consists of: dysphagia, regurgitation, and weight loss.

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9
Q

What does “hypersplenism” mean?

A

Hypersplenism is increased splenic function that is manifested clinically by the decrease in one or more of the circulating blood elements

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10
Q

What is the usual clinical presentation of liver microabscesses?

A

Patients with microscopic liver abscesses usually have an acutely septic clinical presentation, with

  • fever, rigors,
  • as well as right upper quadrant pain that can be quite severe
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11
Q

What does “caput medusae” mean?

A

“Caput medusae” means recanalized umbilical vein from the left portal vein to the epigastric venous system due to the portal hypertension.

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12
Q

There are defined three stages (phases) of empyema. Which are they?

A

The American Thoracic Society, in 1962, divided the formation of an empyema into three distinct stages (phases), indicative of disease progression in the pleural space:

  • Exudative phase (stage I)
  • Fibrinopurulent phase (stage II)
  • Phase of Organization (stage III)
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13
Q
  1. What is the definition of “advanced gastric cancer”?
A

“Advanced gastric cancer” is tumor with deeper invasion than stomach mucosa and submucosa

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14
Q

When does tension pneumothorax develop?

A

A tension pneumothorax develops when a ‘oneway-valve’ air leak occurs, either from the lung or through the chest wall.

  • Air is forced into the thoracic cavity without any means of escape, completely collapsing the affected lung.
  • The mediastinum gets displaced to the opposite side, decreasing venous return and compressing the opposite lung
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15
Q

What is the definition of “pancreatic pseudocyst”?

A

Pancreatic pseudocyst is a formation of the retroperitoneal space due to its inflammatory process causes by acute pancreatitis. In up to 10% of patients with acute pancreatitis, retroperitoneal acute fluid collections progress to develop a wall of fibrous granulation tissue, at which point they are classified as pseudocysts.

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16
Q

What is the definition of “spigelian hernia”?

A

Spigelian hernia is an interparietal hernia in the line of the linea semilunaris (the lateral margin of the rectus sheath, running from the tip of the ninth costal cartilage to the pubic crest)

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17
Q

Which are the nonsurgical treatment options of achalasia?

A

The nonsurgical treatment options of achalasia are medications and endoscopic intervention pneumatic (balloon) dilatation.

Medical treatment with

  1. sublingual nitroglycerin,
  2. nitrates,
  3. calcium channel blockers may offer hours of relief of chest pressure before or after a meal.

Pneumatic dilatation is the most effective nonsurgical therapy for achalasia.

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18
Q

Three types of hiatal hernia have been described. Which are they?

A

The classic sliding hiatal hernia (type I) is the passage of the gastroesophageal junction and variable amounts of the cardia above the diaphragm.

paraesophageal or rolling hernia(type II) , the gastroesophageal junction remains below the diaphragm but the fundus rolls up, generally in an anterior location, next to the esophagus.

The type III hiatal hernia Is a combination of a sliding and paraesophageal hernia.

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19
Q

. What does “superior sulcus tumor” mean?

A

Superior sulcus tumor is a peripheral lung cancer that is localized in superior pulmonary sulcus.

Anatomically, the pulmonary sulcus comprises

  • the costovertebral gutter extending from the first rib to the diaphragm.
  • The superior pulmonary sulcus lies at the uppermost extent of this recess.
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20
Q

What is the clinical presentation of carcinoid syndrome?

A

The carcinoid syndrome is characterized by flushing, diarrhoea and wheezing,

  • occurs when carcinoid tumour metabolites are secreted directly into the systemic circulation from hepatic metastases or from a primary lesion
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21
Q

. What is the definition of “intussusceptum” and “intussuscipiens”?

A

intussusceptum segment invaginates into the intussuscipiens

resulting in obstruction and ischemic injury to the intussuscepting segment.

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22
Q

What is the definition of “sentinel lymph node”?

A

A sentinel lymph node is defined as the first lymph node that receives drainage from a cancer

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23
Q

What is the definition and clinical features of “de Quervain’s thyroiditis”?

A

De Quervain’s thyroiditis is subacute thyroiditis

  • a history of an upper respiratory infection before the onset of thyroiditis can be elicited.
  • Patients have diffuse swelling in the cervical area and a sudden increase in pain.
  • Approximately two thirds of patients demonstrate fever, weight loss, and severe fatigue
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24
Q

What is the clinical presentation of noninfected thyroglossal cyst?

A
  • Presentation of thyroglossal cyst is commonly during the second or third decades of life.
  • The mass is usually midline, between the thyroid notch and hyoid bone, and moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue
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25
Q

Primary liver cancer includes two main histological types. Which are they?

A

Primary liver cancer includes two major types: hepatocellular carcinoma (more than 90 %) and cholangio-carcinoma (intrahepatic bile duct cancer).

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26
Q

. What is the treatment of the open pneumothorax during the primary survey?

A

The treatment of the open pneumothorax during primary survey is aimed at returning normal ventilation and closing the chest wound.

  • The first step is place an occlusive dressing over the chest wound to promote normal ventilation
  • A standard method involves placing a nonporous dressing over the wound and taping it on 3 sides.
  • This acts as a 1-way valve, allowing air to escape during expiration but becomes occlusive during inspiration
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27
Q

Which are the most common mediastinal neurogenic tumors in adults?

A

The most common mediastinal neurogenic tumors in adults are neurofibromas. They arise from the nerve sheath

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28
Q

. What is the definition of “colon diverticulosis”

and definition of “colon diverticulitis”?

A
  • diverticulosis” is used to describe colonic diverticula with no associated inflammation,
  • “Diverticulitis” indicates associated inflammation.
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29
Q
A
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30
Q

Why are Pancreatic injuries are serious problem, in abdominal trauma, resulting in high mortality

A

High mortality rates in pancreatic injuries can frequently be attributed to delays in their diagnosis and treatment.

Because of the caustic nature of pancreatic enzymes, delays in managing pancreatic injuries result in massive systemic inflammation -> SIRS -> MODS

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31
Q

. What is the primary goal of prophylactic treatment of splenectomized patients?

A

The primary goal of this prophylaxis is to prevent overwhelming postsplenectomy infection.

Done with Pneumococcal vaccine weeks before surgery

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32
Q

What does the term “taxis” mean?

A

Taxis is non-operative treatment of intestinal obstruction = manual repositioning

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33
Q

What is the definition of “acute abdomen”?

A

The term “acute abdomen” refers to signs and symptoms of abdominal pain and tenderness, a clinical presentation that often requires emergency surgical therapy

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34
Q

. What does the term “functional obstruction” mean?

A

There are neurogenic or functional obstructions in which luminal contents are prevented from passing because of disturbances in gut motility that prevent coordinated peristalsis from on region of the gut to the next

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35
Q

What is the definition of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic, autoimmune disease, also known as lymphocytic thyroiditis.

This condition was described by Hashimoto in 1912 as struma lymphomatosa based on the histologic findings.

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36
Q

What does “Courvoisier’s sign” mean?

A

Palpable enlarged gallbladder.

  • Two-thirds of patients with pancreatic cancer and obstructive jaundice exemplify Courvoisier’s law, which states that this finding in the abscence of pain indicates a malignant & distal biliary obstruction.
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37
Q

. What is the definition of “mastitis”?

A

Mastitis is infection of the breast that fall into two general categories:

  1. Lactational infections
  2. chronic Subareolar infections associated with duct ectasia.
  • Lactational infections are thought to arise from entry of bacteria through the nipple into the duct system and are characterized by fever, leukocytosis, erythema, and tenderness.
  • Infections are most often caused by Staphylococcus aureus and may be manifested as cellulitis with breast parenchymal inflammation and swelling.
  • Acute mastitis in the lactating women usually is presented as cellulitis with fever, pain, redness, and swelling of the affected breast.
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38
Q

What is the definition of “achalasia”?

A

Achalasia is a motility disorder of the esophagus characterized by

  • failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing and by an absence of peristalsis in the esophageal body.
  • The disease is most often progressive, leading to gradual dilatation of the esophagus above the sphincter.
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39
Q

What does “superior vena cava syndrome” mean?

A

The superior vena cava syndrome constitutes a constellation of signs and symptoms resulting from either extrinsic or intrinsic obstruction of the superior vena cava and causing congestion of venous outflow from the head, neck, and upper extremities.

A resulting increase in venous pressure leads to dramatic signs and symptoms

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40
Q

What does “Ludwig’s angina” mean?

A

Ludwig’s angina is a subtype of severe deep neck infection.

It is a diffuse cellulitis, involving the bilateral submental, submandibular, and sublingual spaces.

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41
Q

What is the definition of “false diverticulum”?

A

False diverticulum is acquired herniation of mucosa through the muscle layer and occurs most frequently in the colon

42
Q

. When does tension pneumothorax develop?

A

A tension pneumothorax develops when a ‘oneway-valve’ air leak occurs, either from the lung or through the chest wall. Air is forced into the thoracic cavity without any means of escape, completely collapsing the affected lung. The mediastinum gets displaced to the opposite side, decreasing venous return and compressing the opposite lung.

43
Q

Which is the most common complication of the left-sided colon cancer?

A

Complete obstruction of the large bowel (ileus)

44
Q

. What is the definition of “portal hypertension”?

A

Portal hypertension is defined by a portal pressure higher than 5 mmHg.

45
Q

What is the definition of “haematochesia”?

A

“Haematochesia” means “defecation of the blood”. Synonym of haematochesia is “rectorrhagia

“.Haematochesia is typical for intestinal bleeding, with localization of the source of bleeding more distally than flexura coli hepatica.

46
Q

Rectorrhagia is a symptom of hemorrhoids. What is the typical character of bleeding?

A

Fresh blood not mixed with stool during the defecation or immediately after defecation -

bright red into the pan and/or on the toilet paper.

47
Q

Which are the types of inguinal hernias and what is the difference between them (from anatomical point of view)?

A

Indirect and direct inguinal hernias.

  • in indirect hernia the sac protrudes through the inguinal canal from deep to superficial ring.
  • In direct hernia the sac doesn’t protrude through the inguinal canal but from the posterior abdominal wall.
48
Q

What does “Mallory-Weiss syndrome” mean?

A

Mallory-Weiss syndrome denotes “linear tearing of esophaeal mucosa, caused by repeatedly vomiting

49
Q

What is the definition of “Graves’ disease”?

A

Graves’ disease is a toxic diffuse goiter associated with exophthalmos and palpitations.

  • It is an autoimmune disorder with a genetic predisposition and a female predominance (five to seven times higher than the incidence in males).
  • It is characterized by the presence of thyroid-stimulating antibodies.
    • These antibodies bind to Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) receptor on follicular cells and stimulate thyroid hormone release.
50
Q

The lung cancer is divided in two major types, based on histology, treatment and prognosis. Which are they?

A

The lung cancer is divided in two types, based on histology, treatment and prognosis: Small cell lung cancer Non-small cell lung cancer

51
Q

What does “flail chest” mean?

A

A “flail chest” is a segment of the chest wall that does not have bony continuity with-the rest of the thoracic cage. This condition usually results from blunt - trauma associated with multiple rib fractures, i.e. three or more ribs fractured in two or more places

52
Q

What is the definition of “linitis plastica” carcinoma?

A

“Linitis plastica” stomach carcinoma is a subgroup of diffusely infiltrative cancer, characterized by extensive infiltration of the submucosa and muscular layers with a marked fibroblastic/desmoplastic reaction around columns of malignant cells.

53
Q

What is the definition of “true diverticulum”?

A

True diverticulum, such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, contains all layers of the bowel wall and represents a congenital abnormality.

54
Q

What is the definition of Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum of variable size derived from the intestinal remnant of the yolk stalk (omphalomesenteric duct).

55
Q

What does the term “closed-loop obstruction” mean?

A

A closed-loop obstruction means that inflow to the loop of bowel and outflow from the loop are both blocked. This obstruction permits gas and secretions to accumulate in the loop without a means of decompression, proximally or distally.

56
Q

What does “gynecomastia” mean?

A

Gynecomastia means enlarged breast in the male.

Physiologic gynecomastia usually occurs during three phases of life: the neonatal period, adolescence, and senescence.

57
Q

What is the definition of “Hydatid disease”?

A

Hydatid disease is a parasitic infection caused by the larval stage of the cestode Echinococcus granulosus.

58
Q

Which are the most common complaints and clinical features in patients with deep neck ‘infections?

A

Any patient with a recent history of tonsillitis, pharyngitis, an odontogenic infection, or recent dental work with onset of neck swelling and pain, and severe general malaise must be assumed to have a deep neck infection.

Other common findings include odynophagia, trismus, and respiratory compromise.

59
Q

. What is the definition of “bronchiectasis”?

A

Bronchiectasis is defined as a permanent and abnormal dilation of bronchi caused by destruction of the elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall.

The distribution pattern can be either localized or diffuse.

60
Q

What is the definition of “acute pancreatitis”

A

Acute pancreatitis is an acute process of enzymatic autodigestion of the pancreas with variable involvement of other regional tissues or remote organ systems.

61
Q

There are two main types of liver abscesses (based on the etiology). Which are they?

A

Pyogenic and amebic liver abscesses

Pyogenic liver abscesses are of bacterial origin and amebic liver abscesses are caused by Entamoeba histolytica.

62
Q

. What is the definition of “Littre’s hernia”?

A

Hernia containing a Meckel’s diverticulum

63
Q

Which are two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

A wide range of etiologies (triggers) of acute pancreatitis are identified. More than 75% of cases are attributable to either gallstones or alcohol

64
Q

What is definition of “macrascopic liver abscess”?

A

Macroscopic liver abscess is usually restricted to one lobe of the liver, single or confluent, and requires some form of primary drainage.

65
Q

What does “Bochdalek hernia” mean?

A

Bochdalek hernia is a type of diaphragmatic hernia that occurs occurs through posterolateral defects in the diaphragm (trigonum lumbocostale).

  • These hernias are seen more commonly on the left than on the right (earlier closure of the right pleuroperitoneal membrane and the protection of right-sided defects by the liver).
  • In a small hernial defect the hernia may contain only retroperitoneal fat, whereas in larger defects hernia can contain abdominal viscera such as stomach, intestine, spleen, kidney, or liver.
66
Q

What is the definition of “Graves’ disease”?

A

Graves’ disease is a toxic diffuse goiter associated with exophthalmos and palpitations. It is an autoimmune disorder with a genetic predisposition and a female predominance (five to seven times higher than the incidence in males).

  • It is characterized by the presence of thyroid-stimulating antibodies. These antibodies bind to the Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) receptor on follicular cells and stimulate thyroid hormone release.
67
Q

What does “periapppendicular infiltrate” mean?

A

Periapppendicular infiltrate is a host defense reaction against spreading of the inflammation from appendix into the peritoneal cavity.

68
Q

What is the definition of “intrathoracic goiter”?

A

Intrathoracic goiter is a primary mediastinal goiters, also referred to as ectopic or aberrant goiters, do not possess any direct fibrous or parenchymal connections to the cervical portion of the gland, and its vascular supply is derived from the chest.

Although usually intrathoracic goiters involve the anterior ‘mediastinum, up to 10% of them may be located within the posterior mediastinum.

69
Q

. What does “Barrett’s esophagus” mean?

A

Barrett’s esophagus is the condition in which the normal squamous epithelium of the distal esophagus is replaced with columnar epithelium in response to chronic exposure to gastric juice

70
Q

What is the definition of “early gastric cancer”?

A

“Early gastric cancer” is the tumour that is confined to the gastric mucosa and submucosa.

71
Q

In contrast to ulcerative colitis, what is the gross pathology appearance in Crohn’s colitis?

A

Crohn’s colitis is a transmural, predominantly chronic submucosal inflammation characterized by a thickened colonic wall.

Ulcerative colitis is not transmural, and therefore lacks thickening, fibrosis, and chronic inflammation.

72
Q

. What is the definition of acute upper gastro-intestinal bleedings?

A

This is gastro-intestinal bleeding with the source of haemorrhage proximally from ligamentum Treitz (duodenum — jejunum connection) from esophagus, stomach and duodenum.

73
Q
  1. What is the definition of “penetrating abdominal trauma”?
A

Penetrating abdominal trauma is an injury that occurs when an object pierces the parietal peritoneum and enters into peritoneal cavity. Penetrating trauma to the abdomen can result in laceration of solid organs and perforation of hollow organs, which must be discovered and repaired at the time of laparotomy

74
Q

What does “Budd-Chiari syndrome” mean?

A

“Budd-Chiari syndrome” means hepatic vein thrombosis, which is one of the posthepatic causes of portal hypertension.

75
Q

When does open pneumothorax develop?

A

Open pneumothorax develops as a result of a large open defect in the chest (“sucking chest wound”), leading to equilibration between intrathoracic and atmospheric pressure.

Air accumulates in the hemithorax with each inspiration, leading to profound hypoventilation and hypoxia.

76
Q

What does “solitary intraductal papilloma” mean?

A

Solitary intraductal papilloma is true polyp of epithelial-lined breast ducts. Solitary papillomas are most often located close to the areola but may be present in peripheral locations. Most papillomas are smaller than 1 cm but can grow to as large as 4 or 5 cm in size.

77
Q

What is the definition of “Beck’s triad”?

A

Beck’s triad is a complex of three associated symptoms that are classic to the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade. These signs include:

  1. increased central venous pressures (distended neck veins),
  2. arterial hypotension ,
  3. muffled heart tones.
78
Q
  1. Small cell lung cancers are divided in two stages. Which are they
A

There are two stages of small cell lung cancers: limited and extensive.

  • The traditional tumornode-metastasis (TNM) classification is less helpful in small cell lung cancer because most patients have stage II or IV disease at diagnosis, and surgery is seldom performed.
79
Q

What is the origin of the differentiated thyroid cancers?

A

Differentiated thyroid cancers are of

  1. follicular cell origin (papillary thyroid carcinoma and its variants, follicular thyroid carcinoma, and Hurthle cell carcinoma) or
  2. parafollicular (C-cell) origin (medullary thyroid carcinoma)
80
Q

How can you distinguish femoral from inguinal hernia?

A

the upper medial border of a femoral hernia is always below and lateral to the pubic tubercle.

81
Q

What is the definition of “catamenial pneumothorax”?

A

Catamenial pneumothorax is pneumothorax that occurs within 48 to 72 hours after the onset of menstruation.

  • The pathogenesis of catamenial pneumothorax is still unclear.
  • Most catamenial pneumothoraces are on the right side, and they may be recurrent over several years before being diagnosed.
  • They are usually small, and patients present with chest pain and dyspnea.
82
Q

Which are the indications for surgery in acute pancreatitis?

A

The indications for surgery in acute pancreatitis are:

  1. abdominal pain where the diagnosis is unclear and they are found to have acute pancreatitis
  2. significant necrosis of pancreas and peripancreatic retroperitoneal space
  3. infection of pancreatic and parapancreatic necrosis;
  4. critically ill patients with severe acute pancreatitis, without of effect of medical treatment;
  5. biliary pancreatitis with stones in the common bile duct.
83
Q

. Gastric outlet obstruction may be acute or chronic. What is the cause of acute obstruction?

A

Acute gastric outlet obstruction is caused by edema and inflammation associated with ulcers in the pyloric channel and the first portion of the duodenum.

84
Q

There are three sites that are prone to caustic injury of the esophagus because of a relative delay in transit through the esophagus. Which are they?

A

The three sites that are prone to caustic injury of the esophagus correlate to the anatomic narrowings of the organ and are:

  • Proximal esophagus at the level of the upper esophageal sphincter
  • Midesophagus where the aorta abuts the left mainstem bronchus
  • Distal esophagus just proximal to the lower esophageal sphincter
85
Q

With which other pathological condition intussusception is associated in adults?

A

About 90% of cases of intussusception in adults are associated with pathologic processes (tumors - benign or malignant). Tumor acts as the lead point of intussusception.

86
Q

. What does the prophylactic treatment of splenectomized patients include?

A

Immunization with polyvalent pneumococcal vaccine and antibiotics.

87
Q

. The hydatid cysts grow more rapidly in the lungs than in other organs. Why?

A

The hydatid cysts grow more rapidly in the lungs than in other organs, mainly because of the negative pressure and the great elasticity of the pulmonary tissue

88
Q

. Four distinct pathophysiologic mechanisms can lead to acute mesenteric ischemia. Which are they?

A
  1. arterial embolus,
  2. arterial thrombosis,
  3. vasospasm (nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia - NOMI)
  4. venous thrombosis.
89
Q

What does “Paget’s disease” mean?

A

Paget’s disease is usually a presenting feature of breast cancer in the elderly, although it is occasionally seen in other age groups. It presents as an eczema-like condition of the nipple’ and areola. It usually represents an underlying invasive ductal carcinoma that may be quite extensive in the breast.

  • Paget’s disease of the nipple must be distinguished from eczema!
    • Eczema tends to occur in younger people who have signs of eczema elsewhere (look at the antecubital fossae)
90
Q

What is the treatment of the tension pneumothorax during the primary survey?

A

Treatment is aimed at decompressing the chest to release the trapped air from the pleural cavity: convert tension into open pneumothrax and after that try to place a nonporous dressing over the wound and taping it on 3 sides. This acts as-a 1-way valve, allowing air to escape during expiration but becomes occlusive during inspiration

91
Q

Which are the most common mediastinal neurogenic tumors in pediatric populations?

A

The most common neurogenic tumors in pediatric populations are ganglioneuromas and neuroblastomas. The cells of origin are the ganglia.

92
Q

What does “paraneoplastic syndrome” mean?

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome is complex of symptoms** or findings that are **related to the primary tumor or its metastases by hormonal intermediates.

Paraneoplastic syndrome may accompany lung cancer (more frequently is associated with small-cell cancer)

93
Q

What is the mechanism of caustic injuries of the esophagus caused by acid substances? .

A

Acid substances cause coagulative necrosis, forming an eschar that limits tissue penetration.

  • In some cases, acid burns result in fullthickness injury, although in most cases, it is limited.
  • Within 48 hours, the extent to which the acid will injure the esophagus.
94
Q

What does “thyrotoxic crisis” mean?

A

Thyrotoxic crisis is a rare presentation of extreme signs of thyrotoxicosis and severe metabolic disturbances.

Precipitated by nonthyroid surgery, major trauma, infection, imaging studies with iodinated contrast medium in patients with unrecognized thyrotoxicosis.

Features are insomnia, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhoea, marked sweating, fever, marked tachycardia.

Early clinical diagnosis of the condition and immediate treatment decrease the risk of fatal outcome.

95
Q

Why you never have to try manual reposition in strangulated umbilical hernias in adults?

A

Manual reposition (taxis) in strangulated adult umbilical hernia may shift strangulated bowel loop from one to other loculations (loculated nature of the hernia sac) = false-positive success of taxis!

96
Q

Which is the most common type of hiatal hernia?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia (type I) is much more common than the paraesophageal hernia (type II) and hernia type III.

97
Q

What is the main danger for the patients after splenectomy and which aged group is most commonly affected?

A

Overwhelming post splenectomy sepsis due to the changes in the immunologic responses.

Infants or young children are under the highest risk of post splenectomy sepsis

98
Q

What does Zollinger-Ellison syndrome mean?

A

“Zollinger-Ellison syndrome” means severe peptic ulceration, often multiple, with a progressive and complicated course and sometimes found in the distal rather than the proximal duodenum.

The excess secretion of gastrin by gastrinoma stimulates an excess production of gastric acid and leads to the development of the Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

99
Q

. What is the definition of “Crohn’’s colitis”?

A

Crohn’s colitis means limitation of the Crohn’s disease to the colon.

The inflammatory process may affect the entire colon (mimic ulcerative colitis), or may affect only segments of the colon

100
Q

What is the definition of “haemobilia”?

A

Haemobilia is gastrointestinal haemorrhage caused by bleeding into the biliary tree - sign of extensive liver haematoma.

101
Q

. What is the management of thyroglossal cysts and sinuses?

A

The thyroglossal cysts and sinuses are removed surgically.

To avoid recurrence, which may be associated with a sinus, the central portion of the hyoid bone (approx. 1 cm) is included in the excision because the tract can run either deep or superficial to the bone.

102
Q
A