Vajiram Full Length Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the time period during which the Indus Valley Civilization flourished?

A

Approximately 3300 BCE to 1300 BCE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where is Lothal, an important site of the Indus Valley Civilization, located?

A

In the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, India.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the two main parts of Indus Valley cities generally comprised of?

A
  • Raised citadel
  • Lower city
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What unique feature does Lothal have compared to other IVC sites?

A

It is the only IVC site discovered to have a dockyard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What mechanism did Lothal’s dockyard use for flood control?

A

Sluice gates and spill channels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What sect emerged during the Third Buddhist Council?

A

Sarvāstivāda Sect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Under whose patronage was the Third Buddhist Council held?

A

Emperor Ashoka.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was the primary doctrine of the Sarvāstivādins?

A

The real existence of dharmas in all three periods of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What significant migration did the Sarvāstivādins undertake?

A

They migrated to Kashmir.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the theory of momentariness also known as?

A

Theory of flux.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is the playwright of ‘Pratima-Nataka’?

A

Bhasa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a distinct feature of the Vijayanagara empire?

A

The importance of the Brahmans as political and secular personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During the Vijayanagara period, which group was the basis of the social order?

A

Peasants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three major categories of land tenure in the Vijayanagara empire?

A
  • Amara
  • Bhandaravada
  • Manya
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What was the Curzon Kitchener controversy about?

A

The attempt to abolish the position of military member in the Viceroy’s executive council.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity aim to do?

A

Ensure better protection of important intangible cultural heritages worldwide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which dance was inscribed in 2010 as part of UNESCO’s heritage list?

A

Chhau dance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the Kumbh Mela?

A

A mass Hindu pilgrimage where devotees gather to bathe in sacred rivers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What literary work depicted the exploitation of indigo farmers during the Indigo Rebellion?

A

Neel Darpan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which novel by Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay was banned for being seditious?

A

Pather Dabi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Who is regarded as the father of modern Hindi literature?

A

Bharatendu Harishchandra.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the significance of the Great Stupa at Sanchi?

A

It is one of the oldest and most significant Buddhist monuments in India.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is primarily represented in the Great Stupa according to Hinayana teachings?

A

Symbolic representations of Buddha.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When were the toranas or gateways at the Great Stupa added?

A

During the Satavahana period (1st century BCE).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the primary representation of Buddha in Hinayana teachings at the Great Stupa?
Symbolic representations such as an empty throne, a footprint, or the Bodhi tree ## Footnote Buddha is not depicted as a human figure in this tradition.
26
During which period were the toranas or gateways at the Great Stupa added?
Satavahana period (1st century BCE) ## Footnote Known for their intricate carvings.
27
Did Buddha visit Sanchi during his lifetime?
No ## Footnote Sanchi became significant as a pilgrimage site after Buddha's death.
28
What is the geographical size of Canada?
9.98 million square kilometers ## Footnote Canada is the largest country in the world after Russia.
29
What are the three main courses of a river?
Upper Course, Middle Course, Lower Course ## Footnote Each course is characterized by distinct landforms due to erosion, transportation, and deposition.
30
What is a deep depression in meteorological terms?
A cyclonic system with wind speeds of 51-62 km/h ## Footnote It is usually a precursor to a tropical cyclone.
31
What does Earth's magnetism protect the planet from?
Harmful solar winds and cosmic radiation ## Footnote It deflects charged particles.
32
What causes the polar vortex to expand and send cold air southward?
Weakening of the polar vortex during winter ## Footnote This is often associated with outbreaks of cold temperatures in North America and Northern Europe.
33
What is the average geographical size of Brazil?
8.51 million square kilometers ## Footnote Brazil is the largest country in South America.
34
Fill in the blank: The polar jet stream is a band of reliably strong wind that plays a key role in keeping colder air ______.
north and warmer air south on Earth.
35
What is the significance of the Dozer Push Mining method?
Enhances workers’ safety and operational efficiency in mining processes ## Footnote Developed by the CSIR-Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research.
36
What defines the Steppe Climate?
Semi-arid conditions with moderate rainfall ## Footnote Ideal for wheat cultivation and characterized by extreme temperature variations.
37
True or False: The Rule of Law ensures that only statutes in the Constitution are supreme.
False ## Footnote It ensures that all laws are just and uphold individual liberties.
38
What is the balance of incoming and outgoing energy at the top of the atmosphere called?
Net radiation ## Footnote It influences the climate and must be close to zero over the span of a year.
39
What does the term 'vortex' refer to in the context of the polar vortex?
Counterclockwise flow of air ## Footnote It helps keep the colder air near the Poles.
40
How is online gaming in India regulated?
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000 ## Footnote Via the Information Technology (Intermediary guidelines and Digital media ethics) Codes, 2021 as amended in 2023.
41
What happens when the polar vortex weakens?
The polar jet stream becomes extremely wavy ## Footnote This allows warm air to flood into the Arctic and polar air to sink into mid-latitudes.
42
What is the main characteristic of the Upper Course of a river?
Steep gradients and vertical erosion ## Footnote It is associated with high energy and river capture.
43
What is the main purpose of the Rule of Law?
To ensure that society is governed by law ## Footnote It applies equally to all persons, including government officials.
44
Fill in the blank: The global average net radiation must be close to ______ over the span of a year.
zero.
45
What is a unique feature of the deep depression formation over land?
Rarity due to lack of abundant moisture ## Footnote Only six land-based deep depressions have formed over India in the last decade.
46
What is the significance of the CSIR-Central Institute of Mining and Fuel Research in relation to mining?
Conducted the first trial blast for the Dozer Push Mining Method ## Footnote This method focuses on enhancing safety and efficiency.
47
What defines an online game according to the Government of India?
A game that is offered on the Internet and is accessible by a user through a computer resource or an intermediary ## Footnote This definition is part of the regulatory framework established under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
48
Under which act is online gaming regulated in India?
Information Technology Act, 2000 ## Footnote This includes the Information Technology (Intermediary guidelines and Digital media ethics) Codes, 2021, as amended in 2023.
49
What is the aim of the new regulations for online gaming in India?
To safeguard online gamers from harmful content, addiction, and financial risks ## Footnote The regulations establish a self-regulation model for the online gaming sector.
50
What types of games are explicitly prohibited under the new online gaming rules?
Games involving wagering or betting ## Footnote Permissible online games do not involve real money or harmful content.
51
What does the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council recognize income from online gaming platforms as?
Actionable claims ## Footnote This recognition changed how online gaming income was taxed, previously being categorized as social media platforms.
52
What does the Sugam model aim to do?
Foster awareness about family planning and promote healthy timing and spacing between births ## Footnote It is designed for use by family planning service providers and health workers.
53
What do the Directive Principles of State Policies (DPSPs) represent in the Constitution of India?
A set of non-justiciable but enforceable by law rights for citizens ## Footnote They serve as guidelines for governance but can conflict with justiciable rights.
54
What did the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, allow regarding laws implementing Directive Principles?
It granted immunity from being challenged in court for violating certain Fundamental Rights ## Footnote This prioritized DPSPs over some Fundamental Rights.
55
What does Article 311 of the Constitution of India provide?
Procedures and safeguards before a civil servant can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank ## Footnote It ensures fair opportunities for civil servants to defend themselves.
56
What is the minimum percentage of total valid votes a candidate must secure to retain their security deposit according to the Representation of the People Act, 1951?
One-sixth (16.67%) ## Footnote This percentage is critical for candidates in parliamentary or assembly elections.
57
What is the eligibility criterion for Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) status?
Were an Indian citizen on or after January 26, 1950 or eligible for Indian citizenship on that date ## Footnote Other criteria include being a child or grandchild of an Indian citizen.
58
What does judicial evasion refer to?
The avoidance or delay by courts in making decisions on legal issues ## Footnote This can undermine the rule of law and leave legal questions unresolved.
59
What is the Weimar Triangle?
A forum of Poland, France, and Germany to coordinate their approach to cross-border and European issues ## Footnote Established in 1991, it supports cooperation in European Union negotiations.
60
What is the Digital Bharat Nidhi?
The renamed Universal Service Obligation Fund under the Telecommunication Act 2023 ## Footnote It is used for telecom services in underserved areas and research and development.
61
What does Article 16 of the Constitution of India guarantee?
Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment ## Footnote It prohibits discrimination based on various grounds including religion and caste.
62
What is a hedonic adjustment?
Any change in price due to changes in the product's characteristics ## Footnote It helps separate price changes due to inflation from those due to quality improvements.
63
What is a hedonic adjustment?
A change in price due to changes in the product's characteristics
64
What does hedonic adjustment help separate?
Price changes due to inflation from price changes due to quality improvements
65
What is shrinkflation?
When companies reduce the size or quantity of a product while keeping the price the same
66
What is skimpflation?
When firms reduce the quality of a good/service in response to higher costs
67
What causes cost-push inflation?
An increase in the cost of production inputs
68
What is structural inflation?
Inflation arising from inefficiencies or rigidities in an economy's supply-side
69
What is product differentiation?
A strategy used by companies to distinguish their products from competitors
70
What is market saturation effect?
When a market reaches a point where demand for a product is at its maximum
71
What is the primary focus of the Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC)?
Promoting Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) and facilitating agri-business development
72
What role does SFAC serve under the Price Stabilization Fund (PSF)?
Central procurement agency for price stabilization of onion and pulses
73
What is indexation in terms of capital gains taxes?
Adjusting the original purchase price of an asset to account for inflation
74
What does tax indexation help prevent?
Bracket creep caused by inflation
75
What does the London Interbank Offered Rate (LIBOR) represent?
The average interest rate at which major banks are willing to borrow unsecured funds
76
What is the recommended replacement for LIBOR in India?
Secured Overnight Financing Rate (SOFR) and Modified Mumbai Interbank Forward Outright Rate (MMIFOR)
77
What is the impact of higher US Federal Reserve interest rates on the Indian economy?
Can lead to higher foreign investment and affect inflation
78
What is the relationship depicted by the Preston Curve?
The relationship between life expectancy and per capita income
79
Fill in the blank: A currency carry trade involves borrowing from a ______ interest rate currency to fund a higher interest rate currency.
lower
80
True or False: Prize money received from any international entity is exempt from income tax under Section 10(17A).
False
81
What tax rate applies to winnings from games as per the Income Tax Act?
30% flat rate on gross winnings
82
What does the Kuznets Curve hypothesize?
Economic growth initially leads to greater income inequality, which decreases over time
83
What does the Engel Curve suggest about household income and spending?
As household incomes increase, the proportion of income spent on food decreases
84
What is the significance of the Sachs Curve?
Illustrates the relationship between environmental degradation and income levels
85
Who is responsible for overseeing the functioning of India's central bank?
The RBI Governor ## Footnote The RBI Governor formulates and implements monetary policy, regulates the banking system, and manages foreign exchange reserves.
86
What committee is involved in the appointment process of the RBI Governor?
Financial Sector Regulatory Appointment Search Committee (FSRASC) ## Footnote The FSRASC is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary and includes independent members.
87
What is the maximum tenure for the RBI Governor?
Five years ## Footnote The Governor is eligible for reappointment or extension after their tenure.
88
What qualifications are traditionally associated with the RBI Governor?
* Senior bureaucrat (IAS officer) * Economist * Professional with expertise in banking or finance ## Footnote A degree in economics or finance is valued but not mandatory.
89
True or False: The RBI Act, 1934, explicitly outlines the grounds for removal of the RBI Governor.
False ## Footnote The act does not specify grounds for removal, and parliamentary approval is not required.
90
What is the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) principle?
Any advantage granted by one country to another must be extended to all WTO members ## Footnote This principle ensures non-discriminatory trade practices.
91
What exceptions are allowed under the MFN principle?
* Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) ## Footnote FTAs must not raise barriers to trade with non-members and should cover substantially all trade.
92
What model was used during India's First Five Year Plan?
Harrod-Domar economic growth model ## Footnote This model emphasized investment as the key driver of economic growth.
93
What was the central theme of India's Eleventh Five Year Plan?
Inclusive Growth Model ## Footnote The plan focused on ensuring benefits of economic growth reached all sections of society.
94
What is the Adaptation Fund?
Established under the Kyoto Protocol to finance adaptation projects in developing countries ## Footnote It specifically targets countries vulnerable to climate change.
95
What does the Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) aim to address?
Economic and non-economic loss and damage associated with climate change ## Footnote The LDF was established at COP27 in 2022.
96
What is Navara rice known for?
Medicinal properties and high anthocyanin content ## Footnote It is widely used in Ayurvedic treatments and has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
97
True or False: The Patkai Green Tree Frog was recently discovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
True ## Footnote Its scientific name is Gracixalus patkaiensis.
98
What does the System of Air Quality Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) provide?
Location-specific air quality information and forecasts ## Footnote It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology.
99
What pollutants are monitored by SAFAR?
* PM1 * PM2.5 * PM10 * Ozone * CO * Nitrogen Oxides * SO2 * Black Carbon * Methane * VOCs * Benzene * Mercury ## Footnote Monitoring includes meteorological parameters like UV radiation and temperature.
100
What is the legal status of elephant tusks and ivory trade in India?
Banned under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 ## Footnote The act prohibits both domestic and international trade of ivory.
101
What is Lantana camara?
A perennial shrub that invades various environments ## Footnote It is known for altering native vegetation and increasing fire risk.
102
Fill in the blank: Under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, the transfer of a captive elephant requires _______.
a valid certificate of ownership ## Footnote This is subject to terms prescribed by the Central Government.
103
What is the significance of the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
Recognizes products with unique qualities linked to their region ## Footnote It protects traditional knowledge and promotes regional products.
104
What does Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972 specify?
It specifies the animal species with the highest level of protection.
105
Which animal is the only one in WLPA’s Schedule-I that can still be owned legally?
The elephant.
106
What does Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972 specify?
It specifies the animal species with a relatively lower degree of protection.
107
What does Schedule III of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972 pertain to?
It pertains to plant species.
108
What is the focus of Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection) Act (WLPA), 1972?
It is for species protected under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
109
Who has the authority to permit the hunting of wild animals specified in Schedule I?
The Chief Wildlife Warden (CWLW) of a State.
110
Which rules were notified by the Centre in 2024 regarding elephants?
The Captive Elephant (Transfer or Transport) Rules, 2024.
111
What is cryogenic technology concerned with?
The study and application of materials and systems at extremely low temperatures, typically below -150°C.
112
What is one application of cryogenic technology in medicine?
Cryosurgery for cancer treatment.
113
How does cryogenic technology preserve food?
By rapid freezing using liquid nitrogen to prevent the formation of large ice crystals.
114
What is the process of liquefying hydrogen in cryogenics?
Cooling it to extremely low temperatures (-253°C) and increasing its density.
115
In what applications is cryogenic cooling essential?
Operating superconductors, such as in MRI machines and quantum computers.
116
What fuels are used in cryogenic rocket engines?
Cryogenic fuels like liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen.
117
What are High-Altitude Pseudo Satellites (HAPS)?
Innovative systems that operate in the stratosphere, bridging the gap between drones and satellites.
118
At what altitude do HAPS operate?
Above 20 km in the stratosphere.
119
What is the primary fuel used in the first stage of India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Program?
Natural uranium-238.
120
What type of reactor is used in Stage II of India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Program?
Prototype Fast Breeder Reactors (PFBRs).
121
What is the focus of the final stage of India’s 3-Stage Nuclear Program?
Thorium utilization.
122
What does eSIM technology replace?
The traditional physical SIM card.
123
What is a key advantage of eSIMs over physical SIM cards?
Enhanced security.
124
What is the Levallois method?
A stone tool production technique involving careful preparation of a stone core.
125
What was the purpose of Mulkgiri in Medieval India?
Raiding expeditions to plunder wealth and resources from rival kingdoms.
126
What dynasty were the Gurjara Pratiharas known for in early medieval India?
A prominent dynasty that established a vast kingdom spanning Rajasthan, parts of Gujarat, and Uttar Pradesh.
127
What was a unique feature of the Chola administration?
Decentralization and local self-governance.
128
What is the primary function of launch vehicles?
To carry spacecraft to space.
129
What was the outcome of the Anglo-Nepal War?
It ended with the Treaty of Sagauli in favor of the British.
130
Who spearheaded conquests into the Kingdom of Sikkim and Indian regions leading to the Anglo-Nepal War?
The King of Nepal ## Footnote This conflict occurred in late 1814.
131
What treaty ended the Anglo-Nepal War?
Treaty of Sagauli, 1816 ## Footnote The treaty was in favor of the British.
132
What did Nepal accept as part of the Treaty of Sagauli?
A British resident ## Footnote Nepal also ceded Garhwal and Kumaon, and withdrew from Sikkim.
133
What river demarcated the eastern boundary between British India and Nepal as per the Treaty of Sugauli?
Mechi River ## Footnote The treaty required Gorkha troops to evacuate territories eastward of the Mechi River.
134
What is the significance of the Kali river in the context of the India-Nepal boundary?
Natural border between India and Nepal ## Footnote In Nepal, it is known as Mahakali.
135
What was the Indian National Liberal Federation founded for?
Advocated gradual constitutional reforms and cooperation with the British government ## Footnote Founded in 1919 by Surendranath Banerjee and others.
136
Which party emphasized caste equality and education reforms?
South Indian Liberal Federation (Justice Party) ## Footnote Established in 1916.
137
Who founded the Social Service League and what was its purpose?
Narayan Malhar Joshi; to improve working and living conditions of the masses ## Footnote Activities included establishing schools and providing legal aid.
138
What was the Bengal Tenancy Act of 1885?
Defined rights and liabilities of zamindars and tenants ## Footnote Enacted in response to peasant discontent.
139
What was the aim of the Punjab Land Alienation Act of 1900?
Protect agricultural land of Punjab's peasant communities ## Footnote Addressed growing indebtedness of farmers.
140
What did the Deccan Agriculturists' Relief Act of 1879 establish?
Debt conciliation boards and reduced interest rates ## Footnote Introduced after the Deccan Riots.
141
What does the Santhal Pargana Tenancy Act of 1876 prohibit?
Transfer of Adivasi lands to non-Adivasis ## Footnote Retains rights of Santhals to self-govern their land.
142
What are Indian miniature paintings characterized by?
Small, detailed paintings not larger than 25 square inches ## Footnote Roots trace back to the Pala school.
143
What is the main difference between shield volcanoes and stratovolcanoes?
Shield volcanoes are broad with gentle slopes; stratovolcanoes are steep and cone-shaped ## Footnote Shield volcanoes typically have low explosivity.
144
What are Directed Energy Weapons (DEW)?
Weapons using concentrated electromagnetic energy ## Footnote Includes high energy lasers and high power microwaves.
145
What is a meteor shower?
Celestial event where many meteors radiate from one point in the sky ## Footnote Caused by meteoroids entering Earth's atmosphere.
146
What is the Thalweg Principle?
Determines boundaries along navigable rivers by the river's deepest part ## Footnote Commonly used in international boundary disputes.
147
What is the Thalweg Principle?
A legal concept in international boundary disputes that determines the boundary along a navigable river by the river's thalweg. ## Footnote The thalweg is the deepest part of the channel or the main navigable channel of the river.
148
What is Sir Creek?
A 96-km-long tidal estuary between Gujarat's Rann of Kutch and Pakistan, which is a disputed area. ## Footnote It roughly divides the Sindh province of Pakistan from the Kutch region of Gujarat.
149
What resources are believed to be found in Sir Creek?
One of the largest fishing grounds and unexplored oil and gas resources. ## Footnote Sir Creek is significant for its ecological and economic potential.
150
What is the Archaean Rock System?
The oldest rock system in the world, formed about 4,000 million years ago, mostly of igneous and metamorphic rocks. ## Footnote It contains valuable minerals like iron, gold, manganese, and copper.
151
What time period does the Purana Rock System cover?
1,400–600 million years ago (Proterozoic Era). ## Footnote It is composed of sedimentary rocks and contains fossils of primitive life forms.
152
What characterizes the Dravidian Rock System?
It consists of sedimentary rocks like sandstone and shales, formed between 600–300 million years ago. ## Footnote It is associated with significant coal deposits, such as those in the Damodar Valley.
153
What is the time period of the Aryan Rock System?
300 million years ago to the present (Upper Carboniferous to recent). ## Footnote It includes rock formations from various geological periods and contains important features like Deccan Traps.
154
What is the correct chronological order of the rock systems?
Archaean - Purana - Dravidian - Aryan.
155
What are atmospheric rivers?
Narrow corridors in the atmosphere that carry a significant amount of water vapor, acting as major transport mechanisms of freshwater. ## Footnote They are often associated with heavy rainfall and flooding when they interact with landforms.
156
True or False: Atmospheric rivers are primarily active during summer seasons.
False.
157
What does photoperiod refer to?
The period of time in a day that an organism or plant is exposed to light.
158
What are short-day plants?
Plants that require a long period of darkness to flower, typically when day length is less than about 10 hours. ## Footnote Examples include rice and jowar.
159
What defines long-day plants?
Plants that flower only when daylight lasts longer than a specific critical threshold, usually more than ten hours. ## Footnote Examples include wheat and barley.
160
What are day-neutral plants?
Plants for which photoperiod does not significantly influence flowering. ## Footnote Examples include cotton and sunflower.
161
What is docking in space?
The process of bringing two fast-moving spacecraft together in orbit to operate as a single unit. ## Footnote Essential for missions requiring heavy equipment that cannot be launched in one go.
162
What is the SpaDeX mission?
A mission by ISRO that demonstrated autonomous space docking between two satellites, 'Chaser' and 'Target'.
163
What are artificial sweeteners?
Chemically synthesized substances used to sweeten foods and beverages instead of sucrose. ## Footnote Common examples include saccharin, aspartame, and sucralose.
164
What health concern is associated with aspartame?
Classified as 'possibly carcinogenic to humans' by the WHO's IARC.
165
Fill in the blank: Neotame is an artificial sweetener that is ______ times sweeter than sucrose.
7000-13000.
166
What risk is associated with high levels of xylitol according to a 2024 study?
Increased risk of heart attack, stroke, and other cardiovascular events.
167
What is the supreme law of the land in India?
The Constitution of India ## Footnote The Constitution is designed to be a flexible document allowing for amendments.
168
What article of the Indian Constitution lays down the procedure for its amendment?
Article 368 ## Footnote This article provides the framework for constitutional amendments.
169
What are the two Houses of the Indian Parliament?
* Council of States (Rajya Sabha) * House of the People (Lok Sabha) ## Footnote These names were officially adopted in 1954.
170
What does Article 82 of the Constitution of India require?
Delimitation of constituencies after every census ## Footnote This ensures representation in the Lok Sabha aligns with demographic shifts.
171
What is the maximum strength of Parliament mentioned in?
The Constitution itself ## Footnote Any change requires a constitutional amendment.
172
What is the tenure of members of the Rajya Sabha?
6 years ## Footnote One-third of the members retire every two years.
173
What schedule of the Constitution governs the distribution of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
The Fourth Schedule ## Footnote Any change in distribution requires a constitutional amendment.
174
What landmark judgment did the Supreme Court deliver in the Keisham Meghachandra Singh case (2020)?
Addressed delays in disqualification proceedings under the 10th Schedule ## Footnote The ruling mandated timely action on disqualification petitions.
175
What is a curative petition?
A legal remedy available after a review petition against a final conviction by the Supreme Court ## Footnote It aims to prevent miscarriages of justice.
176
Which Article of the Constitution allows the Supreme Court to review its final orders?
Article 142 ## Footnote This article pertains to the Supreme Court's inherent powers.
177
What is the objective of the PM-KUSUM Scheme?
Ensure energy security for farmers ## Footnote It aims to increase the share of non-fossil fuel energy sources.
178
When was the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme launched?
March 2020 ## Footnote It aims to boost India's domestic manufacturing base.
179
What does the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan facilitate?
Integrated planning and coordinated implementation of infrastructure connectivity projects ## Footnote Launched on October 13, 2021.
180
What is the primary purpose of the National Ropeway Development Programme?
Decongest mountainous areas ## Footnote It aims to improve connectivity where roads cannot be upgraded.
181
What are the regular methods of voting in the Indian Parliament?
* Voice vote * Rising vote * Show of hands ## Footnote Recorded votes are used in specific circumstances.
182
What color is the Type P passport for the general public?
Dark blue ## Footnote It is accessible to all Indian citizens.
183
What is the purpose of the Enforcement Directorate (ED)?
Investigate financial crimes ## Footnote The ED operates under laws like the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.
184
What does the Big Bang Theory propose?
The universe originated from a singular, extremely hot and dense point and expanded over time ## Footnote Georges Lemaitre is credited with formulating this idea.
185
What does the Nebular Hypothesis explain?
The formation of the solar system from a rotating cloud of gas and dust ## Footnote Proposed by Laplace in the 18th century.
186
Who contributed to the observation of the universe’s expansion?
Edwin Hubble ## Footnote Hubble's work was significant in the development of the Big Bang theory.
187
Who proposed the Gaseous Hypothesis?
Immanuel Kant ## Footnote He speculated that the Sun and planets formed from a large cloud of gas and dust.
188
What does inflation refer to?
The rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services rises over time in an economy.
189
Which two indices primarily measure inflation in India?
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI)
190
What is the base year for the current CPI in India?
2012
191
What does the CPI reflect?
Changes in the prices of goods and services consumed by households ## Footnote Often referred to as retail inflation.
192
What is included in the 'Fuel and Light' category of the CPI basket?
Items used by households for domestic fuel needs ## Footnote Excludes fuel used for conveyance like petrol and diesel.
193
What does the WPI measure?
The average change in prices of goods sold and traded in bulk at the wholesale level.
194
What is the base year for the WPI?
2011-12
195
What does the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) do?
Absorbs excess liquidity in the financial system ## Footnote Replaces the fixed rate reverse repo as the floor of the liquidity adjustment facility corridor.
196
What is a key characteristic of accredited investors according to SEBI?
They meet specific financial criteria such as income or net worth.
197
What is the annual income criterion for accredited investors?
Above ₹2 crore or net worth above ₹7.5 crore.
198
What does the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) measure?
Poverty beyond monetary measures, reflecting multiple deprivations ## Footnote Developed by NITI Aayog using the Alkire-Foster methodology.
199
In the MPI, what does incidence (H) measure?
The percentage of the population that is multidimensionally poor.
200
What does intensity (A) refer to in the MPI?
The average proportion of deprivations experienced by the poor.
201
What is a monetized deficit?
Monetary support the central bank extends to the government as part of its borrowing program.
202
What is homeshoring?
A business strategy allowing employees to work from home to reduce operational costs.
203
What is the primary role of power trading in India?
Facilitates the buying and selling of electricity through various platforms.
204
True or False: The CPI gives significant weight to food items and services.
True
205
Fill in the blank: The Gaseous Hypothesis is attributed to _______.
Immanuel Kant
206
Fill in the blank: The current CPI series includes PDS items such as rice, wheat, sugar, and kerosene holding a combined weight of _______ in the overall CPI basket.
0.9%
207
What is homeshoring?
A practice that enhances employee satisfaction by offering flexibility, which can lead to better performance ## Footnote Homeshoring has gained prominence in the post-pandemic era, combining cost savings with operational efficiency.
208
What does power trading in India facilitate?
The buying and selling of electricity through various platforms, including power exchanges and bilateral agreements ## Footnote It is regulated under the Electricity Act, 2003, ensuring efficiency, transparency, and market-driven mechanisms.
209
What determines the price of electricity on platforms like IEX?
The interaction of demand and supply ## Footnote Higher demand or limited supply leads to price increases, while lower demand results in price reductions.
210
Why do electricity prices vary across platforms like IEX and PXIL?
They depend on regional market conditions, type of contract, and trading volume ## Footnote Prices for long-term and short-term contracts also differ significantly.
211
What are the four major layers of India Stack?
1. Consent Layer 2. Cashless Layer 3. Paperless Layer 4. Presence-less Layer ## Footnote Each layer serves a specific function in digital infrastructure.
212
What is the function of the Consent Layer in India Stack?
An open personal data store, allowing access to modern privacy data-sharing ## Footnote It is owned by the Reserve Bank of India.
213
What does the Cashless Layer in India Stack include?
An interoperable payment network that includes IMPS, AEPS, APB, and UPI ## Footnote It reduces the costs of digital financial transactions.
214
What is the significance of the Paperless Layer in India Stack?
It can store and redeem information and includes e-Sign, e-KYC, and Digital Locker ## Footnote The two major components are Digital Locker and Digital Signature.
215
What is a predator-prey relationship?
A biological interaction where one organism, the predator, kills and eats another organism, the prey ## Footnote This relationship is fundamental in ecological studies.
216
What is amensalism?
A negative association between two species where one species harms the other without being adversely affected ## Footnote Example: Penicillium inhibits bacteria growth.
217
What defines parasitism?
An interaction where one species is harmed and the other benefits ## Footnote Example: Dodder plants live on flowering plants, extracting nutrients.
218
What characterizes a mutualistic relationship?
Two organisms of different species work together, each benefiting from the relationship ## Footnote Example: Bees pollinating flowers while gathering nectar.
219
What are insectivorous plants?
Plants that trap and digest insects to obtain nutrients ## Footnote Example: Pitcher plants use digestive juices to break down trapped insects.
220
What is photocatalytic degradation?
An advanced oxidation process used to degrade pollutants using light energy ## Footnote It involves the absorption of photons in the visible, ultraviolet, and infrared regions.
221
Why are lipase inhibitors used in cosmetic formulations?
To reduce lipid breakdown in the skin's sebaceous glands ## Footnote They help control oil production and improve skin texture.
222
What is the primary use of lipase inhibitors?
In weight management to reduce fat digestion and absorption ## Footnote Orlistat is a commonly prescribed lipase inhibitor.
223
What innovative method is proposed to slow the melting of Antarctic glaciers?
Building large underwater curtains to protect ice sheets from warm seawater ## Footnote This project is called the Seabed Curtain.
224
What adaptations allow penguins to keep their feet unfrozen in sub-zero temperatures?
Physiological adaptations like countercurrent heat exchange, insulating feathers, and thick layers of fat ## Footnote This mechanism helps maintain their core temperature.
225
What is a tiger reserve?
A designated area established under the Project Tiger initiative for tiger conservation ## Footnote It includes core and buffer zones for protecting tiger habitats.
226
How many tiger reserves are currently in India?
57 tiger reserves ## Footnote They account for over 2.3 percent of India's geographical area.
227
What is required for a viable tiger population?
80-100 tigers with a minimum of 20 breeding females ## Footnote The sex ratio should be skewed towards females.
228
What is the objective of the 'Phase IV' monitoring protocol for tiger reserves?
To undertake camera trap based monitoring to arrive at the minimum tiger numbers. ## Footnote This protocol also aids in wildlife crime investigation and understanding tiger land tenure dynamics.
229
What constitutes a viable tiger population?
80-100 tigers with a minimum of 20 breeding females and a sex ratio skewed towards females.
230
What does the Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognize?
The rights of forest dwelling tribal communities and traditional forest dwellers to forest resources.
231
What responsibilities does the Forest Rights Act place on the Gram Sabha?
Conservation and protection of biodiversity, wildlife, forests, and stopping destructive practices affecting these resources.
232
What are Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWHs)?
Areas within protected areas set aside for wildlife conservation, free of human activity that could harm wildlife.
233
Who can notify Critical Wildlife Habitats under the FRA?
The Central Government of India.
234
What is the purpose of the Airgun Surrender Abhiyan?
To curb the use of airguns and licensed firearms in hunting wildlife.
235
When was the Airgun Surrender Abhiyan officially launched?
March 17, 2021.
236
What significant recognition did the Airgun Surrender Abhiyan receive?
It was featured in Prime Minister Narendra Modi's 'Mann Ki Baat' and received international recognition at UNESCO's conference.
237
What is a metamaterial?
A 3-dimensional synthetic structural material with unique electromagnetic, acoustic, or mechanical properties.
238
What is a metasurface?
A 2D version of a metamaterial with structural elements confined to a 2D plane.
239
What is the function of a superlens?
To go beyond the diffraction limit using metamaterials.
240
How does metamaterial cloaking work?
By canceling the electric and magnetic field around an object or guiding electromagnetic waves around it.
241
What is an indicator species?
A species whose presence indicates the presence of a set of other species.
242
What defines a flagship species?
A species chosen to represent an environmental cause, often due to its vulnerability or attractiveness.
243
What is the role of an umbrella species in conservation?
Protection of umbrella species extends protection to many other species in the ecosystem.
244
What defines a keystone species?
A species whose addition or loss leads to major changes in the ecosystem.
245
What effect does higher atmospheric carbon dioxide have on crops?
Boosts crop yields by increasing the rate of photosynthesis.
246
How does elevated carbon dioxide concentrations affect water-use efficiency in crops?
Reduces the amount of water lost through transpiration.