Vajiram All India Mock #1 Flashcards
1
Q
What are banknotes in India?
A
Legal tender issued by a central bank used as a medium of exchange in an economy
Issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
2
Q
What does Section 26 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 state?
A
The Bank is liable to pay the value of banknote on demand
The promissory clause on banknotes assures their value as legal tender backed by RBI’s guarantee.
3
Q
Who issues the ₹1 notes in India?
A
Government of India
All other banknotes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
4
Q
What material is currently used for printing banknotes in India?
A
Virgin cotton
This material is used for durability and quality.
5
Q
What backs the banknotes in India?
A
Gold, government securities, and foreign currency reserves
This is a requirement as per Section 33 of the RBI Act, 1934.
6
Q
How many languages are included on Indian banknotes?
A
15 languages in addition to Hindi and English
This reflects the linguistic diversity of India.
7
Q
Where are banknotes printed in India?
A
At four currency presses
Two owned by the Government of India and two by the Reserve Bank.
8
Q
What are push payments?
A
Payments initiated by the payer to transfer funds to the payee
Examples include cash, bank transfers, and standing orders.
9
Q
What are pull payments?
A
Payments initiated by the payee after receiving authorization from the payer
Examples include cheques, card payments, and direct debits.
10
Q
What is the Secured Overnight Rupee Rate (SORR)?
A
A proposed benchmark for interest rate derivatives markets to replace MIBOR
Derived from actual transactions in secured money markets.
11
Q
What is revenue-based financing?
A
A fundraising method where investors provide capital in exchange for a percentage of ongoing gross revenues
It is non-collateralized and does not require equity from promoters.
12
Q
What is wash trading?
A
A practice where a trader buys and sells the same security to create the illusion of higher trading volume
It is illegal and distorts market activity.
13
Q
What is front running?
A
A fraudulent practice where traders take advantage of non-public information about large trades
It involves building positions before the trade occurs.
14
Q
Who controls the management of gold reserves in India?
A
Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Gold reserves are part of the country’s foreign exchange reserves.
15
Q
What is the fiscal glide path?
A
A strategic approach to reduce the fiscal deficit over time
Proposed by the NK Singh Committee in 2016.
16
Q
What is the Maximum Retail Pricing (MRP) of fertilizers under the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme?
A
Market-determined and set by individual companies
The government pays a fixed subsidy per tonne based on nutrient content.
17
Q
What does Liberal Constitutionalism focus on?
A
Limiting State power to protect individual freedoms and uphold the rule of law
It ensures checks and balances to safeguard against tyranny.
18
Q
How many articles does the Constitution of India currently have?
A
448 articles
Originally consisted of 395 articles, now divided into 24 Parts and 12 Schedules.
19
Q
What was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
A
Part IV-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part XIV-A (Tribunals)
Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Article 51 ‘A’ of the Constitution.
20
Q
What does Part XIV-A of the Indian Constitution provide for?
A
Appointment of tribunals for administrative and other disputes
This part was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
21
Q
What does Part IX-A of the Constitution contain?
A
Provisions for local self government at the urban level (The Municipalities)
It was inserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
22
Q
What does Part IX-B of the Constitution grant?
A
Constitutional status to co-operative societies and provisions for their democratic functioning
Inserted by the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011.
23
Q
What does Natural Justice imply?
A
Fairness, reasonableness, equity, and equality
It is a legal philosophy that dictates how legal proceedings should be conducted.
24
Q
Which Articles of the Constitution incorporate the principles of natural justice?
A
Articles 14 and 21
Article 21 relates to the deprivation of life and personal liberty; Article 14 deals with equality.
25
True or False: The principles of natural justice are binding on all courts and institutions.
True
## Footnote
This includes the principle of 'audi alteram partem' - the right to be heard.
26
What rights does Article 19 of the Constitution of India guarantee?
Freedom of speech, expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession
## Footnote
These rights are fundamental rights for citizens.
27
Fill in the blank: The right to remain silent is implicitly derived from _______.
Article 19(1)(a)
## Footnote
This was adjudged in Bijoe Emmanuel versus the State of Kerala.
28
Which case recognized the right to fly the national flag as a fundamental right?
Union of India v. Naveen Jindal (2004)
## Footnote
The Supreme Court held that it is a form of expression.
29
What is a chargesheet in legal terms?
A final report filed by the police regarding their investigation
## Footnote
It contains details of the offense, evidence, and witness statements.
30
How long must a chargesheet be filed according to law?
Within 60 days (can be extended to 90 days)
## Footnote
Failure to do so makes the arrest of the accused invalid.
31
What is civil contempt?
Willful disobedience of any judgment, order, writ, or court process
## Footnote
Defined under the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
32
What is the role of the Vice-President in the Rajya Sabha?
Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
## Footnote
The Vice-President cannot preside over a sitting when a resolution for their removal is under consideration.
33
What does the Public Account Committee (PAC) do?
Audits the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India
## Footnote
It examines the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General after it is laid in Parliament.
34
What does the Motion of Thanks signify in Parliament?
Expresses gratitude for the President’s Address at the commencement of Lok Sabha
## Footnote
Its failure indicates the treasury has lost its majority.
35
What principle does Article 21 of the Constitution of India provide?
Right to life and personal liberty
## Footnote
No person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
36
True or False: The term 'contempt of court' is defined in the Constitution.
False
## Footnote
It is explained in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.
37
What is the Motion of Thanks in the context of the Lok Sabha?
A parliamentary procedure to express gratitude for the President’s Address at the commencement of Lok Sabha.
## Footnote
Its failure to be passed indicates the treasury has lost its majority.
38
What can a member initiate a privilege motion for?
When they believe a minister has violated the privileges of the House or its members.
## Footnote
The motion aims to express disapproval and criticize the minister’s actions.
39
True or False: Passing a privilege motion requires the government to resign.
False.
## Footnote
The passing of this motion does not necessitate government resignation.
40
What is the purpose of a censure motion?
To censure the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions.
## Footnote
Even if passed, the Council of Ministers need not resign.
41
What is a cut motion?
Motions to reduce any demand for grants during the budget discussion.
## Footnote
If passed, it is considered a no-confidence vote against the Government.
42
What does greenhushing refer to?
When firms under report or strategically withhold information about their environmental goals and achievements.
## Footnote
Companies may avoid advertising their green credentials to prevent litigation or accusations of greenwashing.
43
What is a Biosphere Reserve (BR)?
A scheme implemented by the Government of India to conserve natural resources and ecosystems.
## Footnote
It consists of three zones: Core Areas, Buffer Zone, and Transition Zone.
44
Which agency implements the centrally sponsored scheme for Biosphere Reserves in India?
The Biosphere Reserve Division of India’s Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
45
What are the objectives of designating a Biosphere Reserve?
Ensuring in-situ conservation, widening understanding of ecosystems, achieving integrated development.
## Footnote
These objectives aim to improve the quality of life for indigenous communities.
46
What are energy crops?
Plants specifically grown to produce energy in the form of biofuels or biomass.
## Footnote
Common examples include switchgrass, sugarcane, jatropha, and corn.
47
What is the significance of 2024 in climate records?
It was the first year with a global average temperature exceeding 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.
## Footnote
All continents except Australasia and Antarctica experienced their hottest year on record.
48
What is the IUCN Red List classification for Myristica magnifica?
Endangered.
## Footnote
Myristica magnifica is endemic to the Western Ghats in India.
49
True or False: Red Sanders is endemic to the Western Ghats.
False.
## Footnote
It is endemic to the Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.
50
What is the significance of the genus Dicliptera in the Western Ghats?
Researchers discovered a new species of Dicliptera in the Northern Western Ghats.
## Footnote
Dicliptera polymorpha thrives in extreme climatic conditions.
51
What is the Fukuoka Technique?
A natural farming method developed by Masanobu Fukuoka that uses seed balls and requires no machines or chemicals
## Footnote
This technique is useful for re-vegetation and protects soil from erosion.
52
What are the advantages of seed balls?
* Simple to make without machines
* Easier for reforestation in difficult terrains
* Protects soil and environment
* Organic and chemical-free
* Low-cost compared to traditional methods
* Requires low maintenance
53
What is aeroponics?
The process of growing plants in an air or mist environment without soil or an aggregate medium
## Footnote
It is an alternative method of soil-less culture.
54
What is hydroponics?
The technique of growing plants using a water-based nutrient solution instead of soil
55
What defines a living fossil?
A species that hasn’t evolved significantly for millions of years and closely resembles its ancestors in the fossil record
56
Who coined the term 'living fossil'?
Charles Darwin in 1859
57
Which species is considered a living fossil?
* Cockroach
* Goblin Shark
* Horseshoe Crab
* Duck-billed Platypus
* Nautilus
* Komodo Dragon
* Ginkgo Tree
* Coelacanth
58
What is geoengineering?
Any large-scale attempt to alter the Earth’s natural climate system to counter global warming
59
What is Solar Radiation Management (SRM)?
A geoengineering option that involves deploying materials in space to reflect solar rays and prevent them from reaching Earth
60
What is the Druzhba Pipeline?
One of the world’s biggest crude oil pipeline networks, approximately 5500 km long
61
What is irrigation intensity?
The percentage of net irrigated area to the net sown area, measuring the utilization of irrigation resources
62
What is a characteristic of temperate cyclones?
Atmospheric disturbances with low pressure at the center and increasing pressure outward
63
What influences the movement of temperate cyclones?
The prevailing westerlies in the middle latitudes
64
What role do chokepoints play in global maritime shipping?
They are strategic locations that can limit cost-effective maritime shipping alternatives
65
What are tranquilizers used for?
To treat stress, anxiety, and mild to severe mental diseases
66
Which drugs are examples of tranquilizers?
* Iproniazid
* Phenelzine
* Valium
* Chlordiazepoxide
* Meprobamate
67
Fill in the blank: The amount of organic matter in soil is influenced by _______.
A variety of environmental, soil, and agronomic factors
68
True or False: Tropical cyclones require a minimum sea surface temperature of 26.5°C.
True
69
What is the significance of Aleppo in geography?
Considered one of the oldest continuously inhabited cities in the world
70
What happens to organic matter levels in warmer climates?
Higher temperatures lead to less organic matter due to faster decomposition
71
What are non-narcotic analgesics?
Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of non-narcotic analgesics.
72
What are narcotic analgesics?
Morphine and many of its homologues are narcotic analgesics.
73
What is the primary function of antiseptics?
They are applied to living tissues to prevent infection.
74
Name two examples of antiseptics.
* Furacin
* Soframycin
75
What is Dettol made of?
A mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol.
76
What is the audible range of sound for humans?
From about 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
77
What are sounds below 20 Hz called?
Infrasonic sounds or infrasound.
78
What are sounds above 20 kHz called?
Ultrasonic sound or ultrasound.
79
What is stereoscopy?
The technique of presenting two slightly different images to each eye.
80
What is the altitude of geostationary orbits?
35,786 km.
81
What is quantum tunneling?
A phenomenon where a particle can pass through a potential energy barrier.
82
What are the two types of proteins produced by Bacillus thuringiensis?
* Cyt toxins
* Cry toxins
83
What is the significance of Agrobacterium tumefaciens in plant genetics?
It is used for Agrobacterium-mediated genetic transformation of plant cells.
84
What is β-carotene's role in durum wheat grains?
Enhancing nutritional quality and combating vitamin A deficiencies.
85
When did the cultivation of millets begin?
Approximately 10,000 years ago.
86
What is the meaning of the term 'mudra' in Sanskrit?
Seal, mark, sign or a currency.
87
What does the Abhaya Mudra symbolize?
Fearlessness, protection, reassurance, and peace.
88
What does the Dharmachakra Mudra represent?
The turning of the wheel of Buddhist teachings.
89
Who were the first Europeans to come to India?
The Portuguese.
90
What was the role of the Vedor da Fazenda in the Portuguese administration in India?
Responsible for revenues, cargoes, and dispatch of fleets.
91
What is the significance of the Allahabad-Kosam pillar?
It reflects the evolution of political power in India from the Mauryan to the Mughal period.
92
What did Ashoka's inscriptions on the Allahabad-Kosam pillar promote?
Dhamma and moral governance.
93
What type of inscriptions did Jahangir add to the Allahabad-Kosam pillar?
Genealogical inscriptions commemorating his reign.
94
What was the purpose of Ashoka using the pillar in his governance?
To reinforce moral and ethical conduct, encouraging peaceful co-existence and respect for all religions.
## Footnote
This marked a pivotal moment in the history of Buddhism and Mauryan governance.
95
Who added inscriptions to the Allahabad-Kosam pillar?
Jahangir
## Footnote
The inscriptions were genealogical, commemorating his reign and asserting his authority.
96
What does the Allahabad prashashti written by Harishena mention?
Military achievements and genealogy of Samudragupta.
## Footnote
Harishena was the court poet of Samudragupta.
97
Which rulers do not have inscriptions on the Allahabad-Kosam pillar?
Skandagupta, Chandragupta, and Firuz Shah Tughlaq.
## Footnote
Their inscriptions are not present, making points 1, 3, and 4 incorrect.
98
What philosophy did the Ajivikas sect represent?
A fatalist philosophy emphasizing Niyati (fate).
## Footnote
This philosophy emerged alongside Buddhism and Jainism in the Magadha region.
99
What did the Ajivikas reject in their beliefs?
The concepts of free will and karma.
## Footnote
They emphasized absolute fatalism and determinism.
100
What did Ashoka's edicts record regarding the Ajivikas?
His patronage, including the donation of the Barabar Caves.
## Footnote
These caves were used by Ajivika ascetics.
101
What are stupas in Buddhist architecture?
Dome-shaped sacred monuments containing relics of the Buddha or other sacred objects.
## Footnote
Stupas were popularized by Buddhists and represent funeral cumulus.
102
What does the term 'Yasti' refer to in Buddhist architecture?
The spire that rises from the apex of the dome of a stupa.
## Footnote
It symbolizes the axis of the universe.
103
What is a 'Harmika' in the context of a stupa?
A square fence-like enclosure symbolizing heaven on top of the dome.
## Footnote
It encloses the yasti with its chatras.
104
Fill in the blank: The _______ refers to the platform on which the main structure of the stupa stands.
Medhi
105
What does 'Torana' signify in Buddhist architecture?
A free-standing gateway marking the entrance to a Buddhist stupa.
106
What was the main aim of the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856?
To facilitate widow remarriage among Hindus and remove social stigma.
## Footnote
It was influenced by social reformers like Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
107
What did the Anand Marriage Act, 1909 legitimize?
The Anand Karaj marriage ceremony among Sikhs.
## Footnote
It does not address widow remarriage.
108
What was the purpose of the Brahmo Marriage Act, 1872?
To govern marriages of members of the Brahmo Samaj and allow inter-caste and widow marriage under non-Hindu declaration.
109
Fill in the blank: The Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872 provided a legal framework for _______ marriages in India.
Christian
110
Who was Keshub Chandra Sen?
A prominent leader of the Brahmo Samaj who focused on social reform and radicalism.
## Footnote
He established the Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866.
111
What was Keshub Chandra Sen's primary concern?
The quest for religion and social reform.
112
What is the significance of the Indian Struggle (1920-42)?
A historical and political study by Subash Chandra Bose of the freedom struggle.
## Footnote
It covers movements from non-cooperation to Quit India.
113
What was 'Vishwa Prem' and who wrote it?
An essay by Bhagat Singh published in 1924.
## Footnote
It was published under the alias of Balwant Singh.
114
Who founded Sandhya Patrika, and what was its focus?
Brahma Bandhab Upadhyaya, criticizing the British Government for the Partition of Bengal.
115
What is the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?
The global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog that sets international standards to prevent illegal activities and societal harm.
116
What are the four categories that FATF places member countries in?
* Regular follow-up
* Enhanced follow-up
* Grey list
* Black list
117
How many countries in G20 are placed in the 'regular follow-up' category by FATF?
5 countries including India
118
Which countries are placed in 'Enhanced follow-up' by FATF?
* US
* Australia
* Canada
* New Zealand
* Germany
* Finland
* Denmark
119
What is the significance of a 'regular follow-up' country according to FATF?
It has to submit its progress report on the actions recommended by FATF in a time-bound manner.
120
What is the Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
The rate at which the government purchases crops from farmers to ensure a remunerative price.
121
How many mandated crops have an MSP announced?
22 mandated crops (14 kharif, 6 rabi, and 2 commercial crops)
122
Who recommends the MSP?
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)
123
What is the A2+FL cost in the context of MSP?
It includes A2 costs plus the imputed cost of unpaid family labour.
124
What formula did the Indian government announce for MSP in 2018?
MSPs are set at a level of at least 1.5 times the A2+FL cost of production.
125
What is a blue bond?
A debt instrument issued to raise funds for marine and ocean-based projects with economic and environmental benefits.
126
What is one limitation of blue bonds as a financial instrument?
Linking bonds to specific expenditures decreases flexibility in capital allocation.
127
What was India's estimated inflow of remittances in 2024?
$129 billion
128
Which countries follow India as top recipients of remittances?
* Mexico
* China
* Philippines
* Pakistan
129
What trend has been observed regarding remittances and Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?
Remittances have outpaced other types of external financial flows, with a widening gap expected.
130
What is the projected decline in the proportion of youths in India by 2031?
From 27% in 2021 to 25% in 2031
131
What role does Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) play in India's economy?
It contributes to the development of various sectors.
132
Which sector requires government approval for FDI due to national security?
Telecom sector
133
What is the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN)?
A fund established to support universal service in telecommunications in underserved areas.
134
What are some key objectives of Digital Bharat Nidhi?
* Extend mobile and broadband services
* Develop secure telecommunication infrastructure
* Increase affordability of services
* Encourage research and commercialization of telecom technologies
135
What does the gravity model of international trade predict?
The volume of trade between two countries based on their economic size and distance.
136
What does the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024 focus on?
Modernizing water pollution control framework and decriminalizing minor offences.
137
What is the purpose of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024?
To modernize the framework for water pollution control in India and emphasize efficiency, compliance, and streamlined regulatory processes.
## Footnote
The Act includes decriminalization of minor offences and enhanced governance measures.
138
What is the penalty range for minor offences under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024?
₹10,000 to ₹15 lakh depending on the severity of the violation.
## Footnote
This aligns with the global trend of adopting a punitive yet non-criminal approach to environmental violations.
139
Under the amended provisions, who can exempt specific industrial plants from obtaining prior consent for discharge?
The Central Government, in consultation with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
## Footnote
This aims to streamline processes for industries while maintaining environmental safeguards.
140
What does the Amendment Act enhance regarding State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)?
It allows the Central Government to prescribe criteria, tenure, and service conditions for the Chairman and members of SPCBs.
## Footnote
This change aims at ensuring uniformity and better governance across states.
141
What do DUET and ENTICE 2.0 focus on?
DUET focuses on digitalization of grid systems; ENTICE 2.0 supports innovative energy solutions for startups.
## Footnote
Both initiatives aim to accelerate India’s energy transition and drive sustainable growth.
142
What are Resin Identification Codes (RIC)?
A standardized system used to identify different types of plastics based on their polymer type and common uses.
## Footnote
They aid in sorting, recycling, and understanding the material’s properties and applications.
143
What is the primary use of Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET)?
It is commonly used in water and soda bottles, food containers, and other transparent packaging.
## Footnote
PET is one of the most widely recycled plastics.
144
What are the characteristics of High-Density Polyethylene (HDPE)?
Durable, non-reactive, and resistant to chemicals; used for shampoo bottles, milk jugs, and cleaning product bottles.
## Footnote
HDPE is recyclable and often repurposed into pipes and plastic lumber.
145
What defines non-native species?
Plants and animals living in areas where they do not naturally exist, either introduced intentionally or unintentionally.
## Footnote
Non-native species can be beneficial or harmful, and not all non-native species are invasive.
146
What are the ecological roles of wetlands?
Control floods, clean water, and provide numerous benefits to people.
## Footnote
Wetlands are critical ecosystems that face risks from urban expansion.
147
What does the Ramsar Convention's Wetland City Accreditation scheme recognize?
Cities displaying exceptional efforts in protecting and managing their urban wetlands.
## Footnote
It aims to promote the preservation and wise use of urban wetlands.
148
What is the primary use of pink fire retardants like Phos-Chek?
To slow down the spread of wildfires.
## Footnote
The primary component, ammonium phosphate, prevents ignition by depriving vegetation of oxygen.
149
What is Urban Mining?
The process of extracting valuable materials from discarded electronic waste (e-waste).
## Footnote
It plays a role in fostering a circular economy by recycling resources that are difficult to source sustainably.
150
What is the significance of herons in wetland ecosystems?
They are important ecological indicators of wetland health due to their sensitivity to environmental changes.
## Footnote
Herons reflect the overall health of wetland ecosystems and are susceptible to bioaccumulation.
151
What components make up India's Nuclear Triad?
Land-based nuclear missiles, nuclear-missile-armed submarines, and strategic aircraft.
## Footnote
This structure provides a credible minimum deterrence against potential adversaries.
152
What is the purpose of the Annual Ground Water Quality Report, 2024?
To indicate the concentration of contaminants like nitrate, fluoride, arsenic, and iron in groundwater.
## Footnote
It shows that monsoon rains can temporarily improve water quality by diluting salts.
153
Fill in the blank: The Ramsar Convention defines a wetland as ‘areas of marsh, fen, peatland, or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is _______.
[static or flowing, fresh, brackish, or salt]
154
True or False: All non-native species are invasive.
False
## Footnote
Many non-native species can be beneficial and are not harmful to ecosystems.
155
What does SSBN stand for?
Submarine-launched Ballistic Nuclear submarines
156
Why are SSBNs considered survivable?
A portion of the SSBN fleet is always on patrol, making it difficult for adversaries to track them
157
What are K-15 Sagarika missiles' range?
700 Kms
158
What is the range of K-4 missiles?
3500 Kms
159
What major component does the air-based component of a military force primarily include?
Bombers
160
Name one flexible bomber aircraft.
Sukhoi Su-30MKI
161
True or False: The All India Federation was proposed to integrate Princely States into a unified governance framework.
True
162
What was the Indian States Committee popularly known as?
Butler Committee
163
What did the Butler Committee reaffirm regarding paramountcy?
Unlimited supremacy of Paramountcy
164
Fill in the blank: Organs-on-chips (OoCs) are systems containing engineered or natural miniature _______ grown inside microfluidic chips.
tissues
165
What material is most popular for manufacturing Organs-on-chips?
Polydimethylsiloxane (PDMS)
166
What does End-to-End Encryption (E2EE) ensure?
Only the sender and intended recipient can access transmitted information
167
True or False: E2EE allows third parties to decrypt transmitted data.
False
168
What did M.C. Rajah establish in 1926?
All India Depressed Classes Association
169
Who was the secretary of the All India Depressed Classes Association when it was formed?
Dr. Ambedkar
170
What was the Rajah-Munje pact?
An agreement proposing joint electorates
171
What is the geological composition of Mount Girnar?
Igneous rocks
172
Which lake is known as the only saline crater lake in the world?
Lake Lonar
173
What is the first country to celebrate New Year’s Eve annually?
Kiribati
174
Fill in the blank: The International Date Line serves as the line where the _______ changes.
calendar date
175
What happens when you move west across the International Date Line?
Advances the date by one day
176
What geological features are associated with Tosham Hills?
Igneous rock formations
177
What was the outcome of the Second Round Table Conference regarding federation?
Princes were divided on the issue
178
What are the judicial powers and functions of the Governor of a State?
1. Consulted by the President while appointing Judges of the State High Court. 2. Makes appointments, postings, and promotions of district judges in consultation with the State High Court. 3. Can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remissions of punishment.
179
What is the Anti-Defection Law in India?
It disqualifies a legislator from being a member if: 1. They voluntarily give up their party membership. 2. An independent member joins a political party after election. 3. A nominated member joins a party after six months.
180
True or False: The Anti-Defection Law applies to Rajya Sabha elections.
False
181
What are the exceptions to the Anti-Defection Law?
1. Merger of parties with two-thirds agreement. 2. Presiding officer voluntarily giving up party membership.
182
What does the Representation of the People Act, 1950 provide for?
Preparation of electoral rolls for parliamentary and assembly constituencies.
183
What are the three categories of electors in India?
1. General electors 2. Overseas (NRI) electors 3. Service electors
184
Fill in the blank: An overseas elector is a citizen of India who is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to _______.
[employment, education, or otherwise]
185
What are the six official languages recognized by the United Nations?
1. English 2. French 3. Spanish 4. Arabic 5. Russian 6. Chinese
186
What is GovDrive?
A cloud-based multi-tenant platform for government officials to share documents and collaborate.
187
What is the term Shad-gunya in Kautilya’s Arthashastra?
Refers to six-fold policies for a king dealing with neighboring states: Sandhi, Vigraha, Asana, Yana, Samsraya, Dvaidhibhava.
188
What is the Kumbh Mela?
A periodical mass gathering of Hindu devotees, occurring every four years at four holy locations.
189
What is the Maha Kumbh?
The grand festival taking place every twelve years at Prayagraj.
190
What is the significance of the Kumbh Mela recognized by UNESCO?
It is recognized as one of the Intangible heritage of mankind.
191
What is biotechnology?
A fusion of biology and technology providing solutions across different sectors.
192
What does the term 'Credit mix' refer to?
The different types of credit accounts a person has, such as car loans, credit cards, and personal loans.
193
What are derivatives?
Financial instruments whose value is derived from an underlying asset, such as stocks, bonds, or commodities.
194
Fill in the blank: Futures are derivative contracts that obligate parties to buy or sell an asset at a predetermined price on a _______.
[future date]
195
What are Participatory Notes (P-notes)?
Offshore Derivative Instruments issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors to overseas investors.
196
What are Participatory Notes (P-notes)?
Offshore Derivative Instruments issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors to overseas investors, allowing them to invest in Indian stock markets without direct registration.
## Footnote
P-notes have Indian stocks as their underlying assets.
197
What are options in derivatives?
Financial instruments that give the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy or sell an underlying asset at a specified price by a certain expiration date.
198
What is a Call Option?
An option that gives the buyer the right to purchase an asset at a specified price within a particular time frame.
199
What is a Put Option?
An option that grants the holder the right to sell an underlying asset at a predetermined price.
200
What are swaps in finance?
Derivative contracts involving the exchange of cash flows or assets between two parties, used for hedging against various risks.
201
What is a Credit Default Swap?
A financial derivative that transfers credit risk between two parties, where the buyer pays a premium for protection against a credit event.
202
What are forward contracts?
Derivatives that involve an agreement to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on a future date.
203
What is a Promissory note?
A debt instrument that is not a derivative, containing an unconditional promise to pay a certain sum of money.
204
What is Commercial Paper (CP)?
A short-term unsecured money market instrument issued at a discount to face value, used by corporates and financial institutions to raise funds.
205
What are credit derivatives?
Financial instruments whose value is derived from the credit risk of an underlying asset, typically used to hedge against credit risk.
206
What are weather derivatives?
Financial instruments whose value is linked to specific weather conditions, allowing businesses to hedge against financial losses from weather variations.
207
What are currency derivatives?
Financial contracts whose value is derived from the exchange rate of one currency against another.
208
What is the role of climate change in forest fires?
Increased temperatures dry landscapes, leading to larger and more frequent forest fires which release carbon and exacerbate climate change.
209
What percentage of fire-related tree cover loss occurred in boreal regions from 2001 to 2023?
Approximately 70%.
210
True or False: Fires are responsible for more than 10% of tree cover loss in tropical regions.
False.
211
What is the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)?
An organization formed in 1958, responsible for developing defense technologies in India.
212
When was the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) established?
August 1969.
213
What was Pokhran-I?
India's first nuclear test conducted on May 18, 1974, demonstrating its nuclear technology.
214
What was the name of India's first satellite?
Aryabhatta.
215
What did the Government of India Act of 1861 establish?
Legislative councils and increased executive authority of the Viceroy.
216
What are biofertilizers?
Living microorganisms that promote plant growth and are biodegradable.
217
List the types of biofertilizers based on microorganisms.
* Bacterial Biofertilizers
* Fungal Biofertilizers
* Algal Biofertilizers
* Actinomycetes Biofertilizers
218
What role did Pustapala serve in Gupta administration?
Responsible for maintaining official records and documents.
219
What is the significance of Equinoxes?
Times of the year when day and night are nearly equal in duration at all latitudes.
220
What causes condensation?
The transformation of water vapor into liquid water droplets due to cooling.
221
Fill in the blank: The ideal conditions for dew formation include _______.
[clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, cold and long nights]
222
What is the primary reason for uneven heating of the Earth?
The Earth's spherical shape and axial tilt.
223
What is retting?
A biochemical process used to extract cellulose-rich fibres from plant stems.
224
What regions receive less solar energy compared to those between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn?
Regions beyond the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
## Footnote
This indicates that heat is concentrated in the tropics.
225
What is retting?
A biochemical process used to extract cellulose-rich fibres from the stems of certain plants
## Footnote
It involves soaking the harvested plant stems in water to promote microbial activity.
226
How long does jute take to grow before it can be harvested?
100 to 150 days
## Footnote
Jute is a bast fibre crop that can be harvested at any stage after this period.
227
What are the common uses for jute fibres?
Sacks, ropes, and mats
## Footnote
Jute fibres are widely utilized in various industries.
228
What is Mesta?
A bast fibre crop similar to jute
## Footnote
It grows extensively in India and is used as an alternative for making ropes and textiles.
229
What is the significance of ramie as a bast fibre crop?
It produces the longest and one of the strongest natural fine textile fibers
## Footnote
Ramie requires retting to remove the gummy substance surrounding the fibres.
230
What is the primary method used to extract fibres from sunn hemp?
Retting
## Footnote
The fibres are obtained from the outer bark of the stem.
231
What is cotton classified as?
A seed fibre crop
## Footnote
Cotton fibres are extracted directly from the seed hairs of the cotton bolls.
232
What is the process used to separate cotton fibres?
Ginning
## Footnote
This mechanical process differs from retting used for bast fibres.
233
What is Port Newark?
A container port in New Jersey, USA
## Footnote
It is one of the busiest container ports on the East Coast.
234
What is unique about the Port Newark Container Terminal?
It uses part of its operational footprint for solar energy generation
## Footnote
The terminal integrates elevated photovoltaic solar panel canopies.
235
What is the significance of the Port of Qingdao?
It is one of the most comprehensive ports in the world
## Footnote
It is an important hub for international trade and transportation in Northeast Asia.
236
Which port is recognized as the world's largest and busiest port?
Shanghai Port
## Footnote
It is located near the Yangtze River in China.
237
What is the historical importance of Al Masudi?
He is known as the Herodotus of the Arabs for his travel writings
## Footnote
His accounts include vivid descriptions of India.
238
What was the title of Al Masudi's seminal work?
Akhbar uz-Zaman or 'The History of Time'
## Footnote
This work includes his travelogues and observations about Indian society.
239
Which Indian king was on the throne during Al Masudi's visit?
King Bhoja of Malwa
## Footnote
Al Masudi visited India around 915-916 AD.
240
What are the six orthodox schools of Indian philosophy called?
Shada Darshana
## Footnote
These schools recognize the authority of the Vedas.
241
What school of philosophy did Jaimini found?
Mimansa
## Footnote
He authored the 'Mimansa Sutra' around 400 B.C.
242
What does the term 'Mimansa' mean?
Revered thought
## Footnote
It pertains to the interpretation of Vedic rituals.
243
Who is considered the founder of the Charvaka School of philosophy?
Brihaspati
## Footnote
Charvaka philosophy is materialistic and denies the existence of an afterlife.
244
What philosophy does Vedanta uphold?
The philosophies of life as elaborated in the Upanishads
## Footnote
Shankaracharya's Advaita Vedanta is a significant interpretation of this philosophy.
245
Which animal is adapted to montane forests?
Jack rabbits
## Footnote
They thrive in open, rugged terrains typical of these forests.
246
What is the habitat preference of the wild ibex?
High, rocky, and steep areas of montane forests
## Footnote
These conditions are ideal for ibexes.
247
Where is the red panda typically found?
Montane forests of the Himalayas and surrounding mountain ranges
## Footnote
These forests provide the cool, dense vegetation including bamboo essential for their diet.
