Vaccines Flashcards

1
Q

variolation:

A

term for delivery of initial smallpox vaccine either intranasally or intradermally (scratch on the arm)

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2
Q

vaccinia:

A

another name for the virus used to vaccinate against smallpox (vaccinia virus)

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3
Q

vaccination:

A

any deliberate immunization that induces immune responses (if successful, protective acquired immune responses);

the word vaccination was derived for the latin word for cow (vaccus) because the first successful vaccine used the cowpox virus to immunize against smallpox

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4
Q

immunization:

A

the deliberate prevocation of an acquired immune response by introducing antigen into the body

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5
Q

killed or inactivated vaccines:

A

any vaccine that employs killed pathogens as the antigen; the pathogens can be killed either by
chemical treatment, heat, or irradiation

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6
Q

attenuated vaccines:

A

any vaccine protocol that employs “weakened” pathogens as the immunogen;

pathogens can be weakened by several methods, and the result is that the attenuated pathogen’s ability to cause disease is either weakened or destroyed

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7
Q

subunit vaccine:

A

vaccines that employ only part of the pathogen as the vaccine immunogen

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8
Q

toxoid:

A

an inactivated toxin used as a vaccine immunogen whose toxic activity has been destroyed (usually by chemical treatment)

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9
Q

How was the first vaccination done?

A

a small amount of this material was administered to healthy people thru variolation

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10
Q

How did the cowpox vaccine from Jenner work against smallpox?

A

shared many antigens;

immune responses to cowpox were cross-reactive with smallpox virus and these responses were protective

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11
Q

What type of vaccine is Diphtheria-tetanus pertussis (DTP/DTaP)?

A

killed subunits/toxoids

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12
Q

What type of vaccine is inactivated polio vaccine?

A

whole killed virions

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13
Q

What type of vaccine is Measles/mumps/rubella (MMR)?

A

live attenuated viruses

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14
Q

What type of vaccine is pneumococcal conjugate?

A

heptavalent / diptheria

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15
Q

What type of vaccine is Haemophilus B conjugate (HBC)?

A

Diptheria rotein conjugate

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16
Q

What type of vaccine is hepatitis B?

A

subunit

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17
Q

What type of vaccine is varicella (chickenpox virus)?

A

live attenuated

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18
Q

What type of vaccine is rotavirus?

A

live attenuated

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19
Q

What type of vaccine is influenza?

A

killed or live attenuated

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20
Q

What type of vaccine is meningococcus C?

A

conjugated capsule subunit

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21
Q

What type of vaccine is human papillomavirus?

A

Gardasil: virus-like particles

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22
Q

the most widely used whole live bacterial vaccine is what?

A

BCG vaccine

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23
Q

How are subunit vaccines made and what bacteria are responsible for this?

A

bacterial toxins that have been inactivated (toxoids) can also be used as vaccine immunogens

toxins can be purified and deactivated by treating them with formalin and used as a subunit vaccine

  • Corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • Clostridium tetani

both produce a toxin that causes disease

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24
Q

DTP combination vaccine is a vaccine that is routinely administered to children in the U.S. What is the combination?

A

diphtheria and tetanus toxoids have been combined with a killed preparation of Bordetella pertussis

25
Q

Viral vaccines use what forms of the virus as the vaccine immunogen?

A

either 1) killed, 2) subunit, or 3) attenuated forms of the virus as the vaccine immunogens

26
Q

What do killed virus vaccines consist of? what are they used for?

A

consist of virus particles that have been killed by chemical treatment or irradiation

currently used vaccine for influenza and the Salk polio vaccine

27
Q

What is an attenuated virus? How does it work? How commonly is it used?

A

an attenuated virus particle is one whose ability to cause disease has been reduced or eliminated, but it is still able to replicate in the host so that it mimics a real infection

most anti-viral vaccines are live-attenuated vaccines, including the measles, mumps, Sabin polio, and yellow fever vaccines

28
Q

Production of strong immune responses to an antigen almost always requires that the antigen be mixed with an adjuvant prior to administration. What is an adjuvant?

A

is any substance that enhances the immunogenicity of an antigen.

An adjuvant can be added to an immunogen prior to immunization (vaccination)

29
Q

What are the 3 reasons adjuvants promote immune response?

A

1) increase the length of exposure of the immune system to an antigen by releasing the antigen slowly over an extended period of time (termed depot formation).
2) often cause inflammation, thus promoting uptake of the antigen by macrophages
3) specifically elicit mucosal immune responses (secretory IgA, or sIgA)

30
Q

How do adjuvants slowly release antigen to increase immune response?

A

adjuvants turn a soluble protein antigen into a particulate antigen which is more readily ingested by antigen-presenting cells

31
Q

What is an example of an adjuvant that causes inflammation and depot formation?

A

Freund’s adjuvant

32
Q

How does Frued’s adjuvant increase the immune response?

A

this adjuvant is composed of mineral oil (depot formation) and mycobacterial cell wall components (a source of PAMPs for induction of inflammation).

When an antigen is emulsified in this adjuvant, its immunogenicity can be increased many fold.

33
Q

What are examples of adjuvants that specifically elicit mucosal immune responses?

A

cholera toxin, tetanus toxin, E. coli lymphotoxin

34
Q

What is a liposome?

A

a highly stable closed vesicle formed by a single bilayer of phospholipids

35
Q

How do liposomes promote immune responsiveness?

A

liposomes enable delivery of immunogens into the cytoplasm of host cells

36
Q

What type of vaccines are liposomes generally used with? How does this improve immune response?

A

typically used with subunit vaccines and are used to deliver immunogen into the cytoplasm of antigen-presenting cells;

this promotes processing and presentation of the immunogen through the MHC class I processing and presentation pathway

37
Q

What are the 4 methods of making attenuated viruses?

A
  1. grow a human viral pathogen in cells of non-human origin
  2. mutation of viruses using recombinant DNA
  3. Recombinant techniques can also be used to clone a gene(s) from a pathogen into plasmid DNA, and the plasmid can be
    administered as a vaccine
  4. can sometimes be isolated from an infected individual
38
Q

How is an attenuating virus grown on a non-human origin chosen to become the virus of choice within the vaccine?

A
  • as the virus replicates in the non-human cells, mutant viruses that grow better/faster in these cells are selected for
  • a virus that has been adapted for growth in non-human cells is typically attenuated in its ability to replicate in human cells
39
Q

What is the premise of using recombinanat DNA for attenuating viral vaccines?

A

the virulence gene(s) of a particular virus can be deleted or mutated, rendering the virus unable to cause disease

40
Q

For recombinant DNA to be effective, What is the critical point?

A

a virulence gene that does not play a role in the ability of the virus to infect cells or replicate within host cells must be identified

41
Q

How can recombinant DNA be used to prepare a subunit vaccine

A

used to clone viral or bacterial genes, and to express these genes in non-pathogenic bacteria (or virus) to generate protein for a subunit vaccine

42
Q

What other 2 ways could recombinant DNA be used to promote immune responsiveness and increase a vaccines ability to recognize a different pathogen?

A

recombinant techniques can also be used to insert genes from a pathogen into a currently used bacterial or viral vaccine strain; this recombinant vaccine strain could then be used as a vaccine against a different pathogen

it is also possible to insert genes encoding proteins that have adjuvant properties into a vaccine strain; the adjuvant could then promote immune responsiveness to the vaccine

43
Q

Recombinant techniques can also be used to clone a gene(s) from a pathogen into plasmid DNA, and the plasmid can be administered as a vaccine. How does this work and how are they administered?

A

DNA vaccines are usually administered either intramuscularly, or intranasally

the DNA is taken up by cells and the encoded recombinant protein is expressed by the host cell

44
Q

Describe how attenuated viruses can sometimes be isolated from an infected individual

A

sometimes during replication, viruses with natural- occurring mutations that increase their ability to replicate, but reduce their pathogenicity become the predominant strain of virus growing in that host

45
Q

Why are Attenuated vaccines are not always 100% safe?

A

because of their similarity to the pathogen, an attenuated vaccine can revert to becoming a pathogenic strain

46
Q

What is an example of recombinant attenuated viral vaccine that is efficacious?

A

rotovirus vaccines

47
Q

How is a rotovirus similar to the influenza virus?

A

1) it has a segmented genome (11 dsRNA molecules),
2) antibody responses directed against surface proteins of the virus are protective via neutralization

48
Q

What gives rise to the distinct serotypes of the rotovirus?

A

the two coat proteins that are important immunological targets are the VP4 and VP7 proteins;

these envelope **glycoproteins are variable due to frequent mutation, **

49
Q

Why is the reassortment of genome segments in cells infected with two distinct rotovirus serotypes important?

A

can give rise to immunologically distinct viruses

50
Q

What is the rotarix vaccine?

A

consists of an attenuated human virus with common VP4 and VP7 variants

51
Q

What is the RotaTeq vaccine?

A

consists of a mixture of 5 cattle rotovirus strains that do not cause disease in humans;

each has been engineered to express a different common VD4 and VD7 glycoprotein of the 5 most virulent human strains

52
Q

CYTOKINES CAN BE USED TO MODULATE IMMUNE RESPONSE TO PATHOGENS AND VACCINE IMMUNOGENS in what 4 ways?

A
  1. helps to shape developing acquired immune responses due to the different roles the two types of effector CD4 T cells perform in the development of acquired immunity
  2. administered therapeutically to alter the outcome of infection
  3. Removal or inhibition of cytokines can also alter outcome of infection
  4. shown to have powerful adjuvant properties when co- administered with antigen as a vaccine component
53
Q

Describe the difference of the effector CD4 T cells in the development of acquired immunity

A

the cytokines produced by TH1 cells promote the development of immune responses that are effective for clearance of intracellular pathogens; these cytokines also inhibit the development of TH2 cells

the cytokines produced by TH2 effector cells promote the development of immune responses that are best for clearance of extracellular pathogens; these cytokines also inhibit the development of TH1 effector cells

54
Q

What cytokines produce a Th1 response?

A

IL-12, TNF-a

55
Q

What cytokines produce a Th2 response?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6

56
Q

Describe how removal or inhibition of cytokines can also alter outcome of infection.

A

If an intracellular parasite infection occurs, and the host is given anti-IL-4-Abs (IL-4 promotes Th2) then the host will be able to form an effective Th1 response because the cytokine was effectively inhibited

57
Q

How should a toxoid be delivered?

A

extracellularly

58
Q
A