v4 Flashcards by katie fournier

Which item is not checked when off-loading property from a carrier?
A. Production date
B. Transportation control number
C. Shipping Label
D. Obvious damage

A. Production date

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Who works with the in-checker to ensure items are correctly identified and the appropriate condition tags or labels are used on the assets?
A. Item manager
B. Inspector
C. Customer
D. Commander

B. Inspector

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Which block of the AF Form 2005 will the inspector sign or stamp after the in-checker has signed and dated the form?
A. D
B. A
C. C
D. B

D. B

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Which operation includes verifying, identify, security classification, condition, status, markings, tagging, and labeling for property?
A. Inspection operations
B. Inventory operations
C. Storage operations
D. Receiving operations

A. Inspection operations

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Who is responsible for overseeing the COSIS program?
A. Chief Inspector
B. Materiel management inspectors
C. Logistics readiness squadron commander
D. LRS Deputy commander

A. Chief Inspector

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What three things are used to identify an item?
A. Reference number, stock number, and item description
B. Reference number, item number, and stock number
C. Stock number, nomenclature, and item description
D. Stock number, item description, and specification

A. Reference number. stock number, and item description

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Which DoD form is red and is used to identify property that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair?
A. DD Form 1577-3, Unserviceable (Repairable) Label
B. DD Form 1577, Unservicable (Condemned) Tag
C. DD Form 1579, Test Modification Tag
D. DD Form 1577-2, Unserviceable (Repairable Tag

B. DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag

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What is the purpose of DoD Form 2477, Inspection Extension?
A. Updates inspection data
B. IIdentifies property in stock that has been suspended
C. Identifies condemned items
D. Identifies property forwarded to maintenance

A. Updates inspection data

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What TRIC is processed to initiate a condition change?
A. FCI
B. FCH
C. FCC
D. FCU

C. FCC

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An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the
A. property was damaged
B. quantity issued was in excess of what the customer ordered
C. property delivered was an unsuitable substitute
D. customer failed to cancel the due-out

D. customer failed to cancel the due-out

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Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program of all items in storage?
A. Accountable officer
B. Logistics manager
C. Inspector
D. Warehouse supervisor

C. Inspector

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When is a supply discrepancy report (SDR) required?
A. Assets involving local base or station deliveries to or returns from internal or satellite activities
B. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments
C. LRS cancels an issue request
D. LRS processed an issue request

B. Incorrect materiel, unacceptable substitutes, or duplicate shipments

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Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded when additional help is needed?
A. Major Command (MAJCOM)
B. Stock control function
C. Accountable officer
D. Item manager

A. Major Command (MAJCOM)

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At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained?
A. between 50 and 60 degrees
B. between 32 and 50 degrees
C. below 32 degrees
D. below 0 degrees

B. between 32 and 50 degrees

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At a minimum, how many feet must separate flammable storage facilities from other facilities?
A. 50 ft
B. 75 ft
C. 100 ft
D. 25 ft

A. 50 ft

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What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage?
A. Adverse weather
B. Slipping on steel mat toppings
C. Wet ground conditions
D. Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE)

D. Limited use of materiel handling equipment (MHE)

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The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the
A. storage space
B. materiel handling equipment
C. storage plan
D. gross space available

A. storage space

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What must be planned before the actual start of the storage operation to assure the floor and cubic capacity of the warehouse will be used to the greatest extent possible?
A. Item similarity
B. Storage areas
C. Item popularity
D. Bin Rows

B. Storage areas

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When you increase the amount of space for an item in a location to eliminate overflow into another item’s location, you are implementing what storage factor?
A. Item similarity
B. Item quantity
C. Item size and weight
D. Popularity

B. Item quantity

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What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location 05C045F056D?
A. 056
B. F
C. 045
D. D

D. D

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Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from
A. right to left and rear to front
B. left to right only
C. right to left only
D. left to right and front to rear

D. left to right and front to rear

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What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location?
A. #
B. R
C. D
D. *

D. *

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What item does the Air Force use to aid in inventory and warehouse validation?
A. Bar-coded labels
B. Corner markers
C. Placement cards
D. Storage bays

A. Bar-coded labels

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Within how many work days of the start of an inventory cycle should the storage activity complete scheduled validations?
A. 3 workdays
B. 14 workdays
C. 10 workdays
D. 7 workdays

C. 10 workdays

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How many days prior to the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse location parameter input required? A. 1 day B. 5 days C. 3 days D. 7 days

A. 1 day

What action is required prior to performing a validation to ensure a warehouse is the best condition for an inventory? A. Inventory reserve assets B. Prepare the warehouse area C. Move assets to reserve location D. Move assets to alternate warehouse

B. Prepare the warehouse area

What TRIC is processed to move property to the correct location? A. TRM B. ISU C. SPR D. FCS

D. FCS

The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called A. honeycombing B. mezzanine storage C. potential vacant space D. cross stacking

A. Honeycombing

Marking found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be A. Recycled B. Ignored C. Obliterated D. Saved as historical data

C. Obliterated

Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? A. FCH B. 1SC C. FCD D. FIC

D. FIC

What TRIC is used to manually transfer nondirected assets to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? A. TRM B. SHP C. A2* D. FTR

A. TRM

What routing identified code (RIC) is processed with a special requisition when property is available in DLADS? A. AK1 B. JBR C. SMS D. B14

B. JBR

What is used to identify hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product? A. The Mat Man System B. Environmental Protection Agency guidance C. HAZMAT pharmacy D. Safety data sheet (SDS)

D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception (IEX) code or health hazard flag (HHF) assigned? A. Weekly B. Quarterly C. Monthly D. Daily

C. Monthly

Flammable solids include chemicals that are solids at a minimum temperature of A. 100 degrees B. 80 degrees C. 90 degrees D. 110 degrees

A. 100 degrees

What type of materiel storage is best used for items such as pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? A. Low hazard B. High Risk C. Corrosive D. Flammable

A. Low Hazard

When chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is used to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? A. FCC B. FCB C. FCD D. FCA

A. FCC

Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B 2

Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? A. Inspection element B. Producing organization C. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS) D. Distribution officer

B. Producing organization

Which class of storage vault is used for storing secret and confidential materiel? A. A B. B C. C D. D

B. B

Who is assigned as the installation Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) manager/focal point for all matters concerning PMRP? A. LRS commander B. Item manager C. Maintenance supervisor D. Mat Man flight chief inspector

D. Mat Man flight chief inspector

Who is responsible for transferring precious metals-bearing metals to the nearest DLADS facility? A. DoD activity B. Major Command (MAJCOM) C. Headquarters USAF D. Item manager

A. DoD activity

As a minimum, how often must the combination on padlocks be change for classified storage? A. Annually B. Monthly C. Semiannually D. Quarterly

A. Annually

How are electronic sensitive devices (ESD) identified on the item record? A. Issue exception (IEX) code 3 B. Type cargo code 3 C. IEX code 4 D. Type cargo code4

B. Type cargo code 3

What TRIC ad activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device (ESD) item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? A. ISU, E B. MSI, C C. ISU, C D. MSI, E

B. MSI, C

If required, who can open an electrostatic discharge (ESD) item package? A. LRS commander (LRS/CC) B. Mat Man inspector C. Item Manager D. ESD receiving personnel

B. Mat Man inspector

What markings on an item provide proof thhat a functional check was done? A. The words "Functional Check Performed" on the container B. Maintenance pointof contact stamp/signiture C. Base supply inspector's stamp/signature D. Base maintenance inspector's stamp/signature

D. Base maintenance inspector's stamp/signature

As a minimum, how often is a functional check listing provided? A. Semiannually B. Annually C. Weekly D. Monthly

A. Semiannually

What type of shelf life coded item has a definite nonexpendable shelf-life? A. Type B B. Type A C. Type 1 D. Type 2

C. Type 1

How many days prior to the expiration date should type 2 shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? A. 10 days B. 120 days C. 15-45 days D. 60 to 90 days

C. 15-45 days

What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? A. FCC with suspect flag S B. FCD with suspect flag F C. FCC with suspect flag F D. FCD with suspect flag S

D. FCD with suspect flag S

What is employed to determine how counterfeit/discrepant materieel was procured to prevent reoccurance? A. Risk-based approach B. Management-based approach C. Safety-based approach D. Leadership-based approach

A. Risk-based approach

Which program reviews discrepant and suspected counterfeit materiel? A. Joint Discrepancy Reporting System B. Air Force Damage Reporting System C. Joint Damage Reporting System D. Air Force Discrepancy Reporting System

A. Joint Discrepancy Reporting System

The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, A. part number, and manufacturer's name and address B. model, and manufacturer's name C. model, and manufacturer's reference number D. part number, and manufacturer's reference number

B. model, and manufacturer's name

At a minimum, how frequently is the unserviceable storage area reviewed by storage personnel for validation purposes? A. Daily B. Monthly C. Weekly D. Quarterly

A Daily

The inventory deadline date is the Julian date the actual count A. begins B. is verified C. ends D. is scheduled

A. Begins

Who ensures the warehouse does not remain closed to normal receipts and issues for an unreasonable length of time and that all backlog transactions are processed upon completion of the inventory? A. Maintenance supervisor B. Warehouse supervisor C. Accountable officer D. Item manager

C. Accountable Officer

When inventory count images are input, the computer compares the record balance with the A. unit price B. physical count quantity C. controlled item ode D. unit of issue

B. physical count quantity

When performing an inventory on an equipment account, which product is used to record the out-of-balance conditions? A. 1GP output notice B. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14) C. Parameter inputs D. Equipment listing

B. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) (R14)

What document is use to clear the "I" freeze code suspense file? A. Reverse post output document B. Inventory recount image (IRC) output document C. Annotated 1GP notice D. Inventory count record

C. Annotated 1GP notice

An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is less than A. $100 B. $50 C. $25 D. $1,000

A. $100

To indicate that additional research is needed, the modified recount image contains a research indicator of A. AR B. AC C. AZ D. AT

A. AR

At a minimum, how often will an inventory analysis be performed? A. Semi-annual B. Annually C. Daily D. Monthly

D. Monthly

Which listing has an intermediate inventory adjustment summary of the inventory analysis? A. M10 B. D04 C. D06 D. R14

A. M10

Who initiates the deficiency report process to include the deficient property at the time of turn-in? A. Maintenance personnel B. Item Manager C. Warehouse supervisor D. Materiel Management personnel

A. Maintenance personnel

Which document is an official report of facts and circumstances supporting assessment of financial liability for the loss, damage, or destruction of Air Force property? A. Report of dsicrepancy B. Report of Survey C. Supply discrepancy report D. Deficiency evaluation report

B. Report of Survey

Which individual is appointed by the unit commander to accept custodial responsibility for government property under their control? A. Property custodian B. Item manager C. Accountable officer D. Maintenance Supervisor

A. Property custodian

Which concept mandates all personnel are essential to conserve, protect, and maintain available government systems, equipment and supplies for operational requirements? A. Materiel deficiency report B. Reports of survey C. Inventory adjustment D. Supply discipline

D. Supply Discipline

The expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for bench stock items must be A. XB3 B. XF3 C. ND2 D. XD2

A. XB3

Which TRI is used to load the initial master bench stock details? A. 2BS B. 1GP C. 1BS D. 1F3

A. 2BS

Once the date of last demand has exceeded ___ days, deletion recommendations are produced for bench stock items. A. 270 days B. 120 days C. 360 days D. 180 days

A. 270 days

Which product recommends items that qualify for addition to organizational bench stocks? A. M04 B. R26 C. S04 D. R31

A. M04

How often must bench stock standard reporting designator (SRD) data and minimum reserve authorization (MRA) levels be validated? A. Semiannually B. Annually C. Quarterly D. Monthly

B. Annually

Which principle of materiel handling obtains the greatest economy in moving materiel? A. Use straight line flow B. Least handling is the best handling C. Advanced planning D. Volume dictates the method of handling

B. Least handling is the best handling

What principle of materiel handling requires consideration of legel and physical restrictions concerning transportation? A. Advanced planning B. Volume dictates the method of handling C. Use straight line flow D. Least handling is the best handling

A. Advanced planning

What can increase productivity and utilization on warehouse space, in addition to improving mission capability and enhancing safety? A. storage aids system B. support equipment C. packing materials D. honeycombing

A. storage aid systems

Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round trips? A. 100 B. 10 C. 25 D. 50

B. 10

Which action makes cargo loading and unloading as fast and easy as possible? A. Demilitarize B. Calibrate C. Refurbish D. Palletize

D. Palletize

Which element within the LRS is responsible for providing secure storage for weapons? A. Customer service B. Stock control C. Storage and issue D. Mobility

D. Mobility

What is defined as materiel that requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations? A. General supplies B. Sensitive items C. Classified items D. Industrial supplies

B. Sensitive items

Identification of persons authorized to accept controlled materiel is done according to A. AFI 16-1404, Air Force Information Security Program B. AFI 23-2308, Management Program C. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 31-401, Information Security Program Management D. Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-122, Materiel Management

A. AFI 16-1404, Air Force Information Security Program

Who is responsible for training the LRS personnel who will handle controlled materiel? A. Inventory section B. SECFO C. Commander D. Chief Inspector

D. Chief Inspector

Who will Air Force activities report to concerning all discrepancies involving classified items? A. Security manager B. Item manager C. Maintenance supervisor D. LRS commander

A. Security Manager

What color ink is used to stamp or write "Classified Item" on copies of source documents for classified items? A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Black

C. Red

Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet missions requirements? A. Item manager B. LRS commander C. DLA D. AFMC item management team

A. Item manager

Who accounts for threat reduction assets at both organic and contract repair facilities? A. Item manager B. DLA C. AFMC item management team D. LRS commander

C. AFMC item management team

What item must be loaded in the ES-S system for all individuals who receive parts from the LRS? A. Domain name server B. Position identifier C. Customer record D. Stock control system

C. Customer record

Which report provides a snapshot of the effectiveness of meeting customer requirements with on-the-shelf assets? A. Items not pulled B. Items received by customer C. Items not received by customer D. Items pulled

C. Items not received by customer

The intent of the Enterprise Asset Visibility (EVA) component is to provide complete visibility of Air Force A. repair assets B. sourced assets C. asset shortages D. owned assets

D. owned assets

What legacy systems can the ES-S query and view orders in? A. Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K B. D035A; D035K; D043 C. D043; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System D. D035A; LIMS-EV; Materiel Management System

A. Materiel Management System; D035A; D035K

In ES-S, what are the three main areas of the Order Selection Page? A. Order selection criteria, DODAAC, and display criteria B. Data source, Search Value, and DODAAC C. Search value, selection criteria, and order selection criteria D. Required selection criteria, data source, and display criteria

B. Data source, Search Value, and DODAAC

What type of audits does the Audit Data Query enhance your ability to query transaction information for? A. Single and multiple B. Management and inventory C. Issue and requisition D. Internal and external

D. Internal and external

What online system combines the issue, shipment, receipt, and transfer of wholesale and retail materiel? A. Standard Automated Materiel Management System (SAMMS) B. Logistics Information etwork (LINK) C. Visual Logistics Information Processing System (VLIPS) D. Stock control system (SCS)

D. Stock control system (SCS)

Which system provides the use with information on their requisitions, with emphasis placed on the flightline base level user? A. TRACKER B. LINK C. RAMPS D. SCS

A. TRACKER

Which support repair xecution and item distribution, and manages flow of recoverable assets in and out of depot repair? A. Readiness Assessment Module B. Propulsion Requirement System C. Requirements/Execution Availability Logistics Module D. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System

D. Execution and Prioritization of Repair Support System

The Supply Interface System residue images are considered delinquent after how many hours? A. 72 hours B. 36 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

C. 24 hours

How long are the Supply Interface System residue images kept before they are deleted? A. 7 days B. 14 days C. 10 days D. 5 days

C. 10 days

How can users request access to the logistics, installations and mission support-enterprise view (LIMS-EV)? A. Via the Logisitcs Information Network B. Via the Air Force Portal C. Contacting the Defense Logistics Agency D. Through the Supply Interface System

B. Via the Air Force Portal