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2S051 > v1 > Flashcards

v1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is outlined in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36-2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?
A. Career progression for the materiel management career field
B. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty
C. Duties and responsibilities for the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard only
D. Career progression for each military service agent

A

B. Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career field or specialty

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2
Q

Materiel management specialists are not responsible for
A. directing policy and guidance for career field
B. researching and identifying materiel requirements
C. preparing, analyzing, and evaluating reports, procedures, and policy data
D. Providing support to maintenance activities

A

A. directing policy and guidance for career field

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3
Q

The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and
A. perspectives
B. interfaces
C. processes
D. provisioning

A

A. perspectives

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4
Q

To be eligible for the Logistics Career Broadening Program, you must be a Technical Sergeant or Master Sergeant with less than how many years of time-in-service?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 15
D. 11

A

C. 15

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5
Q

What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?
A. GSA and Materiel Management System
B. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA)
C. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC
D. Materiel Management System and DLA

A

C. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC

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6
Q

Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensure logisitics decisions are made and actions are taken wih understanding of thei impact across the entire Air Force?
A. Four: Integrated Technology
B. Three: Optimized Resources
C. One: Enterprise View
D. Tw: Integrated Processes

A

C. One: Enterprise View

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7
Q

In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) Integrated Processes, which is not a resource?
A. Financial
B. Technology
C. Acquisition
D. Infrastructure

A

B. Technology

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8
Q

Which source of supply provides wholesale support to all governemt agencies?
A. General Services Administration (GSA)
B. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
C. Local manufactures
D. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC)

A

A. General Services Administration (GSA)

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9
Q

Local manufacture is a term thatdescribes an item
A. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC)
B. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base
C. designed by a local commodity center
D. sourced from another branch of service

A

B. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base

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10
Q

Which section gives maintenance repair functionss in a single facility?
A. Local Purchase (LP)
B. Local Manufacture (LM)
C. Centralized repair facility (CRF)
D. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

A

C. Centralized repair facility (CRF)

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11
Q

Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers?
A. Flight Service Center
B. Centralized Repair Facility
C. Decentralized materiel support (DMS)
D. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

A

C. Decentralized materiel support (DMS)

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12
Q

Who is required to notify the flightline expediter of all back-ordered parts in accordanc with AFH 21-101?
A. Document Control personnel
B. Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) personnel
C. Storage and Issue personnel
D. Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel

A

D. Decentralized materiel support (DMS) personnel

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12
Q

Which references govern the Repair Network Integration (RNI) process?
A. AFMAN 21-112 and AFI 21-113
B. AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118
C. AFI 21-1777 and AFMAN 21-188
D. AFMAN 20-122 and FI 20-133

A

B. AFI 20-117 and AFMAN 20-118

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13
Q

What best describes supply class 1 items?
A. Ammunition
B. Subsistence
C. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL)
D. Construction

A

B. Subsistence

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14
Q

Which class of supply includes weapons’?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 6

A

C. 2

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15
Q

Which class of supply consists of ammunition?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 3

A

A. 5

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16
Q

What best describes supply class 3 items?
A. Subsistence
B. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL)
C. Ammunition
D. Construction

A

B. Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL)

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17
Q

What best describes supply class 6 items?
A. Personal demand items
B. Major end items
C. Medical materiel
D. Ammunition

A

A. Personal demand items

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18
Q

Which class of supply consists of major end items?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 2
D. 7

A

D. 7

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19
Q

Which class of supply consists of medical materiel?
A. 9
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10

A

C. 8

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20
Q

What best describes supply class X items?
A. Medical materiel
B. Repair parts
C. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs
D. Major end items

A

C. Materiel to support nonmilitary programs

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21
Q

What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure?
A. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)
B. Air Expeditionary Forces (AEF)
C. Operation plan
D. Unit type code (UTC)

A

A. Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR)

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22
Q

Which specialized center is the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities?
A. Air Force Nuclear Weapons Center (AFNWC)
B. Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL)
C. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC)
D. Air Force Test Center (AFTC)

A

C. Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC)

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23
Q

The Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) mission is to
A. provide acquisition management for weapon systems
B. provide research and technology development
C. sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America
D. validate and improve weapon system capabilities

A

C. sustain weapon system readiness to generate airpower for America

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24
Q

How many primary subordinate units (PSU) make up the foundation of the Air Force Installation & Mission Support Center (AFIMSC)?
A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Seven

A

B. Six

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25
Q

Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations?
A. Follow-up
B. Miscellaneous file maintenance
C. Interchangeable and substitute group (I&SG)
D. Status

A

B. Miscellaneous file maintenance

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26
Q

Which type of reports provide information about the overall management of the supply system?
A. Quarterly
B. Daily
C. Utility
D. Monthly

A

B. Daily

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27
Q

Which Department of Defense (DOD) publication implements requirements and procedures for materiel managers and others who work within the supply system?
A. 4500.9-R, Defense Logistics Systems Manual
B. 4100.39-M, Management
C. 4140.01, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures
D. 4120.24-M, Defense Management System

A

C. 4140.01, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Procedures

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28
Q

The Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management Standards, does not pertain to which functional area?
A. Finance
B. Maintenance
C. Supply
D. Safety

A

D. Safety

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29
Q

What process governs logsitics functional business management standards and practices?
A. Supply Management Activity Group
B. Defense Logistics Management Standards
C. Degraded operations
D. Mission capable

A

B. Defense Logistics Management Standards

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30
Q

Which key on a keyboard do you press after typing in a word or phrase using the Find tool for research?
A. Enter
B. Backspace
C. Insert
D. Home

A

A. Enter

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31
Q

What two entities make up the NSN?
A. Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN
B. National item identification number (NIIN) and materiel management code (MMC)
C. MMC and commercial and government entity (CAGE)
D. FSC and MMC

A

A. Federal supply classification (FSC) and NIIN

32
Q

How many major types of inquires are there in the materiel management system?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

D. Four

33
Q

Which code on an item record inquiry is in the materiel management system is usedto obtain specifi8c information?
A. Record retrieval
B. Supply management
C. Transaction exception
D. Type record account

A

A. Record retrieval

34
Q

Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

D. Four

35
Q

What information prints out after processing an item record inquiry?
A. Reject notices
B. Consolidated transaction history
C. Management notices
D. Data element names

A

D. Data element names

36
Q

What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?
A. F
B. D
C. C
D. R

A

D. R

37
Q

Users can query the materiel management computer system consolidated transaction history (CTH) records as far back as
A. six months
B. one month
C. three months
D. one year or more

A

D. one year or more

38
Q

Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type of inquiry allows you to select records using the national stock number (NSN) and transaction date?
A. Transaction serial number
B. Batch transaction date and serial number
C. Stock number
D. Batch miscellaneous option

A

C. Stock number

39
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records?
A. LRS commander
B. Flight chief
C. Logistics manager
D. Operations officer

A

B. Flight chief

40
Q

Which chapter in AFH 23-123, Materiel Management, Volume 2, Part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s rejects created during processing?
A. Three
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

A

D. Seven

41
Q

What letters, preceding the management code and phrase, readily identify management notices?
A. MGT
B. MMT
C. MNT
D. MAN

A

A. MGT

42
Q

Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?
A. D043
B. D019
C. D097
D. D818

A

D. D818

43
Q

What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program?
A. Q09
B. Q10
C. D20
D. D04

A

C. D20

44
Q

Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reasons only?
A. Flight chief
B. Squadron superintendent
C. LRS commander
D. operations officer

A

A. Flight chief

45
Q

Who in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process?
A. Accountable officer
B. Logistics manager
C. Computer operations supervisor
D. Terminal security monitors

A

D. Terminal security monitors

46
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing Part 8 of the D20 when an authoried user attemptsto process a controlled transacion identification code (TRIC)?
A. Data processing center
B. Logistics manager
C. Management and systems officer
D. Flight chief

A

B. Logistics manager

47
Q

The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received?
A. 15th
B. 10th
C. 30th
D. 20th

A

A. 15th

48
Q

The operating principle of no-profit/no-loss best escribes the
A. management analysis prograqms
B. Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
C. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF)
D. Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)

A

D. Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)

49
Q

When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created?
A. Saving
B. Debt
C. Revolving
D. Storing

A

C. Revolving

50
Q

Which is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R)?
A. Medical-Dental
B. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF)
C. General Support
D. United States Air Force Academy

A

B. Air Force working capital fund (AFWCF)

51
Q

Which item falls under the scope of the Consolidated Sustainment Activity Group- Supply (CSAG-S)?
A. War reserve materiel (WRM)
B. Classified materiel
C. Base-managed expense items
D. Wholesale-managed items

A

D. Wholesale-managed items

52
Q

The quality assurance (QA) program helps identify any area, program, or equipment and system that is not compliant with
A. standards
B. quality
C. guidelines
D. principles

A

A. standards

53
Q

Which section has oversight of the self-inspection program?
A. Quality assurance (QA)
B. Resource management
C. Customer support
D. Training

A

A. Quality assurance (QA)

54
Q

Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits?
A. LRS leadership
B. Training section
C. Customer support section
D. Supply Management Activity Group (SMAG)

A

A. LRS leadership

55
Q

When the materiel management system does not process or update transaction as it should, which Air Force form is used to report the problem?
A. 1820, Supply Management Report
B. 1810, Assurance Activity
C. 1825, Supply Command
D. 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) worksheet

A

D. 1815, Difficulty Report (DIREP) worksheet

56
Q

Which activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management-retail (SCM-R) community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports?
A. Quality Assurance (QA)
B. Computer operations
C. Stock control
D. Information technology

A

A. Quality Assurance (QA)

57
Q

A category 3 difficulty report does not sop computer system processing and is corrected
A. over the phone with the materiel nabagement system control center
B. on an Air Force suggestion form
C. as workload permits
D. in the next scheduled release

A

D. in the next scheduled release

58
Q

Which analysis method do you use most often for reoccurring reports for comparing statistical data with standards and norms?
A. problem analysis
B. trend analysis
C. document analysis
D. special studies

A

B. trend analysis

59
Q

Which analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?
A. document analysis
B. special studies
C. trend analysis
D. problem analysis

A

B. special studies

60
Q

Who works with the LRS quality assurance to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management?
A. customer service
B. resource management
C. stock control
D. training

A

D. training

61
Q

What scetion of the materiel management analysis program is taske with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness?
A. Resource management (RM)
B. Training
C. Customer Service (CS)
D. Quality assurance (QA)

A

D. Quality assurance (QA)

62
Q

What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts?
A. Customer support visits
B. Difficulty reports (DIREP)
C. Training requirements
D. Analysis program

A

D. Analysis program

63
Q

Which is not an example of a source document?
A. Returns
B. Receipts
C. Issues
D. Reports

A

D. Reports

64
Q

Which is not required when comparing information between the document control record (DCR) and source document?
A. Quality
B. Nomenclature
C. Stock number
D. System designator

A

B. Nomenclature

65
Q

How often does document control perform a validation of who is authorized to receipt for classified property?
A. Semiannually
B. Monthly
C. Annually
D. Quarterly

A

A. Semiannually

66
Q

What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?
A. TRIC FIC
B. Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU
C. Source documents with file indicator D
D. TRIC FCU

A

C. Source documents with file indicator D

67
Q

How long are transactions retained when documents are processed through the materiel management automated tracking system?
A. 48 months
B. 24 months
C. 75 months
D. 12 months

A

C. 75 months

68
Q

When does a document become delinquent after processing the information from the document control record (DCR) document?
A. 6 months
B. 6th calendar day
C. 1 year
D. 10th calendar day

A

B. 6th calendar day

69
Q

How often does document control hold a meeting to discuss document delinquent status?
A. Annually
B. Quarterly
C. Daily
D. Monthly

A

C. Daily

70
Q

Which materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)?
A. Daily Document Control (D04), part 1
B. Conversion Audit List (R22)
C. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10)
D. Consolidated Transaction (M19)

A

D. Consolidated Transaction (M19)

71
Q

Which materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database?
A. Daily Document Control (D04)
B. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10)
C. Consolidated Transaction (M19)
D. Priority Monitor Report (D18)

A

A. Daily Document Control (D04)

72
Q

The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers?
A. D05 and D08
B. D06 and D08
C. D04 and D05
D. D04 and D06

A

D. D04 and D06

73
Q

What is the purpose of the Shipment-Suspense Program?
A. Determine where an item is lost
B. Hold an item that has not been confirmed
C. Put an item on backorder
D. Ensure an item has been shipped

A

D. Ensure an item has been shipped

74
Q

All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail?
A. Shipment inventory
B. Special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM)
C. Shipment-Suspense or shipped not credited (SNC)
D. Register Equipment Management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares

A

C. Shipment-Suspense or shipped not credited (SNC)

75
Q

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used ti update the shipment-suspense detail?
A. SSG
B. SCS
C. SSC
D. SCG

A

C. SSC

76
Q

Which listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details?
A. R04
B. R40
C. R23
D. R43

A

B. R40

77
Q

Which transaction identification code is used for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction?
A. 1CC
B. 1WC
C. 1TK
D. 1AM

A

D. 1AM

78
Q

What information is required to process an automated reverse-post (RVP) input?
A. Quantity, TTPC, and date
B. Transaction serial number, quantity, and type transaction phrase code (TTPC)
C. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date
D. Transaction serial number, quantity, and date

A

C. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date

2S051 (4 decks)

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