Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Journal RC > UWorld SA > Flashcards

UWorld SA Flashcards

1
Q

Paget’s disease of the bone increases risk for what

A

osteogenic sarcoma, arising in the femur, tibia, humerus, or other bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Avascular necrosis assoc with

A

glucocorticoid use (high dose). RAdiographic findings include pathognomonic crescent sign (subchondral collapse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the renal osteodystrophies

A
  1. Hyperthyroid bone disease
  2. Osteomalacia
  3. Mixed urine osteodystrophy
  4. Aplastic bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PSeudobulbar is caused by conditions like

and presents

A

Multiple sclerosis

dysarthria, dysphagia, dysphonia, impaired movement of the tongue and facial muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Globus Hystericus

A

Sensation of lump in throat w/o accompanying physical, endoscopic, or radiologic findings of esophageal obstruction.

Emotions commonly trigger. also other disorders like GERD, upper esophageal sphincter abnorm, achalasia, psych disorder, stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of RSV

A

Humidified supplemental oxygen and sometimes aerosolized ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Oseltamivir use

mechanism

A

inhibitor of the neuraminidases of influenza A and B viruses. used to prevent and early treatment.

Sialic acid analogue. Prevents neuraminidase cleavage of terminal sialic acid residues and release of attached virions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Histo of burkitts lymphoma

chromosomal translocation

A

Round nuclei w basophillic cytoplasm containing prominent lipid vacuoles

t(8;14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

translocation in B cell childhood Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

t(12;21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Follicular lymphoma histo and translocation

A

Malignant cells w/ notches or clefts (high N/C ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Desmosome relies on what

A

cadherins (Ca2+ dependent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hemodesmosomes rely on

A

integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fibronectin is what

A

ecm glycoprotein that binds cell surface integrins, facilitating cell binding to the extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

presentation of rosacea

A

easy flushing, then later with persistent erythema, telangiectasia, senstivity to sunlight or insults of a chemical or physical nature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Injury to the ____ is the primary concern w/ both anterior and posterior dislocations of the knee joint.

Describe location

A

Popliteal artery

This vessel is fixed rigidly proximal and distal to the knee joint by the adductor magnus and soleus muscles respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most commonly isolated organism in endometritis

A

Bacteroides family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aspirin intolerance is characterized by

A

Asthma
Nasal polyps
Aspirin sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

levator scapulae

action

innervation

A

elevates the scapula and rotates the glenoid fossa inferiorly

innervated by dorsal scapular nerve w/ contributions from teh C3 through C5 spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pectoralis minor

Originates from what and attaches to what

Action

Innervation

A

Originates from anterior surface of 3rd-5th ribs and attaches to teh coracoid process of teh scapula

Draws the scapula anteriorly and inferiorly against the chest wall stabilizing it.

Innervated by the medial pectoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Trapezius

Action

Innervation

A

Elevates and retracts scapula. Can aslo rotate the scapula slightly for movement of the glendoid fossa superiorly

Innervated by teh spinal accessory nerve CN XI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what two primary tissues produce a bicarbonate rich fluid in response to stimulation

What do they respond to and what is this secreted by

A

Exocrine pancreas

Epithelial cells of teh biliary tract

MEdiated predominantly by secretin from S cells of the duodenal mucosa in response to acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

difference b/w acute stress disorder and ptsd

A

ptsd is greater than 1 month. otherwise the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most common viral encephalitis

Where does it tend to affect

presentation

tx

A

herpes simplex encephalitis caused by HSV-1 typically.

tends to affect the temporal lobe., ergo some unique

(along w normal meningitis signs)

  • seizures
  • personality changes
  • psychosis

tx: acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

paramyxoviridae includes

A

measles
mumps
RSV
parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acanthamoeba causes what

A

protozoal organism causing fatal ecephalitis in AIDS pt. and other chronically immunosuppressed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cause of 3rd heart sound

cause of 4th heart sound

A

3rd heart sound-low pitched sound during rapid filling of teh ventricle in mid-diastole. From sudden deceleration of blood as teh elastic limits of the ventricular chamber are reached during rapid ventricular filling. Normal in children but indicates ventricular failure in adults. (cardiac failure either systolic or diastolic failure)

4th heart sound- forceful atrial contraction pushing blood into overfilled/stiffened ventricle.

27
Q

Exudates demonstrate what (that transudates lack)

A

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein > 0.5
Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH>0.6
Pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the upper limit of normal serum LDH

28
Q

Target cells/codocytes seen in

A

liver disease
thalessemia
status post splenectomy

29
Q

fragmented RBC seen in

A 
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
DIC
Prosthetic valve hemolysis
30
Q

Echinocytes/burr cells (multiple surface projections) seen in

A

Uremia

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

31
Q

how to tx hereditary spherocytosis

what improves

A

splenectomy

Improved anemia
Decreased hemolysis and jaundice
Reduced incidence of bilirubin gallstones

32
Q

Intraventricular hemorrhage begins where for premature infants?

A

Germinal matrix (highly cellular and vascular int he subventricular region that generates neurons and glia during fetal development)

33
Q

Cephalhematoma is what

A

HEmorrhage within the circular region of teh scalp that enters the lower uterus during childbirth.

assoc with

  • sudden delivery
  • disproportion b/w diameter of fetal head and birth canal
  • inapprop forceps use
34
Q

Procainamide SE

A

Reversible syndrome similar to SLE

35
Q

Amiodarone SE

A 
pulmonary fibrosis
arrhythmias
hepatic injury
thyroid abnormalities
ocular changes
bluish-gray skin discoloration
36
Q

Lidocaine SE

A

dose dependent CNS stimulation or depression

Cardiovascular depression

37
Q

Sotalol SE

A

Torsades de pointes

Excessive beta blockade

38
Q

What do
Acetylcholine
Histamine
Gastrin

bind to on parietal cells to stimulate gastric acid production

A

ACh: M3 receptor
Histamine:H2 receptor
Gastrin:CCK2 receptor

39
Q

What leukotrienes mediate asthmatic bronchoconstriction

A

Leukotrienes C4,D4,E4 mediate asthmatic bronchoconstriction

40
Q

pathogenesis of aspirin sensitive asthma

A

selective inhibition of COX in arachidonic acid metabolism promotes formation of bronchoconstrictive leukotrienes. (C4,D4,E4)

41
Q

palmitoylation is what

where do you see it

A

fatty acids covalently anchored to plasma membrane cysteine residues therby increasing hydrophobicity of a protein

Many GPCRs have carboxyl tails palmitoylated on cysteine residues. V2 vasopressin receptor is a prime example.

42
Q

Digeorge is caused by

A

hypoplastic third pharyngeal pouch

43
Q

Hypercalcemia results in

A

painful bones, renal stones, abd groans, and psychic moans

44
Q

allelic heterogeneity vs. genetic heterogeneity

A

Genetic heterogeneity is where mutations of different genes cause similar phenotypes

Phenotypic heterogeneity is mutations of the same gene result in different phenotypes

45
Q

Polygenic disease is what. example?

A

result from defects in numerous often unrelated genes (type 2 diabetes, which has clearly heritable component but cannot be traced to any specific gene)

46
Q

what receptor does histamine use for airway hyperresponsiveness

A

H4

47
Q

chromosome 7 mutation associations

A

cystic fibrosis
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Osteogenesis imperfecta

48
Q

chromosome 16 associations

A

Polycystic kidney disease

Tuberous sclerosis

49
Q

Maple syrup urine disease has defect in what?

What is a coenzyme?

A

Branched chain alpha keto acid deydrogenase complex
(cannot break down leucine, isoleucine, valine)

Thiamine B1 is a coenzyme

50
Q

Glucagon uses what receptor

A

Gs

51
Q

Growth factors use what receptor

A

RTK

52
Q

Insulin uses what receptor

A

RTK

53
Q

Red safranin O stains what

A

Cartilage
Mast cell granules
Mucin

(turns them red)

54
Q

Pulmonary embolism causes what in abg

A

Alkalosis, and decrease in both PaCO2 and PaO2

This is due to hyperventilation and ventilation/perfusion mismatch

55
Q

neurofibroma is what

assoc with what

A

soft, flesh colored papule that is assoc with NF1

56
Q

Dermatofibroma is what

A

firm hyperpigmented papule tethered to teh epidermis

57
Q

how can you have dx of NF1

A

2 or more of following

  • 6 or more cafe au lait spots (brownish spots)
  • intertrigeinous freckling
  • optic nerve glioma
  • bony lesions-iris Lisch nodules
  • First degree relative with NF1
58
Q

Describe NF1’s genetics

A

autosomal dominant on chr 17. Has 100% penetrance and variable expressivity. Novel germine mutations can cause NF1 in families with no prior fam hx

59
Q

intense holosystolic murmur heard best over the apex that radiates to the axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

60
Q

loud, holosystolic murmur heard best along the left lower sternal border occasionally associated with a palpable systolic thrill

A

Interventricular septal defect (VSD)

61
Q

High pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard in the third intercostal space along the left sternal border

A

aortic regurgitation

62
Q

blowing holosystolic murmur heard best along the lower left sternal border intensified during inspiration and reduce during standing

A

tricuspid regurgitation.

think of infective endocarditis in abusers of IV drugs

63
Q

red man syndrome from vancomycin causes what

A

histamine release from mast cells but NOT IGE MEDIATED ALLERGIC REACTION. CAn be prevented using a slower rate of infusion

Step 1 Journal RC (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions